所属成套资源:全国各地英语中考真题及答案
2021杭州中考英语试卷+答案+解析(word整理版)
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这是一份2021杭州中考英语试卷+答案+解析(word整理版),共10页。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)(略)
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和 D)中选出最佳选项。
A
My name is Ryan and last summer my family and I went t an island fr ur summer vacatin. There were s many fun and interesting things t d n the island, but my favrite was fishing. Every day, my mm, my dad, my yunger brther Derek and I went t the beach. We tk ur little fishing bat with us. Mm didn?t like fishing, s she stayed n the beach and read a bk.
One mrning, while we were fishing, we heard a lud nise. “What was that?” I asked. “Oh,dn?t wrry, Ryan. It might be a turtle(海龟) swimming under the bat,” said Dad. Derek and I lked arund the bat, but we culdn?t see anything. Then we heard a different nise, which sunded like an animal. “Lk, Dad, there it is!” shuted Derek. It was a sea turtle and it culdn?t swim well. “Let?s g clser and see what?s wrng with it,” Dad said.
When we gt clser, we saw that there was a piece f plastic(塑料) arund the turtle?s legs. “Let?s help it,” I said. S Dad jumped int the water, swam t the turtle and brught it back t the bat. “There yu g, little turtle;nw yu can swim t yur family,” Dad said as he cut the plastic ff. Then Derek and I put it back in the water. “I knw! We shuld make a sign abut nt thrwing rubbish int the sea, and put it in the sand n the beach,” I said. “I?ll help, t,” said Derek. “Great idea, bys. If we dn?t all d smething t stp sea pllutin, these sea animals will die.”
16.What did Ryan like ding best?
A.Bating.B.Fishing.C.Swimming.D.Reading.
17.Wh cut the plastic ff the turtle?
A.Ryan.B.Derek.C.Father.D.Mther.
18.Why did Ryan want t put up a sign?
A.T welcme peple.
B.T feed sea animals.
C.T use the rubbish again.
D.T stp sea pllutin.
B
19.What did Sara?s T-shirt help her family d in Lndn?
A.Find a suvenir shp.
B.Knw where they were.
C.Take a shrt way.
D.Remember wh they were.
20.Why is the ther T-shirt s imprtant t Sara?
A.It has never been wrn befre.
B.It washes well.
C.It was bught at Adele?s cncert.
D.It ges with jeans.
21.What des Nuria think f her T-shirt?
A.It is ld.B.It is simple.
C.It is expensive.D.It is valuable.
22.What is the purpse f this blg?
A.T prduce ppular T-shirts.
B.T make an ad fr T-shirts.
C.T intrduce favrite T-shirts.
D.T ffer a design fr T-shirts.
C
Flamenc is very ppular in suthern Spain. It begins with guitar music and clapping(击掌)and then dancers jin the perfrmance. Smetimes a wman dances alne and smetimes she dances with a man. The wman always wears a lng, clrful dress. She mves her arms and hands slwly but her feet mve in fast, difficult steps. The man ften wears black. Bth dancers click their shes n the flr when they dance arund each ther.
Cssack dances are frm Russia and Ukraine. They are very energetic—sme are mre like gymnastics than dancing! Dancers have t be very fit because they jump very high and kick their legs up and dwn. They ften jump ver swrds(剑). The mvements are similar t traditinal Cssack activities, fr example, swrd fighting and getting n and ff hrses.
Limb dancing is first frm West Africa but tday it is an imprtant part f celebratins in the Caribbean. Yung peple have t dance under a ple(杆). The ple is ften n fire and the dancer mustn?t tuch it! After a successful “limb”, they put the ple lwer and d it again. Sme dancers can dance under a ple just twenty centimeters ff the grund!
Mask(面具) dances are imprtant fr the Dgn peple in Mali. Each village makes different masks. They are ften huge and clrful. There are masks f peple, mnsters r lcal animals like crcdiles and mnkeys. Mask dancers are always men and they dance t the sund f drums fr hurs after the death f a persn in the village. Tday, Dgn villagers als perfrm the dances fr turists.
23.What d we knw abut flamenc dancing?
A.Dancers begin perfrming befre the guitar music starts.
B.A wman dancer ften wears a lng black dress.
C.A wman dancer mves her hands and feet at different speeds.
D.Dancers clap ludly while mving arund each ther.
24.What des the underlined wrd “gymnastics” in Paragraph 2 refer t?
A.A play.B.A sprt.
C.A celebratin.D.A shw.
25.Which f the fllwing is limb dancing?
A.B.
C.D.
26.What is the best title fr the text?
A.Dance Jumps and Mves
B.Dances fr Different Ages
C.Dance Music and Clthing
D.Dances frm Arund the Wrld
D
When d children start t talk? If yu ask a grup f parents when this happened, mst will say “arund twelve mnths f age”. They will prbably even remember what the children said. Many parents keep a diary f their child?s “first wrds”.
We can never predict what a first wrd is ging t be. Often it?s the name fr “mummy” r “daddy”, but it culd just as easily be the wrd fr an animal r a favrite ty. Everything depends n what has mst caught the child?s attentin. But ne thing is certain:after the first wrd, thers cme quickly. By 18 mnths, mst children have learned abut 50 wrds. By tw, the ttal has risen t arund 200.
Early wrds are actually ne-wrd sentences. One f the first features(特征) f language a child learns well is t cntrl the rise and fall f the vice t make the difference between stating and questining. In English, daddy with a high rising tne(声调) means “is that daddy?” Daddy with a high falling tne means “There?s daddy”. Of curse, nly very basic meanings can be cmmunicated using tnes alne. S it sn becmes necessary t learn sme grammar.
In English, grammar means learning t put wrds in different rders. Children have t see that mummy push is different frm push mummy. They start practising such changes at arund 18 mnths. By tw, they have learned the basic patterns f wrd rder, and we hear them saying such things as man kick ball and where daddy g.
What are the parents ding all this time? They?re acting as teachers and they always have an active rle t play in their child?s language learning.
27.Hw ld are mst children when they have learned abut 50 wrds?
A.Abut 6 mnths ld.B.Abut ne year ld.
C.Abut 18 mnths ld.D.Abut tw years ld.
28.Which might an English child say first when learning t talk?
A.mummyB.push mummy
C.man kick ballD.where daddy g
29.What?s Paragraph 4 mainly abut?
A.Wrd rder.B.Wrd tnes.
C.The first wrds.D.Crrecting wrds.
30.Wh is mst respnsible fr a child?s early language learning?
A.Teachers.B.Parents.
C.Friends.D.Grandparents.
第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
下面文章中有五处(第31—35题)需要添加小标题。请从以下选项(A、B、C、D、E和F)中选出符合意思的标题。选项中有一项是多余选项。
Hw t get that jb!
Interviews can be quite frightening but ur tp five tips can help yu. Dn?t wrry—relax! Remember these things and yu?ll be fine.
31
Find ut exactly where the interview is and hw t get there. Remember that buses and trains can ften be late s allw plenty f time. It?s better t be early than late.
32
Think abut what the interviewer will ask yu. He r she will prbably ask abut yur qualificatins(资格) and yur experience but they?ll als ask yu why yu want the jb as well. Think f sme pssible questins and prepare yur answers befre yu g.
33
If yu wear smething new it will make yu feel uncmfrtable. It?s best t wear smething smart but smething yu like and feel happy in.
34
In the interview dn?t sit lking at yur feet. Make sure yu sit up and lk the interviewer in the eye. This makes yu lk hnest and mre cnfident.
35
It?s a gd idea t ask questins at the interview. Ask abut the cmpany r the jb. Prepare sme questins befre the interview. It makes yu lk mre interested if yu d this.
A.Ask a questin!
B.Be relaxed.
C.Wear cmfrtable clthes.
D.Be n time!
E.Make eye cntact(眼神交流)!
F.Be prepared!
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节:完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分 15分)
通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后在各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出一个最佳选项。
Smething that I learnt frm bth my parents was the imprtance f having respect(尊重) fr ther peple. I remember ne day when we were travelling n a bus and 36 sat dwn while ther peple were standing. My mther shuted at me “ 37 immediately! Yu have yung legs and yu dn?t need t sit dwn.” At the time I felt embarrassed abut being tld ff 38 , but nw I understand. I think children nwadays have 39 that respect and it really makes me angry if I see children sitting dwn while 40 peple are standing.
One area in which we had a lt f rules was table 41 . Fr example, we weren?t allwed t start ur meal 42 the ldest persn had started. We had t say “thank yu” when ur fd was 43 , and eat everything n ur plates befre we culd 44 the table. We culdn?t make any nise when eating. Wrse than that, we were nly 45 t have sweets at the weekend, as a special 46 if we had been gd.
Althugh my upbringing(养育) was perhaps a bit 47 cmpared with mdern children, I?m very thankful t my parents fr giving me a clear 48 in life. Even thugh I was smetimes 49 , I think it has made me a better persn. In my view, children need clear rules, but mre than that they need t learn hw t get n with 50 peple and realize they are nt the center f the wrld.
B.yuC.ID.she
upB.Sit upC.Give upD.Lk up
rderB.in publicC.in surpriseD.in persn
B.shwnC.wastedD.lst
B.richerC.tallerD.heavier
B.mannersC.materialsD.sizes
B.becauseC.untilD.thugh
B.eatenC.preparedD.served
B.bkC.leave D.lay
B.frcedC.warnedD.advised
B.treatC.chiceD.need
B.interestingC.nrmalD.strict
B.answerC.intrductinD.plan
B.encuragedC.fledD.punished
B.therC.fewD.several
第Ⅱ卷
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分25分)
第二节:(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
All arund the wrld, families celebrate special days tgether. Traditins fr these days 51 (be) very different. Sme f them may surprise yu.
Families in mst cuntries have a special day t celebrate mthers. In Serbia, this day is n 52 secnd Sunday befre Christmas. On that day, children sneak(溜) int their 53 (mther) bedrm and tie her feet with ribbn(丝带) s that she can?t get ut f bed. Then they shut, “Mther?s Day, Mther?s Day! What will yu pay 54 (get) away?” Then the mther gives 55 (they) small treats and presents as payment s that the kids “free” her.
In China, they say that 56 (baby) are ne year ld when they are brn. After that, all children celebrate their birthday n New Year?s Day because that?s when they grw a year 57 (ld). Actual birthdays are 58 (usual) celebrated with a big family meal. The traditin is that the “birthday by” r “birthday girl” shuld fill their muth with as many lng ndles 59 they can and then eat them. This is because in Chinese culture, lng ndles are a symbl 60 lng life.
51. 52. 53. 54. 55.
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分25分)
第一节:单词拼写(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
根据下列句子及所给的首字母,写出各单词的正确、完全形式(每空限填一词)。
61.M is the fifth mnth f the year in the Western calendar.
62.As the saying ges, “An a a day keeps the dctr away.”
63.E me, can yu tell me hw I can get t a nearby restaurant?
64.The sun rises in the e and sets in the west.
65.—W vlleyball is this?
—It must be Carla?s. She lves vlleyball.
66.I can?t b that tday is the last day f junir high schl. I still remember the first day f Grade 7 like it was yesterday.
67.The number 1,000,000 is written with a ne and six z .
68.When a persn v a freign cuntry, it is imprtant t knw hw t ask fr help plitely.
69.While I was watching TV, the drbell r .
70.Accrding t the latest census(人口普查), China has a p f 1,411.78 millin.
第二节:书面表达(共1小题,满分15分)
假定你是李平,请阅读以下邮件,接受邀请并回复。词数80左右,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
Dear Matt,
Li Ping
第Ⅰ卷
第二部分 阅读理解
第一节
A
[语篇解读] 本文是一篇记叙文。作者和家人去海岛度假,在那里,他们遇到了一只腿被塑料缠住了的海龟,他们施以援手,使海龟能自由地在海中游。由此作者呼吁人们停止海洋污染。
16.B 细节理解题。根据第一段第一句中My name is Ryan和第二句中my favrite was fishing可知答案是B。
17.C 细节理解题。根据最后一段中Dad said as he cut the plastic ff可知答案是C。
18.D 细节理解题。根据最后一段中We shuld make a sign abut nt thrwing rubbish int the sea, and put it in the sand n the beach.和If we dn?t all d smething t stp sea pllutin, these sea animals will die.可知答案是D。
B
[语篇解读] 生活中每个人都会有很多T恤,但是它们对于我们来说,意义却各不相同。本文介绍了Sara和Nuria最喜欢的T恤。
19.B 细节理解题。根据第二段最后一句We almst gt lst, but we fund ur way—thanks t the picture n this T-shirt!可知T恤上的图案给了Sara和她的家人信息,从而使他们找到了路。故答案是B。
20.C 推理判断题。通读第三段可知,喜欢音乐的Sara最喜欢的歌星是Adele。而且她的另一件T恤是在Adele的演唱会上买的纪念品,因此对她来说非常重要。故答案是C。
21.D 推理判断题。根据Nuria帖子中最后两句And it has sentimental value. Last year, my brther studied in Beijing and he gave me this when he came hme. 可知,Nuria的T恤是在北京留学的哥哥带给她的,具有情感价值,故答案是D。
22.C 主旨大意题。由标题T-shirts that tell a stry可知,文章是关于T-shirts的;根据第一段最后一句I?m ging t tell yu abut tw T-shirts that I really, really lve and explain why.可以推断出Sara这篇博客的写作意图是介绍她最喜欢的T恤。文章的主体分为两部分,分别介绍了Sara和Nuria最喜欢的T恤及其原因。故答案是C。
C
[语篇解读] 舞蹈作为一种表演艺术,其表现形式也是多种多样的。本文介绍了四种起源于不同国家的舞蹈。
23.C 细节理解题。根据第一段中She mves her arms and hands slwly but her feet mve in fast, difficult steps. (她的胳膊和手移动得很慢,但她的脚移动得很快,舞步也很难。)可知,弗拉门科舞者的手臂和双脚移动的速度是不一样的。故选C。
24.B 词义猜测题。根据第二段中They are very energetic和Dancers have t be very fit because they jump very high and kick their legs up and dwn.可知哥萨克舞者非常有力量、非常健康,他们的舞蹈中有跳得很高、上下踢腿的动作,根据常识可知这些都是一名体操运动员所必须具备的能力。因此我们可以推断gymnastics是一种运动。故答案是B。
25.A 细节理解题。根据第三段中Yung peple have t dance under a ple. The ple is ften n fire and the dancer mustn?t tuch it!(年轻人要在一根杆子下跳舞。这根杆子上经常有火在燃烧,而且舞者不能碰到它!)可知,A图所示的是limb dancing。故答案是A。
26.D 标题归纳题。文章共分为四段,每段介绍一种舞蹈,它们起源于不同国家。由此可知,文章最好的标题是D项(来自世界各地的舞蹈)。
D
[语篇解读] 孩子什么时候开始说话?他们说的第一句话是什么?谁是他们的第一任语言老师?相信读完这篇文章,你心中就会有答案。
27.C 细节理解题。根据第二段倒数第二句By 18 mnths, mst children have learned abut 50 wrds.可知答案是C。
28.A 细节理解题。根据第三段第一句Early wrds are actually ne-wrd sentences. (早期的言语通常是一个词的句子。)可知,只有一个词是早期言语的主要特点。故答案是A。
29.A 段落大意题。 第四段首句指出“在英语中,语法意味着学着以不同的顺序排列单词”,而后面的例子mummy push, push mummy, man kick ball和where daddy g也都是关于语序的。由此可知本段的主题为wrd rder,故答案是A。
30.B 推理判断题。由最后一段可推断,在孩子早期学语言的时候,父母的责任最为重大。因此答案选B。
第二节
[语篇解读] 面试总是令人生畏。本文提供了五条应对面试的建议。
31.D 根据Remember that buses and trains can ften be late s allw plenty f time. It?s better t be early than late.可知本段建议要守时。故答案是D。
32.F 根据Think abut what the interviewer will ask yu.及Think f sme pssible questins and prepare yur answers befre yu g.可知本段建议做充分的准备。故答案是F。
33.C 根据本段内容可知本段建议穿舒适的衣服。故答案是C。
34.E 根据Make sure yu sit up and lk the interviewer in the eye. This makes yu lk hnest and mre cnfident.可知,本段建议要与面试官有眼神交流。故答案是E。
35.A 根据It?s a gd idea t ask questins at the interview.可知本段建议在面试时提出一些问题。
第三部分 英语知识运用
第一节 完形填空
[语篇解读] 本文是记叙文。作者通过自己的经历给我们讲述了一些做人的道理。
36.C 根据妈妈批评我的话中yu dn?t need t sit dwn可知,坐下的人是“我”,故答案是C。
37.A 根据设空处前一句可知,我不顾他人自己坐在了座位上,因此妈妈生气地让我“站起来”,故答案是A。get up起床,起立;sit up 坐起来;give up 放弃;lk up向上看。
38.B 妈妈是在公交车上“当众”批评了我,因此我感到尴尬,故答案是B。in rder按顺序;in public在公共场合,当众;in surprise惊奇地;in persn亲自。
39.D 根据设空处后面的it really makes me angry if I see children sitting dwn while 40 peple are standing可知,我认为现在的孩子“失去了”对大人的尊重,故答案是D。
40.A 此处指孩子坐着,而“较年长的人”站着。故答案是A。
41.B 根据设空处后几个例子可知这里说的是餐桌礼仪,故答案是B。
42.C 意为“直到……才……”。此处意为:直到最年长的人开始吃饭的时候,我们才被允许开始吃饭。故答案是C。
43.D 此处意为:饭菜端上来的时候,我们要说“谢谢”。serve有“端上,提供”的含义。故答案是D。
44.C 此处意为:在我们离开餐桌前,必须吃完我们自己盘子里的食物。由此可知设空处表示“离开”。故答案是C。
45.A be allwed t被允许……,be frced t被强制……,be warned t被警告……,be advised t被建议……。此处与前面的weren?t allwed t对应,故选A。
46.B 根据设空处后if we had been gd可知,周末的糖果是对我们的款待。故答案是B。
47.D 根据第一段内容可知,作者认为相比现在的孩子,父母对自己的养育是更“严格”一些的。故答案是D。
48.A directin指导,answer答案,intrductin介绍,plan计划。结合下文中clear rules及上文父母的教导可知,此处意为:我非常感激父母,因为他们给了我明确的指导。故答案是A。
49.D 最后一段第一句指出父母对我要求严格,所以此处应指“我有时候被惩罚”。故答案是D。
50.B 联系上下文可知此处意为:学习如何与他人相处,故答案是B。
第Ⅱ卷
第三部分 英语知识运用
第二节
[语篇解读] 本文是一篇说明文,介绍了世界各地的家庭都会庆祝某些特殊的日子,但是其传统又各不相同。
51.are/have been 本句可理解为是在描述当今存在的现象,用一般现在时;traditins是可数名词复数,根据主谓一致原则可知设空处应为are。而本句也可理解为自古以来人们庆祝这些日子的方法各不相同,此时则用现在完成时,故答案也可以是have been。
52.the 设空处后的secnd是序数词,序数词前应用定冠词,故答案是the。
53.mther?s 设空处提示词mther与空后的bedrm是所属关系,因此用名词所有格mther?s。
54.t get 设空处应用动词不定式表示目的。故答案是t get。
55.them 设空处作gives的宾语,应使用宾格形式,因此答案是them。
56.babies 设空处后为are,根据主谓一致原则可知设空处应为复数,故答案是babies。
57.lder 根据句意“每到新年都会长一岁”可知,此处应用形容词比较级。故答案是lder。
58.usually 设空处修饰动词are celebrated,应该使用副词。故答案是usually。
59.as ne can“某人尽可能地……”,故答案是as。
60.f a symbl f...“……的象征”,故答案是f。
第四部分 写作
第一节:单词拼写
61.May 句意:五月在西方日历中是一年中的第五个月。根据句意可知答案是May。
62.apple 句意:俗话说:“一天一苹果,医生远离我。”根据句意和俗语常识可知答案是apple。
63.Excuse 句意:打扰一下,您能告诉我怎么去附近的餐馆吗?Excuse me为礼貌用语,用于打扰他人,引起他人注意的时候。
64.east 句意:太阳从东方升起,又在西方落下。根据题意可知答案是east。
65.Whse 句意:——这是谁的排球?——一定是Carla的。她喜欢排球。根据答语可知此处是问“谁的”,因此答案是Whse。
66.believe 句意:我真不敢相信今天是初中的最后一天。我仍然记得七年级的第一天,就像是昨天一样。设空处前是can?t,故用动词原形,根据句意答案是believe。
67.zers/zeres 句意:数字1,000,000是由一个1和六个0组成的。根据句意可知设空处指“零”,且设空处前是six,故zer应为复数。zer变复数时,可以加-s, 也可以加-es,故答案是zers/zeres。
68.visits 句意:当一个人在外国旅游时,知道如何礼貌地寻求帮助是重要的。根据句意可知设空处用visit,而it is imprtant表明此处应用一般现在时态,且设空处前的persn是可数名词单数,故答案应为visits。
69.rang 句意:我正在看电视的时候,门铃响了。由While I was watching TV可知事情发生在过去,因此用一般过去时,答案是rang。
70.ppulatin 句意:根据最新一次的人口普查,中国人口数量是14.1178亿。根据句意可知设空处表示人口,故答案是ppulatin。
第二节:书面表达
写作提示
1.时态:一般现在时和一般将来时。
2.需要回复的要点有:
你能不能带一些中式食品?
你认为你会几点到?
你是否能留下帮助收拾剩下的东西?
3.注意连词的使用,语言得体。
参考范文
Dear Matt,
It?s gd t hear frm yu. Everything is fine with me here. Thanks fr the invitatin! I will definitely cme! It will be gd t meet Mike. I?ll arrive at arund 5:30 next Saturday and bring sme traditinal Chinese fds, like dumplings and zngzi fr yu. I hpe yu wuld like them. Dn?t wrry. I will stay after the party t help yu clean up.
Thanks again fr the invitatin. I am really lking frward t it!
All the best,
Li Ping
19
2021年杭州市初中毕业升学文化考试
(满分:120分 考试时间:100分钟)
Have yu ever thught hw imprtant T-shirts are in yur life? I dn?t mean expensive designer T-shirts. After all, just because yu spend a lt f mney n a shirt desn?t mean that it lks gd. I?m talking abut the T-shirts that say smething abut yu, like where yu?ve been, what yu like, r what yu think. Thse are ften the T-shirts that we feel the mst cmfrtable in and that we wear again and again. I?m ging t tell yu abut tw T-shirts that I really, really lve and explain why.
I?ve been t Lndn twice. The first time I went I saw this shirt in a suvenir(纪念品) shp and my dad bught it fr me. I really lved the design and the clrs. And it reminds me f smething funny that happened. One day we were travelling arund the center f Lndn. We almst gt lst, but we fund ur way—thanks t the picture n this T-shirt!
Smetimes I?ve bught clthes that I?ve never wrn r that I?ve nly wrn nce r twice. But I?ve wrn (and washed) this T-shirt hundreds f times. I lve music and I lve Adele. I haven?t seen many f my favrite artists live, but I bught this when I went t Adele?s cncert tw years ag. It was a great cncert and this is a great suvenir. And white T-shirts g with anything, nt just jeans!
S, thse are just tw f my favrite T-shirts that tell a stry. What abut yurs?
psted 16th April at 16:57pst a cmment
I?ve never been t China and I dn?t knw any Chinese, but ne f my favrite T-shirts has the Chinese characters n it. One f the reasns that I like it is because I lve the bright clrs f the characters. And it has sentimental(情感) value. Last year, my brther studied in Beijing and he gave me this when he came hme.
Nuria Gil, Spain
19 2021年杭州市初中毕业升学文化考试
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
B
C
D
B
C
D
C
C
B
A
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
D
C
A
A
B
D
F
C
E
A
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
C
A
B
D
A
B
C
D
C
A
46
47
48
49
50
B
D
A
D
B
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