47,河北省保定市曲阳县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末英语试题
展开听力部分
Ⅰ.听句子,选出句子中所包含的信息(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
1. A. viceB. niseC. chice 2.
A. hears fB. dreams fC. thinks f
3. A. make upB. make frC. make sense
4. A. Kate teaches Chinese.
B. Kate studies Chinese by herself.
C. Kate des well in Chinese.
5. A. We have t cme here n time.
B. We needn't get there n time.
C. We shuld get there n time.
Ⅱ.听句子,选出该句的最佳答语(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
6. A. Srry t hear that. B. Well dne. C. I'm afraid yu can't.
7. A. Gd idea. B. Gdbye. C. Yes, please.
8. A. Tw hurs. B. Once a week. C. In an hur.
9. A. Hw are yu? B. Yes, I'm Ann. C. Speaking, please.
10. A. Nt yet. B. N, I dn't. C. All right.
Ⅲ.听对话和问题,选择正确答案(共8小题;每小题1分,满分8分)
11. Hw des the girl travel t Shanghai?
A. B. C.
12. What des Lucy ften d n weekends?
A. B. C.
13. Why is Betty ging t be an English teacher?
A. Because she likes English.
B. Because she likes students.
C. Bth A and B.
14. What is Cindy ging t be?
A. A pilt. B. A singer. C. A cmputer prgrammer.
15. What des Lucy like best?
A. Cmputer. B. Singing. C. Cmputer science.
16. Where did Frank live tw years ag?
A. In the space statin. B. In Beijing. C. In New Yrk.
17. What sprts will Frank d with his daughters?
A. G skiing. B. G swimming. C. G climbing.
18. Hw will he talk with his friends?
A. On the radi. B. On the cmputer. C. On the phne.
Ⅵ.听短文和问题,选择正确答案(共7小题;每小题1分,满分7分)
19. Which neighburhd des Li Lei live in?
A. Weixing Neighburhd.
B. Hngchang Neighburhd.
C. Hngxing Neighburhd.
20. Hw far is Li Lei's neighburhd frm here?
A. It's nly tw blcks frm here.
B. It's nly three blcks frm here.
C. It's nly fur blcks frm here.
21. When did the speaker buy the bk?
A. Last Saturday. B. Last Thursday. C. Last Tuesday.
22. What is the name f the bk?
A. The Old Man and the SeaB. Charlie NinthC. Harry Prter
23. Hw much is the bk?
A. 70yuan. B. 17 yuan. C. 7 yuan.
24. Wh is the bk gd fr?
A. Parents. B. Children. C. Teachers.
25. What is the stry abut?
A. Hw t learn English.
B. Hw t fight in the army.
C. Hw t defeat(战胜)the bad man.
Ⅴ.听短文填空(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
笔试部分
Ⅵ.单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31. His uncle is an excellent ________ . He can draw well.
A. actrB. waiterC. writerD. artist
32. Dn't help Jane d husewrk any mre. She can d it ________ .
A. myselfB. herselfC. himselfD. yurself
33. My parents dn't allw me ________ utside after 9:00 p.m.
A. playB. playingC. playsD. t play
34. —Which d yu prefer, tea r cffee?
—Either. ________ tea ________ cffee are my favurite.
A. Nt nly; but alsB. Bth; and
C. Neither; nrD. Either; r
35. —When will yu ________ t Greece? —I'm nt sure. Maybe next mnth.
A. tradeB. suppseC. returnD. cntinue
36. —Hw abut this T-shirt, sir?
—I think I need a ________ size. It's a little shrt fr me.
A. lngerB. lngestC. biggerD. biggest
37. Susan, please ________ the TV. The Wrld Cup ftball match will begin in tw minutes.
A. try nB. get nC. put nD. turn n
38. —The summer vacatin is cming. D yu have any plans?
—I'm ging t ________ a hbby like playing the guitar.
A. cut upB. lk upC. turn upD. take up
39. —What will yu d fr the cming winter hliday?
—I ________ vlunteer in the lcal library, but I'm nt sure.
A. shuldB. mustC. mightD. shall
40. Dad, I ________ ding my hmewrk. Can I g ut and play with my friends nw?
A. finishB. have finishedC. am finishingD. will finish
Ⅶ.完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
In China, the Spring Festival is very imprtant. Chinese 41 it in many different ways.
When the Spring Festival falls, red flwers always blm(绽放)n the windws f my hme. Of curse, these are nt 42 flwers and dn't smell sweet. But in the cld 43 , these wnderful flwers bring warmth t us. They are made f 44 by my grandma wh is in her seventies. And she changes pieces f paper int beautiful wrks f art.
When my grandma was yung, the 45 didn't think she was clever. On a cld winter night, she was 46 t see sme beautiful red paper wrks f art n her new neighbur's(邻居的)windws. She was s interested in it and decided t 47 frm her neighbr. Tns f paper were wasted, and she hurt her fingers many times. But she still practiced 48 . She said, “I lve paper cutting, nthing culd 49 me.” It tk abut 3 years befre my grandma culd make paper art skillfully(娴熟地). The red 50 blming like burning(燃烧的)fire lighted up(点燃)her wrld. Nw, everyne in the village respects(尊敬)her.
My grandma's stry has shwn that it takes us time t realize ur dreams.
41. A. recrdB. celebrateC. discussD. attend
42. A. trueB. realC. fullD. beautiful
43. A. hurB. weekC. seasnD. year
44. A. paperB. leavesC. stnesD. cardbard
45. A. villagersB. passengersC. studentsD. scientists
46. A. scaredB. surprisedC. sadD. srry
47. A. buyB. brrwC. cpyD. learn
48. A. slwlyB. angrilyC. carefullyD. easily
49. A. stpB. supprtC. helpD. accept
50. A. windwsB. rmsC. flwersD. nights
Ⅶ.阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料,然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
A few yung peple are talking abut their dream jbs in the future.
51. _________ might like sprts mst.
A. DaveB. EricC. TnyD. Jhn
52. Tny wants t be _________ in the future.
A. an actrB. a scientistC. a writerD. a player
53. Dave wants t have such a dream jb because _________ .
A. he wants t be famus
B. he wants t change the wrld
C. he wants t make peple happy
D. he wants t write great stries
B
Life is nt easy, s I'd like t say “When anything happens, believe in yurself”. When I was a yung by,I was s shy(害羞的)that I was afraid t talk t anyne. Later, smething happened, and it changed my life.
It was an English speech(演讲)cmpetitin. My English teacher asked me t take part in it. What a terrible idea! It meant I had t speak befre all the teachers and students f schl! “Cme n,by.Believe in yurself.Yu are sure t win.” Then my teacher and I talked abut many different tpics(话题). At last I chse the tpic “Believe in yurself”. I tried my best t remember all the speech and practised it ver 100 times. With my teacher's great lve, I did well in the cmpetitin. I culd hardly(几乎不)believe my ears when the news came that I had wn the first place. I heard the cheers(喝彩声)frm the teachers and students. All said “Cngratulatins(祝贺)!”. t me.My teacher hugged me and cried excitedly.
Since then,everything has changed. When I d anything, I'll try t tell myself t be sure and I will find myself.
54. What was the writer like when he was a yung by?
A. Shy. B. Active. C. Cnfident. D. Prud.
55. What changed the writer's life?
A. The tpic he chse. B. The teachers' cngratulatins.
C. The classmates' cheers. D. The English speech cmpetitin.
56. Which f the fllwing wuld the writer want t tell us?
A. Befre a cmpetitin, we need t practise it ver 100 times.
B. It's nt gd t lk dwn n thers and laugh at them.
C. N matter what happens, we shuld believe in urselves.
D. When we take part in a cmpetitin , we must chse a gd tpic.
C
Cnfidence is very imprtant in daily life. It is helpful t develp a healthy attitude(态度). A study shws that peple wh are mre cnfident are much happier. They can have mre chance t make themselves successful. But hw t be mre cnfident? Here are sme suggestins:
Speak ludly! When yu are nt cnfident, yu can't d well what yu want t d. Yu speak in a vice s lw that ther peple can hardly(几乎不)hear yu. Try t speak lud enugh s that(以便)peple can hear yu clearly. The high vice can help yu becme mre cnfident.
Play sprts! A strng bdy is a strng mind. Physical exercise makes yu tired but cmpletely relaxed. A strng bdy helps yu be full f cnfidence.
Encurage yurself! Write dwn a list f things yu did during the day t see hw many things yu have dne well. Did yu finish yur hmewrk? Did yu tell a jke that made everybdy laugh? Give yurself praise(赞扬)fr the gd things yu've dne.
Pick up a hbby! If yu like singing, sing as much as yu can. In sme ways, a hbby can make yu excellent. And it will make yu happy and cnfident.
57. What des “It” mean in the first paragraph?
A. Attitude. B. Cnfidence. C. Happiness. D. Success.
58. ________ can make yu excellent, happy and cnfident.
A. A hbbyB. SprtsC. Encuragement D. Vice
59. Which suggestin is NOT mentined(被提及)in the passage?
A. Speak ludly!B. Encurage yurself!
C. Keep a hbby!D. Make prgress!
60. What can make yu tired but strng?
A. Travel. B. Exercise. C. Hbbies. D. Suggestins.
D
Mdern life is impssible withut travelling. The fastest way t travel is by air. With a mdern plane yu can travel in ne day t places which tk a mnth r mre ne hundred years ag.
Travelling by train is slwer than by air, but it has its advantages(优势). Yu can see the cuntry yu are travelling in. Mdern trains have cmfrtable seats and dining cars. They make even the lngest jurney enjyable.
Sme peple like t travel by sea better when it is pssible. There are large liners(邮轮)and river bats. Yu can visit many ther cuntries and different places. Travelling by sea is a very pleasant way t spend a hliday.
Many peple like t travel by car. Yu can make yur wn timetable. Yu can travel three r fur hundred miles r nly fifty miles a day, just as yu like. Yu can stp wherever yu wish: where there is smething interesting t see, at a gd restaurant where yu can enjy a gd meal, r a htel t spend the night. S travelling by car is belved fr pleasure trips, while peple usually take a train r a plane when they are travelling n business.
61. What is the advantage f travelling by plane?.
A. It's quieter. B. It's cheaper. C. It's faster.D. It's cleaner.
62. What can we d when travelling by train?
A. Have a gd service. B. Make wn timetable.
C. Stp at any place. D. Enjy the cuntry.
63. What can we knw abut travelling by sea?
A. It csts the mst mney.
B. It has large liners and river bats.
C. It's the slwest way t spend a hliday.
D. It's a gd chice f travelling fr business.
64. What des the underlined wrd “belved” prbably mean?
A. Ppular. B. Impssible. C. Terrible. D. Safe.
65. What can be the best title f this passage?
A. Mdern LifeB. Ways t Travel
C. Future TransprtatinD. Advantages f Travelling
Ⅸ.任务型阅读(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,按要求完成下面小题。
D yu hpe t d a lt f hmewrk every evening? Are yu interested in yur classes? Wh d yu want t teach yu? Maybe yu have lts f questins in yur mind befre schl starts. I want t give yu sme gd advice n study.
First, keep calm(冷静). Dn't wrry abut all the questins yu have. If yu put yur heart int learning, yu can find smething interesting t learn. D it actively.
Secnd, try yur best t finish yur hmewrk quickly. Dn't spend a lt f time n it. D mre reading r writing in English. Think abut the prblems yu have and slve(解决)them at nce. Dn't stay up late, r yu can't study well the next day.
Third, find the right way fr yu t study. If yu can remember the wrds in yur wn way, yu can tell yur teachers yu dn't like the way f cpying them again and again. Be sure yu can pass the test. Yur teachers will agree with yu. And they can give yu smething interesting t d.
Finally, always tell yurself: schl is really a gd place. Believe in yur teachers and yurself. Yu are the best ne and yu can d everything well.
66—67题完成句子;68题简略回答问题;69题找出并写下全文的主题句;70题将文中划线句子译成汉语。
66. When yu put yur heart int __________ , yu are sure t find smething interesting t learn.
67. Yu can't __________ the next day if yu stay up late.
68. Hw many suggestins des the writer list?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
69. ___________________________________________________________________________________________
70. ___________________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅹ.词语运用(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
Henry Frd truly changed the wrld. He was brn n July 30, 1863. He was the 71 (ld) sn f a farmer. He grew 72 n a farm in Michigan. Like mst farmers at that time, his father William wished him t help n the farm. 73 Henry did nt like the farm wrk at all. He thught it was bring. Once he 74 (write), “What a waste it is fr a man t spend hurs behind a 75 (slw)mving hrse.”
Hwever, Henry was 76 excellent by. He has great interest in all kinds f machines. When he was twelve, he 77 (becme)quite gd at small machines. He repaired clcks and 78 (watch) fr his friends in his bedrm.
Later he tk a jb in a factry in Detrit. He gt 79 (interest) in steam engines at this time. In 1812, he built his 80 (ne) car. In 1908, he bu it a famus “Mdel T”. This car was ppular at that time and peple didn't change it fr twenty years. Five years after that he started the Frd Mtr Cmpany.
Ⅺ.基础写作(包括A、B两部分,A部分5分,B部分15分,共20分)
A)连词成句(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
将所给词语连成句子。要求符合语法,语句通顺,大小写正确,词语不得重复使用。句末标点已给出。
81. unique, makes, what, yu
_________________________________________________________________________________________?
82. things, I'm, making, gd at
_________________________________________________________________________________________.
83. me, it, pleasure, much, brings
_________________________________________________________________________________________.
84. talents, yur, think abut, special
_________________________________________________________________________________________.
85. yurself, yu, are, prud f
_________________________________________________________________________________________?
B)书面表达(满分15分)
86.我校的英语社团下周将举行一次座谈会,主题为“我的爱好”。假如你是李丽,将参与座谈。请你根据以下提示,写一篇英语发言稿。
提示:(1)Yur hbby;
(2)What yu get frm yur hbby;
(3)What yu are lking frward t. ……
注意:(1)短文必须包含三个要点,可适当发挥;
(2)短文不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名;
(3)词数不少于70。
Gd mrning, everyne!
I'm Li Li frm Class 1, Grade 8. I'm happy t be here t share my ideas. _______________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
2023—2024学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级英语试题参考答案与评分标准
Ⅰ.1-5 ABCBC Ⅱ. 6-10 BABCA Ⅲ. 11-12 AC 13-15 CBC 16-18BAC
Ⅳ. 19—20 CA 21—25 BCABC
评分标准:1. 1—25小题,每小题1分,满分25分。2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅴ. 26. ninth 27. presents 28. ballns 29. wish 30. candles
评分标准:1. 每小题1分,满分5分。2. 凡与答案不符,但所填信息与答案意思相同且与题目要求相符者,可酌情给分。
Ⅵ. 31—35 DBDBC 36—40 CDDCB Ⅶ. 41—45 BBCAA 46—50 BBCAC
Ⅷ. 51—53 DCC 54—56 ADC 57—60 BADB 61—65 CDBAD
评分标准:1. 31—50小题,每小题1分,满分20分;51—65小题,每小题2分,满分30分。2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
= 9 \* ROMAN \* MERGEFORMAT IX.66. learning
67. study well 68. Fur. / 4.
69. I want t give yu sme gd advice n study.
70. 你的老师会同意你的(想法)。
评分标准:1. 每小题2分,满分10分。2. 凡与答案不符,但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者,可酌情给分。有关语法及拼写(包括大小写)等错误酌情减分。
= 10 \* ROMAN \* MERGEFORMAT X. 71. ldest / eldest 72. up 73. But 74. wrte 75. slwly 76. an 77. became
78. watches 79. interested 80. first
评分标准:1. 每小题1分,满分10分。2. 凡与答案不符,但所填词语与题目要求相符者,可酌情给分。
= 11 \* ROMAN \* MERGEFORMAT XI. A) 81.What makes yu unique?
I’m gd at making things.
It brings me much pleasure.
Think abut yur special talents.
Are yu prud f yurself ?
评分标准:1. 每小题1分,满分5分。2. 凡语序与答案相符,但出现句子首字母不大写等错误,酌情给分。
B) 86. One pssible versin:
Gd mrning, everyne!
I'm Li Li frm Class 1, Grade 8. I'm happy t be here t share my ideas. I have many hbbies. Singing English sngs is my favurite, and I'm really gd at it. I take singing lessns twice a week. I practice singing English sngs in class and after schl. I als sing sngs t my friends. They say my vice is sweet. This gives me great cnfidence. I als make mre friends.
Nw I'm lking frward t taking part in a talent shw. I believe I can sing English sngs well n the big stage.
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分,按五个档次给分。
2. 评分时,先根据短文的内容要点初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的语言要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 短文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名,酌情减分。
二、评分标准
三、说明
1. 内容要点可以用不同方式表达。 2. 相同的错误不重复计算Infrmatin Sheet
Last Saturday was Tim's 26 birthday.
Tim liked his friend's 27 very much.
His mther bught sme 28 .
Tim made a 29 .
Then he tk a deep breath and blew ut the 30
I want t be an actr like Pan Changjiang when I grw up. He isn't tall r gd—lking. But he is funny and wise. I hpe t bring mre pleasure t peple. After all, pleasure is the best thing in life.
—Dave
I'd like t be an engineer like Bill Gates. He has changed ur wrld with his great inventins. I als want t d smething fr the wrld. It might be hard t reach this gal, but I'll keep wrking hard.
—Eric
M Yan is my favurite writer. He tells the wrld a lt by writing great stries. I hpe t learn frm him. T write mre and better stries, I'll spend mre time reading his wrks.
—Tny
Kbe is ne f the greatest basketball players in the wrld. I lve basketball and I think I'm ging t be a famus player like him. I knw that it's nt easy t becme a sprts star, but I'll never give up.
—Jhn
档 次
分 值
语 言 要 求
一档
13 ~ 15分
包含了所有要点,能围绕内容要点适当发挥,内容具体、丰富;应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇,用词准确,句子通顺,行文连贯,表达清楚;没有或几乎没有语言错误,具备较强的语言运用能力,达到了预期的写作目的。
二档
10 ~ 12分
基本包含了所有要点,并有一定的发挥,内容比较丰富;应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求,句子较通顺,表达较清楚;有少量语言错误,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档
7 ~ 9分
包含了多数要点,并有所发挥,内容不够丰富、具体,词数较少;句子不够通顺,语言表达过于简单,行文不够连贯;有部分语言错误。
四档
4 ~ 6分
只包含了少数要点,内容过少;句子无条理,语言不规范,行文不连贯;语言错误较多。
五档
0 ~ 3分
只包含一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关,内容杂乱,不知所云;语言很不通顺,用词很不准确;错误过多,几乎难以读懂。
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