河北省保定市曲阳县2023-2024学年八年级下学期7月期末英语试题

这是一份河北省保定市曲阳县2023-2024学年八年级下学期7月期末英语试题，共10页。试卷主要包含了本试卷共8页， 总分120分， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

注意事项：1.本试卷共8页， 总分120分。
2.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、科目填写在答题卡相应位置上。
3.答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，请用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑：答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
听力部分
I.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
1. A. winter B. strm C. shwer
2. A. turn arund B. turn dwn C. turn ver
3. A.5:05 B.5:15 C.6:30
4. A. I am afraid f thunder.
B. Thunder is cming.
C. I can't hear thunder.
5. A. Either Li Ming r I like rain.
B. Bth Li Ming and I like rain.
C. Li Ming and I dn't like rain.
II.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
6. A. Thank yu. B. I think it's easy. C. I dn't mind it.
7. A. They taste delicius. B. Yes,I am. C. Yes, they are.
8. A. It's fr seeing beautiful flwers.
B. I like the garden very much.
C. The water is gd here.
9. A. Dn't say s. B. Me t. C. It's bad.
10. A. Yes, it is. B. I can't understand it. C. Let's g.
III.听对话和问题，选择适当选项(共8小题，每小题1分，计8分)
11. What animal is the by's favurite?
12. What d giraffes eat?
13. Hw ld is the pet dg?
A.3 years ld. B.2 years ld. C.3m nths ld.
14. What has the by sld?
A. Sme CDs. B. Sme vegetables.C. Sme fish.
15. What des he think f making mney?
A. It's difficult.B. It's interesting.C. It's fun.
16. When will Jack cme back hme tnight?
A. Befre 10:00. B. By 10:30. C. At 11:30.
17. What gift will Jack take?
A. A bk. B. A music player.C. A shirt.
18. What clr is the shirt Jack wants t wear?
A. Blue. B. Red. C. White.
IV.听短文和问题，选择正确答案(共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
19. Hw can we save the envirnment?
A. D mre exercise. B. Drink less water.C. D a little bit t help.
20. What d we d t save many trees?
A. Use the waste paper.
B. Use bth sides f the paper.
C. Buy the cheap paper.
21. Hw many pieces f advice des the speaker give us?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
22. Where des Linda live?
A. Near a park. B. In the center f a twn.C. Far frm a park.
23. Hw ften des Linda g t the park?
A. Once a day. B. Once a week. C. Once a mnth.
24. Wh did Linda g t the park with?
A. Her parents. B. Her classmates. C. Her friends.
25. What did Linda and her friends d in the park?
A. They planted. B. They cleaned up the park. C. They sld bags.
V.听短文填空(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
Infrmatin Sheet
The speaker is talking abut hw t 26. _____ the earth.
When yu wash yur hair, yu shuld turn ff the 27. __.
The speaker thinks we shuldn't thrw litter 28. _____ .
The speaker thinks we shuld learn t recycle 29. _____.
We all can 30. ________a part in saving ur envirnment.
笔试部分
Ⅵ. 单项选择(共10小题, 每小题1分, 共计10分)
从每小题所给出的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项
31. I am thirsty. Culd yu give me cke?
A. sme B. any C. little D. ther
32. The little baby shuted t draw peple's .
A. pllutin B. infrmatin C. rubbish D. attentin
33. D yu knw what P2P ?
A. stands up B. stands fr C. lks fr D. lks at
34. The Chinese gvernment has made pssible fr peple t live happy lives.
A. them B. this C. that D. it
35. I knw this plan is nt perfect, but I just can't think f ne.
A. a better B. the better C. a best D. the best
36. It's a lng time. I can't remember when this picture in Beijing.
A. was taken B. takes C. is taken D. tk
37. Maybe Tm his wrk. The light in his rm is still n.
A. dcin's finish B. didn't finishC. wn't finishD. hasn't finished
38.—I can say the wrd, but I can't it.
——That's easy. It's S-Q-U-A-R-E.
A. spell B. explain C. affrd D. test
39. Dn't wrry, dear!I yur parent in a minute.
A. call B. called C. will call D. have called
40. Jenny bught a new bk yesterday, but I wnder .
A wh bught it B. what Jenny bught
C when she bught it D. where Jenny bught it
Ⅶ. 完形填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 共计10分)
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给出的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项
When I was yung, I liked climbing the muntain s with my father. When we walked tgether, my father and I 46 a lt. He always tld me,“Yu shuld have gals( 目标) like climbing the muntains. But first, yu shuld keep yurself 47 .”
48 the muntain climbing, we didn’t have enugh time t be tgether because my father was very 49 . I really gt a lt frm the muntain climbing.
Once we climbed a very high muntain. During the first few hurs,
I 50 the flwers, trees and the birds’singing. But as time went by, I was very tired and felt a little sad. I wanted t 51 climbing. In fact, I hated it at that time. 52. my father said,“Yu can always see a beautiful 53at the tp f the muntain. When yu are at the tp, yu can see all f the nicest things, just like in life.”
At that time, I was t yung t 54 his wrds. But I gt new hpe.Finally, I fund 55 standing at the tp f the muntain. I culd see the whle sky, and it was as clear as crystal(水晶).
46. A. cheated B. talked C. hid D. reprted
47. A. hungry B. wet C. safe D. stupid
48. A. Withut B. Against C. Acrss D. Twards
49. A. hnest B. strict C. plite D. busy
50. A. feared B. prtected C. enjyed D. wrried
51. A. give up B. give ut C. cut up D. cut ut
52. A. If B. And C. Or D. But
53. A. island B. sky C. desert D. mn
54. A. stand B. frget C. understand D. questin
55. A. himself B. myself C. herself D. itself
Ⅷ. 阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，共计30分)
阅读下面A、B、C、D 四篇材料，然后从各小题所给出的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项
A
In 1896, the first mdern Olympic Games were held in Athens,Greece. After mre than a century the Games returned t its hmetwn in 2004.
When peple hld the Olympic Games, they always make an emblem(徽章). The emblem f the Athens Olympic Games in 2004 was a white circle f the live branch in the sky. Nw Athens is develping a spirit f peace(和平).An fficer said,“The wrld shuld be at peace. We hpe the peace is nt just fr a shrt time. We wuld like the message frm the Athens Olympic Games t help cuntries cme tgether and slve their prblems.” In 2008, theOlvmpic Games were held in China. And China made a seal(印章) as the emblem f the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games. The emblem has a single Chinese character n a red seal and means“Chinese Seal-Dancing Beijing”.
The running figure f the emblem shws the Olympics' mtt-Faster,Higher, Strnger.
51. What d peple always make when they hld the Olympic Games?
A. A picture B. An emblem C. A flag D. A map
52. What message did the Athens Olympic Games in 2004 want t give?
A. War. B. Luck. C. Danger. D. Peace.
53. Hw many years is it between the first mdern Athens Olympics and the secnd Athens Olympics?
A.100. B.104. C.108. D.112.
B.
D yu want t be a vlunteer? Maybe yu need sme ideas. Here is sme advice.
Help kids learn and grw. Be a big brther r sister at an after-schl care centre. Yu can help little kids t learn r play with them.
Give back during the hlidays. Serve dinner t the hmeless, vlunteer at an ld peples hme, r give ut tys t kids.
Help at an animal shelter(庇护所). Mst shelters need vlunteers t keep the cats and dgs happy and take them t exercise. And when yu're walking dgs, yu get sme exercise, t.
Prtect the envirnment. Take part in a park“clean up day”. Plant a tree.Jin a grup t wrk tgether t prtect a river.
Help sick peple. Helping thers can make yu feel gd. When yu make sick peple happy, yu als feel happy. If yu have sme hbbies, find a way t d them all. Fr example, if yu lve kids and are gd at painting and dancing, visit a children's hspital and teach them these interesting things.
54. What can a vlunteer d at an animal shelter?
A. Feed animals. B. Clean the shelter.
C. Take animals t exercise. D. Make wrkers there happy.
55. Which is NOT mentined(提到) as a way t prtect the envirnment?
A. Planting trees. B. Prtecting rivers.
C. Setting up a green club. D. Cleaning up the park.
56. What's the main idea f the passage?
A. Wh can be a vlunteer? B. The reasns fr being a vlunteer.
C. Ways f being a vlunteer. D. The time f being a vlunteer.
C.
Tm is ten years ld. He lves watching TV. But fr ne year, he didn't watch TV at all. What was the reasn? Tm's parents said they wuld give him$600 if he didn't watch TV fr a year. Tm's parents thught he watched TVt much.
One day his mther read a stry in a newspaper abut a by wh didn't watch TV fr a year. She shwed the stry t Tm. Tm liked the idea. He turned ff the TV right away, and said,“It desn't truble me nt t watch TV.I just want the mney.”At first, Tm's parents were very happy. Tm read bks and newspapers, played utside, and played cmputer games, but sn he gt bred.
Every evening, he asked his parents, “What are we ding tnight?”Smetimes his mther and father wished he wuld watch TV just fr ne evening. Tm always said,“N, it wuld cst me mney!”Finally the year was ver. Then Tm started watching his favrite TV shws all day again. Tm gt the mney frm his parents. What did he plan t d with the $600?“I want t buy myself a TV set!”he said.
57. Tm didn't watch TV fr ne year because .
A. he wanted the mney B. he wanted t study harder
C. he wanted t learn frm the by D. he thught watchingTV t much was bad
58.“It desn't truble me nt t watch TV”means“ ”
A. It's n use watching TV. B. It's a waste f time watching TV.
C. It's imprtant fr me t watch TV.D. It desn't matter nt t watch TV.
59. Why did his parents prmise(承诺) t give him $600 if he didn't watch TVfr a year?
A. Because they were very rich.
B. Because they wanted t play with him.
C. Because they wanted him t buy a new TV.
D. Because they didn't want him t watch TV t much.
60. What didn't Tm d instead f watching TV fr ne year?
A. He played utside. B. He did his hmewrk.
C. He played cmputer games. D. He read bks and newspapers.
D
The Sahara is the largest desert in the wrld. It cvers 11 cuntries inNrth Africa and is ver 9 millin square kilmetres. It is a very difficult place t survive. Here is sme advice fr yu.
Take warm clthes and a blanket(毛毯). Yu will need a hat, lng trusers and a thick sweater t keep yu warm at night. During the day, cver yur bdy, head and face. Clthes prtect yurself frm the sun and keep water in yur bdy. Yu will als need a warm blanket at night. It can get cld rapidly.
It's imprtant t stay ut f the sun during the day. Make a hle under yur car and lie there. This will keep yu cl and help yu sleep.
Find a warm place t sleep at night. A small place near a tree r a rck will be the warmest. But be careful befre yu decide where t sleep.Hazardus animals like snakes als like t sleep in these places. Lk carefully fr animals befre yu lie dwn, r they may hurt yu.
61. What can we knw abut the Sahara frm the first paragraph?
A. It's the largest cntinent in the wrld. B. It's in Nrth Africa.
C. It is abut 900000 square kilmetres. D. It's easy t live there.
62. What kind f clthes d peple need in the Sahara?
①lng trusers ②thick sweaters ③hats ④T-shirts ⑤shrts
A. ①②③ B. ②③ C. ③④⑤ D. ①②⑤
63. Where can peple stay during the daytime in the Sahara?
A. In the sun. B. In the car.
C. In the hle under the car. D. Near a tree.
64. What des the underlined wrd“Hazardus”mean?
A. Brave. B. Friendly. C. Shy. D. Dangerus.
65. What is the best title(题目) fr the passage?
A. Hw t Survive in the Sahara
B. Why Is the Sahara S Special
C. Plants and Animals in the Sahara
D. Interesting Facts abut the Sahara
IX.任务型阅读。 (共5小题,每小题2分,共计10分)
阅读短文，并按要求完成66—70小题。
We all need a healthy envirnment, but we prduce waste every day, and it is harmful t ur envirnment. Repeat these three wrds daily: reduce, reuse and recycle.
Reduce
Reduce means“use less”. Dn't waste things. It saves mney and causes less pllutin. D nt rder mre fd than yu can finish. Turn ff the lights when yu d nt need them. Befre yu buy smething new, think whether it is really necessary(必需的) because maybe the ld ne is just as gd!
Reuse
Reuse means“use again”. Use things fr as lng as pssible. Lk after them s that they will last. Repair them if pssible. Dn't thrw them away and buy new nes. Dn't use paper cups r paper bags.
Recycle
Recycle means“change things int smething else t be reused”. We thrw tns f rubbish away each year, and we have t make a change. Divide yur rubbish int plastic, glass, paper and rubber(橡胶). Develp a recycling plicy fr the whle cmmunity. Buy prducts such as recycled paper t help save trees.
66、67题完成句子；68题简略回答问题；69题找出并写下全文的主题句；70题将划线句子翻译成汉语。
66. We every day, thugh(尽管) We all need a healthy envirnment。
67. saves mney and causes less pllutin.
68. Why d yu think whether it is really necessary befre yu buy smething new?
69.
70.
X.词语运用。 (共10小题, 每小题1分, 共计10分)
根据短文内容及所给提示，在文中的空白处填写一个正确的单词
The Internet is a useful tl. It has many 71 (advantage) and makes ur life cnvenient. The Internet 72 (main) changes the ways f ur shpping, ur cmmunicating with each ther. H 73 , sme lder peple can't use a cmputer.
Paul wrked fr 74 IT cmpany befre. He said,“ I ften helped lder peple t use the Internet. It made a 75 (different) t their lives.Learning 76 t use e-mail was a wnderful experience fr them. S I left my jb and 77 (create) a charity(慈善机构)-Senirs Online.”
ne f Paul's students, Betty, says,“At 78 (ne), I thught it difficult.But sn I succeeded in 79 (search) fr infrmatin nline. I think all peple f 80 (I) age shuld take classes like this.”
XI. 基础写作。 (包括A、B两部分, A部分5分, B部分15分, 共计20分)
A)连词成句(共5小题，每小题1分，共计5分)
将所给词语连成句子，要求符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用，句末标点已给出
81. vu, museum, visited, the, have
?
82. stry, des, hw, begin, the
?
83. smile, it's, t, thers, plite, at
.
84. will, less pllutin, be, there, in the future

85. exam, fair, hw, the, is
?
B)书面表达(满分15分)
86.假如你是李华，你们学校科技小组要去另一座城市参加比赛同学们打算做一些事情来为小组筹集资金。请你根据以下要点用英语写一篇 70 词左右的作文。
要点：
1. Explain the reasn fr raising mney.
2. The ideas abut hw t raise mney.
参考词汇: science and technlgy team
We are happy t knw that ur schl science and technlgy team is ging t have a cmpetitin in anther city.

2023—2024学年度第二学期期末调研测试
八年级英语参考答案
Ⅰ—Ⅴ．听力（共30小题，每小题1分，共计30分）
1—5：CACAC 6—10：ACABA 11—13：ACC 14—15： CA
16—18：BAC 19—21：CBA 22—25：ABCB
26. prtect 27. shwer 28. everywhere 29. waste 30. play
Ⅵ．单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，共计10分）
31—35：ADBDA 36—40：ADACD
Ⅶ．完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共计10分）
41—45：BCADC 46—50：ADBCB
Ⅷ．阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，共计30分）
51.B 52.D 53.C
54.C 55.C 56.C
57.A 58.D 59.D 60.B
61.B 62.A 63.C 64.D 65.A
Ⅸ．任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，共计10分）
66.prduce waste
67.Reducing less./ Using less./ T reduce less./ T use less.
68.Because maybe the ld ne is just as gd.
69. Repeat these three wrds daily: reduce, reuse and recycle.
70把你的垃圾分类成塑料、玻璃、纸（制品）和橡胶。
Ⅹ．词语运用（共5小题，每小题2分，共计10分）
71. advantages 72. mainly 73. Hwever 74. an 75.difference
76. hw 77. created 78. first 79. searching 80. my
Ⅺ．基础写作
A. 连词成句（共5小题，每小题1分，共计5分）
81. Have yu visited the museum?
82. Hw des the stry begin?
83. It’s plite t smile at thers.
84. There will be less pllutin in the future.
85. Hw fair the exam is!
B.86. 书面表达（满分15分）
We are happy t knw that ur schl science and technlgy team is ging t have a cmpetitin in anther city. But the trip will cst a lt f mney. We need t raise sme mney fr the team! Hw can we raise mney?
Jenny and I will help peple wash cars and deliver fd n weekends. Sme f my classmates sell snacks and schl things after schl every day. Li Ming is gd at drawing, s he can draw pictures fr peple.
We hpe everyne can take an active part in the activities. We’re sure that we'll succeed.
评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名，酌情减分。
一档
13-15分
包含了所有要点, 能围绕内容要点适当发挥，内容具体、丰富；应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇, 用词准确，句子通顺，行文连贯，表达清楚；没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，达到了预期的写作目的。
二档
10-12分
基本包含了所有要点，并有一定发挥，内容比较丰富；应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚；有少量语言错误，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档
7-9分
包含了多数要点，并有所发挥，内容不够丰富、具体，字数较少；句子不够通顺，语言表达过于简单，行文不够连贯；有部分语言错误。
四档
4-6分
只包含了少数要点，内容过少；句子无条理，语言不规范，行文不连贯；语言错误较多。
五档
0-3分
白卷，只包含一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关，内容杂乱，不知所云；语言很不通顺，用词很不准确；错误过多，几乎难以读懂。