河北雄安新区部分校2025-2026学年七年级下学期期末质量监测 英语试题（含解析）

这是一份河北雄安新区部分校2025-2026学年七年级下学期期末质量监测 英语试题（含解析），共4页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1. A. Twice a day. B. By bus. C. Great.
2. A. Yu are right. B. Have fun. C. Let’s g.
3. A. Well dne. B. It’s a deal. C. Yes, I’d lve t.
4. A. It’s big. B. A shp. C. Walk there.
5. A. That’s OK. B. Gd idea. C. I think s.
第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13小题；每小题1分，满分13分）
6. Where will David g fr the summer hliday?
A. B. C.
7. What is Li Lin making?
A. B. C.
8. What will Jack d tmrrw?
A. Play ping-png. B. Play basketball. C. G swimming.
9. When will they play ping-png?
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Thursday.
10. What happened t Xia Fang and her family?
A. A fire. B. A strm. C. An earthquake.
11. Wh helped Xia Fang and her family?
A. The neighburs. B. The relatives. C. The students.
12. Hw much mney did they raise fr Xia Fang and her family?
A. 2,000 yuan. B. 12,000 yuan. C. 20,000 yuan.
13. Hw many places in the neighburhd are mentined (被提及)?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4
14. Which place des Wang Mei like best?
A. The bkstre. B. The bakery. C. The grcery stre.
15. What des Wang Mei think f the peple there?
A. Busy and kind. B. kind and plite. C. Shy and plite.
16. What wuld Li Ming like fr lunch?
A. Rice and chicken. B. Rice and vegetables. C. Meat and fish.
17. What is Li Ming’s favurite sprt?
A. Basketball. B. Ftball. C. Vlleyball.
18. Hw ften des Li Ming g swimming?
A. Once a week. B. Once a mnth. C. Every day.
第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
19. When des Lisa’s first class start?
A. 7:45. B. 7:50. C. 8:15.
20. Hw many classes des Lisa have in the mrning?
A. 3. B. 4. C. 5.
21. What is Lisa’s favurite subject?
A. Gegraphy. B. English. C. Badmintn.
22. What dues Mary d after she gets up in the mrning?
A. She swims fr 15 minutes.
B. She reads English fr fifteen minutes.
C. She eats fruit right away.
23. Wh des Mary swim with n weekends?
A. Steven. B. Tm. C. Her friend Lily.
24. What fd des Steven like eating?
A. Fresh vegetables. B. Healthy fruit. C. Junk fd.
25. Wh has a healthy lifestyle?
A. Mary. B. Steven. C. Tm.
第四节 听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Every week, ur English teacher Mr Huang asks us a simple ____1____: What was the best thing in yur life last week?
Why des he ask this questin? He wants t help us learn ____2____ t be happy. But mst f us say that nthing ____3____ happened.
I realized that we dn’t have the ability (能力) t enjy life. Then Mr Huang ____4____ with us sme tips abut being happy:
First, lwer the bar (标准). We must learn t lwer the bar and ____5____ jy. Fr example, I culdn’t eat in restaurants during the pandemic (疫情), and I learned t ____6____ at hme with my mm. I shuld ____7____ it, instead f cmplaining (抱怨). If I put my bar very high, I dn’t think I wuld be ____8____.
Secnd, lk n the ____9____ side. We must learn t fcus n things we can imprve. If I just lked at the dark side f life, I wuld nt be mtivated (有动力的).
I really want t thank my English teacher fr giving us this lessn n ____10____.
1. A. gameB. questinC. tripD. habit
2. A. hwB. whatC. whyD. where
3. A. easyB. hugeC. awfulD. gd
4. A. talkedB. sharedC. playedD. stayed
5. A. pat nB. lk upC. take awayD. lk fr
6. A. sleepB. studyC. readD. ck
7. A. takeB. stpC. frgetD. enjy
8. A. sadB. busyC. happyD. tired
9. A. brightB. darkC. wrngD. narrw
10. A. healthB. happinessC. friendshipD. study
第二节 短文填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或填入括号内单词的正确形式。
I have a friend called Lily. She is in Grade Seven this year. She likes maths, Chinese, science and PE, but she is nt gd ____11____ English. She ften ____12____ (have) prblems in learning English. She thinks English is very difficult and bring.
One day, a friend f her father’s frm America shwed her family sme pictures abut America and invited ____13____ (they) t his hme. Lily wanted t g t America very much, ____14____ her father said she must speak English very well. She said t ____15____ (she), “I can make it.” Frm then n, she ____16____ (begin) t study hard. She kept ____17____ (read) English fr abut half an hur every mrning. She als tried her best ____18____ (remember) new wrds every day. Even when she was sick, she didn’t stp. In class, she listened t the teachers very ____19____ (careful). She ften wrte dwn sme English phrases and ____20____ (sentence). There is ____21____ American teacher named Mrs. Green in her schl. After schl, she ften talked t Mrs. Green in English and asked her fr help. Mrs. Green gave her sme ____22____ (use) advice. Because f these, Lily’s English imprved ____23____ (quick). She always says, “I want t be a diplmat (外交官).” Nw she ____24____ (practice) spken English with her freign friend. I am sure her dream ____25____ (cme) true in the future.
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分4分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Schl Bk Club
D yu lve reading? The Schl Bk Club is a great place fr yu! We meet every Wednesday afternn in the schl library. We share different kinds f bks we’ve read. Smetimes we talk abut the stries, characters, and s n.
Our club teacher, Ms. Miller, ften gives us sme helpful advice n reading. It helps us understand bks better. We als have a “Bk-swapping” activity. Yu can bring yur favrite bks and exchange (交换) them with thers. This way, yu can read mre bks. And there is a lt f fun t read new bks frm yur classmates.
If yu are interested in jining ur club, please talk t Ms. Miller in the library during the club time.
26. When d the students in the Schl Bk Club meet?
A. Every Tuesday afternn.B. Every Wednesday afternn.
C. Every Thursday afternn.D. Every Friday afternn.
27. What can’t yu d in the Schl Bk Club?
A. Share bks.B. Have a bk-swapping activity.
C. Watch mvies.D. Get reading advice frm the teacher.
28. Wh shuld yu talk t if yu want t jin the Schl Bk Club?
A. Mr. Miller.B. Ms. Miller.C. Mr. Green.D. Ms. Green.
B
China has lts f intangible cultural heritage f humanity (人类非物质文化遗产). In recent years, a number f them are famus arund the wrld. Here are three f them.
29. Hw lng is the histry f paper cutting?
A. Over 1,500 years.B. Abut 2,100 years.
C. Over 2,000 years.D. Abut 2,400 years.
30. When did shadw play becme ppular in China?
A. In the Qin and Han dynasties.B. In the Ming and Qing dynasties.
C. In the Sui and Tang dynasties.D. In the Tang and Sng dynasties.
31. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the text?
A. Paper cutting can’t express peple’s gd wishes fr life.
B. The shadw play is the ldest play in the wrld.
C. Peple usually put paper-cuts n walls, windws and drs.
D. The Spring Festival is nly ppular with Chinese peple.
C
Yuanyuan is a 14-year-ld girl frm Hangzhu, Zhejiang. She is 1.55 meters tall and weighs abut 60 kg. Yuanyuan’s mther wrries abut her, s she asks Yuanyuan t jump rpe (跳绳) 1,000 times every day. “Mre exercise can als help her lse weight. I want her t be taller and thinner, s she can be healthier,” she says.
Hwever, Yuanyuan’s mther desn’t see any results. Then when the summer vacatin starts, Yuanyuan’s mther asks her t d 1,000 jumps in the mrning, 1,000 at nn and 1,000 in the evening. Three mnths later, Yuanyuan says her knees hurt. Her mther thinks she is t lazy at first. Hwever, when the dctr says her daughter has a meniscus injury (半月板损伤), she is wrried.
Just like Yuanyuan, a 10-year-ld by gets the same prblem. His parents als wrry abut him, s they ask him t jump rpe 2,000 t 3,000 times a day. In the end, there is smething wrng with the by’s feet.
Dctrs say that a child’s grwth needs exercise, gd sleep, healthy fd and s n. T much exercise is bad fr their health.
32. What des Yuanyuan’s mther ask her t d?
A. T run.B. T jump rpe.C. T ride a bike.D. T play ftball.
33. What was wrng with Yuanyuan three mnths later?
A. She cughed.B. Her legs hurt.C. She had a cld.D. Her knees hurt.
34. Where is the text mst prbably frm?
A. A diary.B. A strybk.C. A science bk.D. A health magazine.
35. What des the text mainly tell us?
A. Jumping rpe is bad fr children.
B. Children need t lse weight every day.
C. T much exercise isn’t gd fr peple.
D. We must eat well and have healthy fd.
D
Our cmmunity (社区) is a nice place t live in. It is clean, quiet and full f warm-hearted peple. A gd living envirnment desn’t cme by luck—it needs rules. Cmmunity rules help us get n well with each ther and keep ur hme safe and tidy.
First, we have rules fr public cleaning. Everyne must put rubbish (垃圾) int prper bins (垃圾桶). If yu walk yur dg in the cmmunity, yu have t clean up after yur pet. N ne can paint n walls, break public chairs r pick flwers in the garden. These small acts influence (影响) hw ur cmmunity lks.
Secnd, we shuld fllw nise rules. We need t keep ur vice dwn, especially in the evening and early mrning. We shuld keep quiet after 10:00 p.m., because many peple need t rest r get up early fr wrk r study.
Third, traffic and parking rules keep us safe. Drivers must drive slwly and carefully inside the cmmunity. They can’t park cars in frnt f drs, n walkways r in emergency areas. Parents ften tell children nt t run r play n the main rads, because cars may appear suddenly. Safety always cmes first.
Rules dn’t bring truble. They prtect everyne and make ur shared hme better.
36. What des a gd living envirnment need?
A. Luck.B. Peple.C. Mney.D. Rules.
37. Accrding t Paragraph 2, what can peple d in the cmmunity?
A. Put rubbish int prper bins.B. Paint n the walls.
C. Pick flwers in the garden.D. Break public chairs.
38. Why shuld peple keep quiet after 10:00 p.m.?
A. Because the plice will cme.B. Because many peple need t rest.
C. Because children are studying.D. Because it is a rule in every cuntry.
39. What des the underlined wrd “emergency” in Paragraph 4 mean?
A. Sudden and dangerus.B. Nice and wide.
C. Clean and quiet.D. Open and large.
40. What is the best title fr the text?
A. Different kinds f cmmunities
B. Ways t keep ur cmmunity clean
C. Cmmunity rules are imprtant
D. Gd neighburs make ur cmmunity better
第二节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。
Xing’an is a great place fr birds. Baiyangdian, in Xing’an, has changed a lt.
After Xing’an New Area was set up, peple here started t lk after the envirnment well. The water in Baiyangdian is cleaner, and the water level is just right. S it’s really a gd place fr birds t live in. Mre and mre birds cme t Baiyangdian. Befre, there were nly 206 kinds f wild birds. Nw, there are 296 kinds! One special bird is the Baer’s Pchard (青头潜鸭). It’s in danger. Befre, it just flew by Baiyangdian. But nw, it stays here.
The Xing’an gvernment des many things t help birds. They mark sme places where birds can live safely. They build small islands fr the birds, t. They use new ways t watch the birds and keep them safe. Peple near Baiyangdian help, t. They becme vlunteers. If they find a hurt r sick bird, they take it t a safe place and help it get better.
Thanks t all the help, Baiyangdian is a habitat fr birds again. We can see peple and birds living tgether happily.
41. Hw many kinds f wild birds were there in Baiyangdian befre?
_____________________________________________________________________________
42. Where is the Baer’s Pchard nw?
_____________________________________________________________________________
43. What d the peple near Baiyangdian d when they find a hurt r sick bird?
_____________________________________________________________________________
44. Hw des the Xing’an gvernment help birds? (List at least tw ways)
_____________________________________________________________________________
45. As a student, what can yu d t prtect birds arund Baiyangdian?
_____________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 情景交际（满分10分）
补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
(Danny and Jenny are talking abut the ways t be healthy.)
Danny: Hi, Jenny. _____________46_____________
Jenny: He is my father.
Danny: Yur father lks healthy and yung. He must have a gd lifestyle.
Jenny: Yes, my father always gets up early and never stays up.
Danny:_____________47_____________
Jenny: He gets up at 5:40 every day, and then he plays sprts utdrs. D yu usually get sme exercise in the mrning?
Danny: _____________48_____________ I think exercise makes me feel tired. I like t watch shrt vides r TV and eat junk fd n the sfa, haha.
Jenny: But that is bad fr yur health. Yu need t change.
Danny: _____________49_____________
Jenny: Yu shuld eat mre healthy fd and d mre exercise.
Danny: Thanks fr yur advice.
Jenny:_____________50_____________
第五部分 写作（满分15分）
书面表达
51. 上周日，你和家人前往雄安悦容公园野餐，在游玩途中结识新朋友Anna。请根据提示写一篇英语短文。
提示：
(1) What was yur new friend like?
(2) What did yu d tgether?
(3) Hw did yu feel that day?
要求：
(1) 短文须包括以上所有信息，可适当发挥；
(2) 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名和地名；
(3) 词数70个左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。
Last Sunday, I went t Xing’an New Area Yuerng Park fr a picnic with my family.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
英语
试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1. A. Twice a day. B. By bus. C. Great.
2. A. Yu are right. B. Have fun. C. Let’s g.
3. A. Well dne. B. It’s a deal. C. Yes, I’d lve t.
4. A. It’s big. B. A shp. C. Walk there.
5. A. That’s OK. B. Gd idea. C. I think s.
第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13小题；每小题1分，满分13分）
6. Where will David g fr the summer hliday?
A. B. C.
7. What is Li Lin making?
A. B. C.
8. What will Jack d tmrrw?
A. Play ping-png. B. Play basketball. C. G swimming.
9. When will they play ping-png?
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Thursday.
10. What happened t Xia Fang and her family?
A. A fire. B. A strm. C. An earthquake.
11. Wh helped Xia Fang and her family?
A. The neighburs. B. The relatives. C. The students.
12. Hw much mney did they raise fr Xia Fang and her family?
A. 2,000 yuan. B. 12,000 yuan. C. 20,000 yuan.
13. Hw many places in the neighburhd are mentined (被提及)?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4
14. Which place des Wang Mei like best?
A. The bkstre. B. The bakery. C. The grcery stre.
15. What des Wang Mei think f the peple there?
A. Busy and kind. B. kind and plite. C. Shy and plite.
16. What wuld Li Ming like fr lunch?
A. Rice and chicken. B. Rice and vegetables. C. Meat and fish.
17. What is Li Ming’s favurite sprt?
A. Basketball. B. Ftball. C. Vlleyball.
18. Hw ften des Li Ming g swimming?
A. Once a week. B. Once a mnth. C. Every day.
第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
19. When des Lisa’s first class start?
A. 7:45. B. 7:50. C. 8:15.
20. Hw many classes des Lisa have in the mrning?
A. 3. B. 4. C. 5.
21. What is Lisa’s favurite subject?
A. Gegraphy. B. English. C. Badmintn.
22. What dues Mary d after she gets up in the mrning?
A. She swims fr 15 minutes.
B. She reads English fr fifteen minutes.
C. She eats fruit right away.
23. Wh des Mary swim with n weekends?
A. Steven. B. Tm. C. Her friend Lily.
24. What fd des Steven like eating?
A. Fresh vegetables. B. Healthy fruit. C. Junk fd.
25. Wh has a healthy lifestyle?
A. Mary. B. Steven. C. Tm.
第四节 听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Every week, ur English teacher Mr Huang asks us a simple ____1____: What was the best thing in yur life last week?
Why des he ask this questin? He wants t help us learn ____2____ t be happy. But mst f us say that nthing ____3____ happened.
I realized that we dn’t have the ability (能力) t enjy life. Then Mr Huang ____4____ with us sme tips abut being happy:
First, lwer the bar (标准). We must learn t lwer the bar and ____5____ jy. Fr example, I culdn’t eat in restaurants during the pandemic (疫情), and I learned t ____6____ at hme with my mm. I shuld ____7____ it, instead f cmplaining (抱怨). If I put my bar very high, I dn’t think I wuld be ____8____.
Secnd, lk n the ____9____ side. We must learn t fcus n things we can imprve. If I just lked at the dark side f life, I wuld nt be mtivated (有动力的).
I really want t thank my English teacher fr giving us this lessn n ____10____.
1. A. gameB. questinC. tripD. habit
2. A. hwB. whatC. whyD. where
3. A. easyB. hugeC. awfulD. gd
4. A. talkedB. sharedC. playedD. stayed
5. A. pat nB. lk upC. take awayD. lk fr
6. A. sleepB. studyC. readD. ck
7. A. takeB. stpC. frgetD. enjy
8. A. sadB. busyC. happyD. tired
9. A. brightB. darkC. wrngD. narrw
10. A. healthB. happinessC. friendshipD. study
答案：1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B
解析：
导语：文章讲述英语老师黄先生通过提问引导学生发现生活中的美好，分享保持快乐的建议，教会学生如何获得幸福。
1.句意：每周，英语老师黄先生问我们一个简单的问题。
根据后句“What was the best thing...”可知，这是老师提出的一个问题。game、trip和habit不符合语境。
2.句意：他想帮助我们学习如何快乐。
根据句意可知，“hw t be happy”表示学习快乐的方式方法。what、why和where项无法构成合理搭配。
3.句意：但我们大多数人说没什么好事发生。
根据前文想学快乐但大多数学生没感觉，可知他们觉得没发生好事。easy、huge和awful与语境逻辑相反。
4.句意：然后黄先生与我们分享了一些关于快乐的建议。
根据句意可知，固定搭配share sth with sb意为“和某人分享”。talked、played和stayed搭配或语意不当。
5.句意：我们必须学会降低标准并寻找快乐。
根据语境，降低标准是为了主动发现快乐，lk fr符合语境。
6.句意：疫情期间不能在餐馆吃，我学会和妈妈在家做饭。
根据句意可知，与前文“eat in restaurants”形成对比，不能外食则在家做饭。sleep、study和read与饮食无关。
7.句意：我应该享受它，而不是抱怨。
根据语境可知，与“cmplaining”形成对比，应持积极态度享受当下。take、stp和frget不符合积极语境。
8.句意：如果把标准定得很高，我认为我不会快乐。
根据句意可知，标准太高难以满足，导致不快乐。sad、busy和tired不是高标准带来的直接反面结果。
9.句意：第二，看光明的一面。
根据句意可知，与后文“dark side”对应，固定搭配“lk n the bright side”意为“看光明的一面”。dark、wrng和narrw不符合搭配。
10.句意：我真的想感谢我的英语老师给我们上这堂关于幸福的课。
根据全文围绕“be happy”展开可知，主题是关于幸福。health、friendship和study偏离文章主旨。
第二节 短文填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或填入括号内单词的正确形式。
I have a friend called Lily. She is in Grade Seven this year. She likes maths, Chinese, science and PE, but she is nt gd ____11____ English. She ften ____12____ (have) prblems in learning English. She thinks English is very difficult and bring.
One day, a friend f her father’s frm America shwed her family sme pictures abut America and invited ____13____ (they) t his hme. Lily wanted t g t America very much, ____14____ her father said she must speak English very well. She said t ____15____ (she), “I can make it.” Frm then n, she ____16____ (begin) t study hard. She kept ____17____ (read) English fr abut half an hur every mrning. She als tried her best ____18____ (remember) new wrds every day. Even when she was sick, she didn’t stp. In class, she listened t the teachers very ____19____ (careful). She ften wrte dwn sme English phrases and ____20____ (sentence). There is ____21____ American teacher named Mrs. Green in her schl. After schl, she ften talked t Mrs. Green in English and asked her fr help. Mrs. Green gave her sme ____22____ (use) advice. Because f these, Lily’s English imprved ____23____ (quick). She always says, “I want t be a diplmat (外交官).” Nw she ____24____ (practice) spken English with her freign friend. I am sure her dream ____25____ (cme) true in the future.
答案：11. at 12. has
13. them 14. but
15. herself
16. began 17. reading
18. t remember
19. carefully
20. sentences
21. an 22. useful
23. quickly
24. is practicing
25. will cme
解析：
导语：本文讲述了莉莉在英语学习上从困难到进步的故事，她通过刻苦努力和寻求帮助，最终实现了英语水平的提升，并立志成为一名外交官。
11.句意：她喜欢数学、语文、科学和体育，但她不擅长英语。“be gd at”是固定搭配，意为“擅长”，需用介词“at”。
12.句意：她在学习英语方面经常遇到问题。时间状语“ften”表明句子描述经常发生的习惯性动作，应用一般现在时。主语“She”为第三人称单数，谓语动词需用第三人称单数形式has。
13.句意：一天，她父亲的一位美国朋友给她家展示了一些关于美国的照片并邀请他们去他家。动词“invited”后需接宾格代词作宾语。“they”的宾格为“them”。
14.句意：莉莉非常想去美国，但她的父亲说她必须把英语说好。前后句为转折关系，需用转折连词“but”。
15.句意：她对自己说：“我能做到！”。“say t neself”是固定搭配，意为“对自己说”，主语“She”对应的反身代词为“herself”。
16.句意：从那时起，她开始努力学习。时间状语“Frm then n”表示过去的时间点，需用一般过去时。“begin”的过去式为“began”。
17.句意：她坚持每天早上读英语大约半小时。“keep ding sth.”是固定搭配，意为“坚持做某事”，需接动名词“reading”。
18.句意：她每天也尽力记新单词。“try ne’s best t d sth.”是固定搭配，意为“尽力做某事”，需用动词不定式“t remember”。
19.句意：她上课非常认真地听老师讲课。修饰动词“listened”，需用副词形式作状语。“careful”的副词形式为“carefully”，意为“认真地”。
20.句意：她经常写下一些英语短语和句子。与“phrases”并列，需用名词复数形式“sentences”。
21.句意：她的学校里有一位名叫格林夫人的美国老师。此处表示泛指“一位美国老师”，且“American”以元音音素开头，需用不定冠词“an”。
22.句意：格林夫人给了她一些有用的建议。修饰名词“advice”，需用形容词作定语。“use”的形容词形式为“useful”，意为“有用的”。
23.句意：莉莉的英语进步很快。修饰动词“imprved”，需用副词形式作状语。“quick”的副词形式为“quickly”，意为“快地”。
24.句意：现在她正在和她的外国朋友练习英语口语。时间状语“Nw”提示动作正在进行，需用现在进行时。主语“She”为第三人称单数，谓语结构为“is + 现在分词”，practice的现在分词为practicing。
25.句意：我相信她的梦想将来会实现。时间状语“in the future”表示将来时间，需用一般将来时“will cme”。
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分4分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Schl Bk Club
D yu lve reading? The Schl Bk Club is a great place fr yu! We meet every Wednesday afternn in the schl library. We share different kinds f bks we’ve read. Smetimes we talk abut the stries, characters, and s n.
Our club teacher, Ms. Miller, ften gives us sme helpful advice n reading. It helps us understand bks better. We als have a “Bk-swapping” activity. Yu can bring yur favrite bks and exchange (交换) them with thers. This way, yu can read mre bks. And there is a lt f fun t read new bks frm yur classmates.
If yu are interested in jining ur club, please talk t Ms. Miller in the library during the club time.
26. When d the students in the Schl Bk Club meet?
A. Every Tuesday afternn.B. Every Wednesday afternn.
C. Every Thursday afternn.D. Every Friday afternn.
27. What can’t yu d in the Schl Bk Club?
A. Share bks.B. Have a bk-swapping activity.
C. Watch mvies.D. Get reading advice frm the teacher.
28. Wh shuld yu talk t if yu want t jin the Schl Bk Club?
A. Mr. Miller.B. Ms. Miller.C. Mr. Green.D. Ms. Green.
答案：26. B 27. C 28. B
解析：
导语：本文是一则关于学校读书俱乐部的通知，主要介绍了俱乐部的活动时间、具体内容以及加入方式。
26.根据第一段 “We meet every Wednesday afternn in the schl library.” 可知，读书俱乐部每周三下午聚会。
27.根据第一段 “We share different kinds f bks we’ve read.”、第二段 “Our club teacher, Ms. Miller, ften gives us sme helpful advice n reading.” 以及 “We als have a ‘Bk-swapping’ activity.” 可知，俱乐部可以分享书籍、参加换书活动、获取老师的阅读建议，文中未提及可以看电影。
28.根据第三段 “If yu are interested in jining ur club, please talk t Ms. Miller in the library during the club time.” 可知，想要加入俱乐部可以联系米勒女士。
B
China has lts f intangible cultural heritage f humanity (人类非物质文化遗产). In recent years, a number f them are famus arund the wrld. Here are three f them.
29. Hw lng is the histry f paper cutting?
A. Over 1,500 years.B. Abut 2,100 years.
C. Over 2,000 years.D. Abut 2,400 years.
30. When did shadw play becme ppular in China?
A. In the Qin and Han dynasties.B. In the Ming and Qing dynasties.
C. In the Sui and Tang dynasties.D. In the Tang and Sng dynasties.
31. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the text?
A. Paper cutting can’t express peple’s gd wishes fr life.
B. The shadw play is the ldest play in the wrld.
C. Peple usually put paper-cuts n walls, windws and drs.
D. The Spring Festival is nly ppular with Chinese peple.
答案：29. A 30. D 31. C
解析：
导语：本文主要介绍了三项中国人类非物质文化遗产：剪纸、皮影戏、春节，分别讲解了它们的历史、特点与意义。
29.Paper Cutting段落“Paper cutting has a histry f ver 1,500 years.”直接说明剪纸有1500多年历史。
30.The Shadw Play段落“It became ppular in the Tang and Sng dynasties.”明确皮影戏在唐宋时期流行。
31.Paper Cutting段落“Peple usually put paper-cuts n walls, windws and drs.”表明人们通常会把剪纸贴在墙上、窗户和门上。
C
Yuanyuan is a 14-year-ld girl frm Hangzhu, Zhejiang. She is 1.55 meters tall and weighs abut 60 kg. Yuanyuan’s mther wrries abut her, s she asks Yuanyuan t jump rpe (跳绳) 1,000 times every day. “Mre exercise can als help her lse weight. I want her t be taller and thinner, s she can be healthier,” she says.
Hwever, Yuanyuan’s mther desn’t see any results. Then when the summer vacatin starts, Yuanyuan’s mther asks her t d 1,000 jumps in the mrning, 1,000 at nn and 1,000 in the evening. Three mnths later, Yuanyuan says her knees hurt. Her mther thinks she is t lazy at first. Hwever, when the dctr says her daughter has a meniscus injury (半月板损伤), she is wrried.
Just like Yuanyuan, a 10-year-ld by gets the same prblem. His parents als wrry abut him, s they ask him t jump rpe 2,000 t 3,000 times a day. In the end, there is smething wrng with the by’s feet.
Dctrs say that a child’s grwth needs exercise, gd sleep, healthy fd and s n. T much exercise is bad fr their health.
32. What des Yuanyuan’s mther ask her t d?
A. T run.B. T jump rpe.C. T ride a bike.D. T play ftball.
33. What was wrng with Yuanyuan three mnths later?
A. She cughed.B. Her legs hurt.C. She had a cld.D. Her knees hurt.
34. Where is the text mst prbably frm?
A. A diary.B. A strybk.C. A science bk.D. A health magazine.
35. What des the text mainly tell us?
A. Jumping rpe is bad fr children.
B. Children need t lse weight every day.
C. T much exercise isn’t gd fr peple.
D. We must eat well and have healthy fd.
答案：32. B 33. D 34. D 35. C
解析：
导语：本文讲述孩子过量跳绳造成关节损伤，最后给出医生关于运动与儿童健康的建议。
32.根据第一段“s she asks Yuanyuan t jump rpe (跳绳) 1,000 times every day.”可知，圆圆妈妈让她跳绳。
33.根据第二段“Three mnths later, Yuanyuan says her knees hurt.”可知，三个月后圆圆的膝盖疼。
34.本文通过两个案例讲述了过度运动导致孩子受伤的故事，并引用了医生的建议，内容涉及健康、运动和医疗建议，最可能出自健康杂志。
35.根据第四段“Dctrs say that a child’s grwth needs exercise... T much exercise is bad fr their health.”可知，文章主要告诉我们过量运动对身体不好。
D
Our cmmunity (社区) is a nice place t live in. It is clean, quiet and full f warm-hearted peple. A gd living envirnment desn’t cme by luck—it needs rules. Cmmunity rules help us get n well with each ther and keep ur hme safe and tidy.
First, we have rules fr public cleaning. Everyne must put rubbish (垃圾) int prper bins (垃圾桶). If yu walk yur dg in the cmmunity, yu have t clean up after yur pet. N ne can paint n walls, break public chairs r pick flwers in the garden. These small acts influence (影响) hw ur cmmunity lks.
Secnd, we shuld fllw nise rules. We need t keep ur vice dwn, especially in the evening and early mrning. We shuld keep quiet after 10:00 p.m., because many peple need t rest r get up early fr wrk r study.
Third, traffic and parking rules keep us safe. Drivers must drive slwly and carefully inside the cmmunity. They can’t park cars in frnt f drs, n walkways r in emergency areas. Parents ften tell children nt t run r play n the main rads, because cars may appear suddenly. Safety always cmes first.
Rules dn’t bring truble. They prtect everyne and make ur shared hme better.
36. What des a gd living envirnment need?
A. Luck.B. Peple.C. Mney.D. Rules.
37. Accrding t Paragraph 2, what can peple d in the cmmunity?
A. Put rubbish int prper bins.B. Paint n the walls.
C. Pick flwers in the garden.D. Break public chairs.
38. Why shuld peple keep quiet after 10:00 p.m.?
A. Because the plice will cme.B. Because many peple need t rest.
C. Because children are studying.D. Because it is a rule in every cuntry.
39. What des the underlined wrd “emergency” in Paragraph 4 mean?
A. Sudden and dangerus.B. Nice and wide.
C. Clean and quiet.D. Open and large.
40. What is the best title fr the text?
A. Different kinds f cmmunities
B. Ways t keep ur cmmunity clean
C. Cmmunity rules are imprtant
D. Gd neighburs make ur cmmunity better
答案：36. D 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. C
解析：
导语：本文开篇点明社区环境需要规则，接着分别介绍卫生、噪音、交通停车三类社区规则，最后总结规则保护大家、让社区更美好。
36.根据第一段“A gd living envirnment desn’t cme by luck—it needs rules.” 可知，良好的居住环境需要规则。
37.根据第二段“Everyne must put rubbish int prper bins.” 可知人们可以将垃圾投入对应的垃圾桶；本段明确禁止涂鸦墙面、采摘花朵、损坏公共座椅，其余三项均不可以做。
38.根据第三段“We shuld keep quiet after 10:00 p.m., because many peple need t rest r get up early fr wrk r study.” 可知晚上十点后需要保持安静，是因为很多人需要休息。
39.根据第四段“They can’t park cars in frnt f drs, n walkways r in emergency areas.”中“不能在门口、人行道、emergency区域停车”，结合生活常识可知emergency areas为应急区域，用于处理突发危险状况，因此单词含义为突发且危险的。
40.文章第一段提出社区生活需要规则，中间三段分别介绍了清洁、噪音和交通方面的具体规则，最后一段总结规则能保护大家并使家园更美好。整篇文章围绕社区规则及其重要性展开。
第二节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。
Xing’an is a great place fr birds. Baiyangdian, in Xing’an, has changed a lt.
After Xing’an New Area was set up, peple here started t lk after the envirnment well. The water in Baiyangdian is cleaner, and the water level is just right. S it’s really a gd place fr birds t live in. Mre and mre birds cme t Baiyangdian. Befre, there were nly 206 kinds f wild birds. Nw, there are 296 kinds! One special bird is the Baer’s Pchard (青头潜鸭). It’s in danger. Befre, it just flew by Baiyangdian. But nw, it stays here.
The Xing’an gvernment des many things t help birds. They mark sme places where birds can live safely. They build small islands fr the birds, t. They use new ways t watch the birds and keep them safe. Peple near Baiyangdian help, t. They becme vlunteers. If they find a hurt r sick bird, they take it t a safe place and help it get better.
Thanks t all the help, Baiyangdian is a habitat fr birds again. We can see peple and birds living tgether happily.
41. Hw many kinds f wild birds were there in Baiyangdian befre?
_____________________________________________________________________________
42. Where is the Baer’s Pchard nw?
_____________________________________________________________________________
43. What d the peple near Baiyangdian d when they find a hurt r sick bird?
_____________________________________________________________________________
44. Hw des the Xing’an gvernment help birds? (List at least tw ways)
_____________________________________________________________________________
45. As a student, what can yu d t prtect birds arund Baiyangdian?
_____________________________________________________________________________
答案：41. There were 206 kinds f wild birds.
42. It stays in Baiyangdian.
43. They take it t a safe place and help it get better.
44. Mark safe places, build islands, use new ways (t watch birds).（列出任意两条即可）
45. Build birdhuses./Clean the lakeside./Plant mre trees./Draw psters t tell thers.（答案不唯一，言之有理，写出一点即可。）
解析：
导语：本文是一篇说明文。文章主要讲述了雄安新区设立后，白洋淀生态环境得到改善，鸟类种类显著增加，政府及当地居民采取多种措施保护鸟类，实现了人与鸟和谐共处。
41.根据第二段“Befre, there were nly 206 kinds f wild birds.”可知，白洋淀以前仅有206种野生鸟类。
42.根据第二段“One special bird is the Baer’s nw, it stays here.”可知，青头潜鸭如今停留在雄安白洋淀。
43.根据第三段“If they find a hurt r sick bird, they take it t a safe place and help it get better.”可知，当地居民发现受伤或生病的鸟类会将其安置在安全地带并帮助其康复。
44.根据第三段“The Xing’an gvernment des many things t help birds. They mark sme places where birds can live safely. They build small islands fr the birds, t. They use new ways t watch the birds and keep them safe.”可提炼出政府保护鸟类的三种举措，满足题目至少两条的要求。
45.本题为开放性试题，结合全文保护鸟类的主题，从学生力所能及的角度作答，贴合文章主旨，语句通顺合理即可，答案不唯一。
第四部分 情景交际（满分10分）
补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
(Danny and Jenny are talking abut the ways t be healthy.)
Danny: Hi, Jenny. _____________46_____________
Jenny: He is my father.
Danny: Yur father lks healthy and yung. He must have a gd lifestyle.
Jenny: Yes, my father always gets up early and never stays up.
Danny:_____________47_____________
Jenny: He gets up at 5:40 every day, and then he plays sprts utdrs. D yu usually get sme exercise in the mrning?
Danny: _____________48_____________ I think exercise makes me feel tired. I like t watch shrt vides r TV and eat junk fd n the sfa, haha.
Jenny: But that is bad fr yur health. Yu need t change.
Danny: _____________49_____________
Jenny: Yu shuld eat mre healthy fd and d mre exercise.
Danny: Thanks fr yur advice.
Jenny:_____________50_____________
答案：46. Wh is he?
47. What time des he get up every day?
48. N, I dn’t.
49. What shuld I d?
50. Yu’re welcme.
解析：
导语：本文围绕健康生活方式展开，Danny向Jenny询问其父亲的身份和作息时间，了解到对方父亲拥有健康的生活习惯。同时Danny坦言自己缺乏运动、饮食习惯不佳，随后向Jenny请教保持健康的方法，Jenny给出了合理的健康建议，最后二人礼貌结束对话。
46.根据下一句Jenny说 “He is my father.”，此处用来询问男士身份。
47.根据下一句Jenny说“He gets up at 5:40 every day, and then he plays sprts utdrs.”，此处用来询问起床时间。
48.根据后一句Danny 说 “I think exercise makes me feel tired.”，此处用来作否定回答。
49.根据下一句Jenny给出保持健康的相关建议，此处用来询问保持健康的方法。
50.根据上一句Danny说 “Thanks fr yur advice.”，此处用来回应感谢。
第五部分 写作（满分15分）
书面表达
51. 上周日，你和家人前往雄安悦容公园野餐，在游玩途中结识新朋友Anna。请根据提示写一篇英语短文。
提示：
(1) What was yur new friend like?
(2) What did yu d tgether?
(3) Hw did yu feel that day?
要求：
(1) 短文须包括以上所有信息，可适当发挥；
(2) 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名和地名；
(3) 词数70个左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。
Last Sunday, I went t Xing’an New Area Yuerng Park fr a picnic with my family.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
答案：例文：
Last Sunday, I went t Xing’an New Area Yuerng Park fr a picnic with my family. It was a nice sunny day.
I met a new friend Anna there. She was warm and utging, and she ffered me her delicius snacks right after we said hell. We enjyed lts f fun activities tgether. We flew kites, walked arund the lake and tk many lvely phts. She als sat with my family and shared ur picnic fd.
I felt s jyful that day. Making a new friend made this trip unfrgettable.
解析：
解答过程：写作步骤
[第一步：审题立意]
确定文体：记叙文；以一般过去时为主
明确要点：新朋友Anna的性格外貌；两人一起做的活动；当天的个人心情感受
确定人称：第一人称（I/my）
注意事项：除去给定开头词数70词左右；文中不能出现真实人名、校名、地名；必须覆盖全部三个提示要点，可适度增添环境细节
[第二步：构思布局]
三段式结构：
开头段：已给出固定开篇，交代时间、人物、事件地点，简单补充天气环境，引出后文遇见新朋友
主体段：文章核心段落，依次描写新朋友Anna的性格；二人共同进行的游玩活动，完整覆盖前两个写作要点
结尾段：总结当天内心感受
写作要点
[第三步：要点展开]
要点一：新朋友Anna的形象
性格描写：warm and utging/friendly/nice/kind等
互动细节：ffered me her delicius snacks/shared her snacks with me/talked happily
可用句型：She was warm and utging./She was a friendly and utging girl./She shared snacks with me when we talked.等
要点二：两人共同做的事
游玩活动：flew kites/walked arund the lake/tk many lvely phts/shared picnic fd/enjy picnic等
要点三：当天的内心感受
心情词汇：jyful/happy/excited/wnderful/unfrgettable等
情感升华句：I felt s jyful that day. Making a new friend made this trip unfrgettable./It was such a wnderful day fr me./I had a great time that day./This trip left me a sweet memry.等the Imprtance f Trees
Date
26. On ______________ 12th
What t d
27. T ______________ trees tgether
What
28. Keep the ______________ clean
Ability
29. ______________ the sil and keep the dust away
What t d
30. We shuld ______________ them
Paper Cutting (2009)
Paper cutting has a histry f ver 1,500 years. It is very ppular amng Chinese peple. Peple usually put paper-cuts n walls, windws and drs t express their gd wishes.
The Shadw (影子) Play (2011)
The shadw play is ne f the ldest plays in China. It first appeared in ancient Chang’an ver 2,000 years ag. It became ppular in the Tang and Sng dynasties (朝代). At that time, it brught peple pleasure as mdern mvies and TV plays d tday.
The Spring Festival (2024)
On December 4th, 2024, the Spring Festival was successfully added t the intangible cultural heritage list. We’re prud as it shws the wrld ur rich custms. Let’s pass them n!
the Imprtance f Trees
Date
26. On ______________ 12th
What t d
27. T ______________ trees tgether
What
28. Keep the ______________ clean
Ability
29. ______________ the sil and keep the dust away
What t d
30. We shuld ______________ them
Paper Cutting (2009)
Paper cutting has a histry f ver 1,500 years. It is very ppular amng Chinese peple. Peple usually put paper-cuts n walls, windws and drs t express their gd wishes.
The Shadw (影子) Play (2011)
The shadw play is ne f the ldest plays in China. It first appeared in ancient Chang’an ver 2,000 years ag. It became ppular in the Tang and Sng dynasties (朝代). At that time, it brught peple pleasure as mdern mvies and TV plays d tday.
The Spring Festival (2024)
On December 4th, 2024, the Spring Festival was successfully added t the intangible cultural heritage list. We’re prud as it shws the wrld ur rich custms. Let’s pass them n!