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    2022-2023学年贵州省重点中学高二下学期3月月考英语试题含答案

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    这是一份2022-2023学年贵州省重点中学高二下学期3月月考英语试题含答案,共13页。

    英语试卷

     

     

    本试卷分第一卷(选择题)和第二卷(非选择题)两部分,共150分。考试时间120分钟。

    第一卷

     

    注意事项:

      1. 答第一卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、科目用铅笔涂写在答题卡上。

      2. 每小题选出答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号。不能答在试卷上。

      3. 考试结束,考生将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

     

      第一部分 听力(满分30分)

    第一节 共五个小题。

    听下面5段对话或独白,选出最佳选项。

    1.What is the man going to do?

    A. Repair his car.    B. Go to the bus station.   C. Give the woman a lift.

    2. How will the speakers go to the cinema?

      A. On foot.         B. By car.              C. By bus.

    3.What did the man do yesterday evening?

      A. He watched a match.   B. He read a newspaper.   C. He did his homework

    4.What does the woman borrow from the man?

      A. A notebook.       B. A computer.         C. A dictionary

    5.What does the woman suggest the man do?

      A. Do some exercise.  B. Take some medicine.  C. See a doctor.

    第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

    听第6段材料,回答第6,7题。

    6. What are the speakers mainly talking about?

      A. Making a holiday plan. 

    B. Putting on a performance. 

    C. Buying tickets to the theater.

    7. What will the man do next?

    A. Make a call.       B. Search the Internet.    C. Check his timetable.

    听第7段材料,回答第810

    8.Where does the conversation probably take place?

    A. On the train       B. In an office          C. At an airport.

    9.Who is the man probably?

    A. A designer.        B. A reporter.          C.A writer.

    10.Why is the man going to Chicago today?

      A. To work.          B. To attend a party.    C. To go on a tour.

    听第8段材料,回答第1113

    11. How does the man feel now?

      A. Tired.             B. Worried.          C. Confused.

    12.What does the woman ask the man to do?

    A. Look at his exam paper.  B. Read the textbook himself.  C. Study the plant unit with her. 13.What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

    A. Classmates.         B. Mother and son.   C. Teacher and student

    听第9段材料,回答第1416题。

    14.What will the woman buy for her mum?

    A. A scarf.            B. A skirt           C. A coat.

    15.What will the speakers do on Saturday afternoon?

    A. Visit a museum.     B. Do some shopping.  C. Go to the zoo

    16.When will the speakers go swimming?

      A. On Saturday morning  B. On Sunday morning. C. On Sunday afternoon.
    听第10段材料,回答第1720

    17. How long do classes last on Fridays?

    A. Two hours.         B. Two and a half hours.  C. Three and a half hours.
    18.Where can students go to email home?

    A. The School Library.  B. The Self-Access Centre.  C. The Common Room

    19.What do we know about the food festival?

     A. It is held in October.  B. It offers drinks to visitors.  C. It is free to attend the festival.
    20.What does the speaker discuss in the end?

    A. How to get a discount card.  B. Where to buy cheap things.   C. What food to taste.

     

     

     

    第二部分  阅读理解(共2节,满分50分)

     

    第一节 (每题2.5分,满分37.5分。)

    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(ABCD)中,选出最佳选项。

     

     

    ( A )

    Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

    Grading Scale

    90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

    Essays (60%)

    Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course:

    Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2= 15%; Essay 3= 15%; Essay 4= 20%.

    Group Assignments (30%)

    Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.

    Daily Worth/In-Class Writing and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)

    Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.

    Late Work

    An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.

    21. Where is this text probably taken from?

    A. A textbook. B. An exam paper. C. A course plan. D. An academic article.

    22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?

    A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

    23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?

    A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade.

    C. You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it.

     

    ( B )

     

    The day before yesterday, when Peter’s family were having dinner, Father raised an interesting question, “Was there anything in our past that we feel ashamed of, guilty about, or regretted? Maybe we can find ways to say sorry, or take some action to right any wrongdoing.” This seemed like a very private matter, but Peter thought about it carefully the whole night.

    Peter remembered an incident from middle school. In his school, there was a worker, Neil Stone, who none of the kids liked. One night, Peter and two of his classmates decided to play a trick on him. They found a can of red paint, and wrote on the school main road in bright red: Neil Stone is a fool! The next day, the whole school saw these words. Within two hours, Neil had Peter and his two classmates in his office. His classmates said that they had done it but Peter lied and denied the truth.

    This morning, Peter went back to his middle school. Neil Stone is still working there. “Sorry, Neil. Do you still remember what happened ten years ago? I want you to know that I did it.” “I knew it!’ Neil laughed. They had a good laugh and a lively discussion. Neil’s closing words were: “Peter, I always felt bad for you because your classmates got it off their mind, and I knew you were carrying it around all these years. I want to thank you for visiting me… for your sake.”

    Peter knows that no matter how difficult the situation is, it is never too late to clear up the past and make a fresh start.

    24. What did Peter remember doing in middle school?

    A. Something helpful. B. Something unpleasant.

    C. Something valuable.   D. Something useful.

    25. What color were the words “Neil Stone is a fool!”?

    A. Dark blue.  B. Light green. 

    C. Pure white.   D. Bright red.

    26. When did Neil know who wrote the words on the school main road?

    A. Ten years ago.  B. The day before yesterday.

    C. This morning.  D. Not until Peter told him.

    27. What is the best title for this passage?

    A. Peter’s family.      B. An unforgettable lesson. 

    C. It’s never too late to say sorry.       D. An interesting thing in middle school.

     

                                        C

    The elderly residents(居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.

    The project was dreamed up by a local charity(慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people's wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.

    Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: "I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school."

    "I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they've gone to bed."

    "It's good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I'm enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful."

    There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.

    Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: "Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."

    Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: "We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities."
    28. What is the purpose of the project?
    A. To ensure harmony in care homes. B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.
    C. To raise money for medical research. D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.
    29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?
    A. She has learned new life skills. B. She has gained a sense of achievement.
    C. She has recovered her memory. D. She has developed a strong personality.
    30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?
    A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate.
    31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?
    A. It is well received.  B. It needs to be more creative.
    C. It is highly profitable.  D. It takes ages to see the results.

     

    D

    Friendship is important in our lives. Friends often affect our health and energy. More and more people are increasingly turning towards their friends for support. We may have a very unclear understanding of what makes a friend but we all want to have many good friends around us. There are certain steps that can win you friends or at least help you get close to those whom you want to make friends with.

       The first step to make friends with someone is to make him like you. If they don’t like you in the first place, it is unlikely that they’ll be eager to become your friends. To let someone know that you are interested in him, simple gestures like a little smile and calling him by his name can help. To make the other person feel important, you need to be a good listener and encourage the other person to talk. Give your honest and real opinions but do not make fun of him or her.

       The second step is to develop a full consideration between each other. You need to share his or her opinions. So, it is necessary for you to develop a habit of seeing things from the other person’s point of view. To become a best friend, you must show concern and consideration for your friend’s desires and opinions.

       The third and final step is to show your support and encouragement towards your friend. Moreover, you also need to be very clear about your expectations from your friend. If what you expect from the person you want to make friends with matches with what that person can and want to do in friendship, the developing friendship between you and your friend is sure to be easy and successful.

    32. What can we learn about friends and friendship?

    A. Friendship is less important in our life.    

    B. Friends can provide us with support. 

    C. Friends do harm to our health and energy.

    D. Relatives can not become friends.

    33. How many steps are mentioned in this passage?

       A. 2      B. 3     C. 4         D. 5

    34. Which is the right order of making friends according to the writer?

    When you meet some questions, you ask him for help.

    When he is in trouble, you tell him your idea.

    You smile to him to make him know that you like him.

    A. ②①③    B. ①②③      C. ③②①       D. ③①②      

    35. What is the main purpose of the writer in writing the passage?

    A. To tell us the importance of making friends.

    B. To tell about advantages and disadvantages of making friends.

    C. To tell us how to make friends step by step.

    D. To tell us that friends are hard to make.

     

    第二节(5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5)

    阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

    Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym,” while another read: “  36  ” With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.

    So, how do you find a workout partner?

    First of all, decide what you want from that person.   37   Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.

    You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won’t result in a useful response.   38   If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.

    My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number.   39 

    You and your partner will probably have different skills.   40   Over time, both of you will benefit — your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.

    A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

    B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

    C. You’ll work harder if you train with someone else.

    D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?

    E. How can you write a good “seeking training partner” notice?

    F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

    G. Any notice for training partner should include such information.

    第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)

    第一节 (共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)

    阅读下面短文,从每题所给的ABCD四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

    My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.

    Some of our   41   are funny, especially from the early years when our children were little. Once, we   42   along Chalk Creek. I was   43   that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was   44  , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So   45   tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It   46   — he didn’t end up in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.

    Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we   47  , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly   48   our peaceful morning trip. The   49   picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to   50   the motor. Nothing. He tried again. No   51  . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there   52  , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed() us back. We were   53  .

    Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of   54  , wondering what camping fun and   55   we will experience next.

    41. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries

    42. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled

    43. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried

    44. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid

    45. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D. as for

    46. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed

    47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off

    48. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded

    49. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed

    50. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix

    51. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal

    52. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly

    53. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right

    54. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement

    55. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict

    第二节(共10小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)

    阅读下面短文,在空自处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

    The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park (GPNP).   56   (cover) an area about three times   57   size of Yellowstone National Park, the CPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that   58   (be) previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority   59   (increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.

    After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP   60   (design) to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones,   61   leaving behind precious natural assets(资产) for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is to improve connectivity between separate   62   (population) and homes of giant pandas, and   63   (eventual) achieve a desired level of population in the wild.

    Giant pandas also serve   64   an umbrella species(物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species   65   live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.

    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)

    第一节(满分15分)

    假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华,请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括:

    1. 节目介绍;

    2. 访谈的时间和话题。

    注意:

    1. 写作词数应为80左右;

    2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

    Dear Caroline,

     

     

     

    Yours sincerely,

    Li Hua

    第二节(满分25分)

    阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。

    It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route(路线)through thick evergreen forest.

    I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn't with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.

    What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!

    I quickly searched the crowd for the school's coach and asked him what had happened. "I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him," he explained uncomfortably. "I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide."

    I bit back my frustration(懊恼). I knew the coach meant well — he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.

    David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer — that’s all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was proud of his strong determination.

    注意:

    1. 续写词数应为150左右;

    2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答.

    We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me.

     

     

     

    I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.

     

     

    20222023学年第二学期3月高二英语

      

     

    听力部分:1-5 ACCBA  6-10 CBAAB  11-15 BCCBA  16-20 BBCCA

    阅读部分:

    阅读( A): 21--23: CBA

    阅读( B ): 24-27: BDAC

    阅读( C): 28-31: DBCA

    阅读( D ): 32--35: BBCC

    补全短文: 36--40 CDBGF

    完形填空:41-45: CADCB  46-50: ADBAC  51-55: ADCDB  

    语法填空:

    56. Covering 57. the 58. were 59. to increase 60. is designed 

    61. and 62. populations 63. eventually 64. as 65. that 

    第四部分 写作 ()

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