山东省日照市五莲县2021-2022学年高二上学期期中考试英语含答案

这是一份山东省日照市五莲县2021-2022学年高二上学期期中考试英语含答案，共17页。试卷主要包含了11，三、四部分必须用0等内容，欢迎下载使用。
机密★启用前
2021~2022学年度上学期高二模块联考
英语试题
2021.11
本试卷共四部分，共12页。满分150分。考试时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、座号、考生号、县区和科类填写在答题卡和试卷规定的位置上。
2.一、二部分选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。
3.三、四部分必须用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应的位置，不能写在试卷上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不能使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How long did the man study last night?
A. For one hour. B. For three hours. C. For four hours.
2. What will the man probably have?
A. Root beer and Diet Coke. B. Popcorn and regular Coke. C. Popcorn and Diet Coke.
3. What will the woman do first?
A. Finish some emails. B. Have lunch with the man. C. Invite someone else for lunch.
4. What does the woman advise the man to do?
A. Call to check his scores. B. Be patient and wait. C. Take the test again.
5. What did the man do in Finland?
A. He was a farmer. B. He was an athlete. C. He was a teacher.
第二节(共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where did the man use to live?
A. In California. B. In Oregon. C. In Alaska.
7. Which class does the woman have next?
A. English. B. Science. C. World History.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What happened to the woman on the subway?
A. She was cut by a knife.
B. A man pushed her to the floor.
C. Two passengers took her handbag.
9. How did the man feel in the end'?
A. Surprised. B. Sad. C. Delighted.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Who might the man be?
A. A bank clerk. B. A police officer. C. A truck driver.
11. What was the woman doing when the accident took place?
A. Crossing the road. B. Standing outside a bank. C. Walking along Churchill Avenue.
12. How did the accident happen?
A. A car ran into a truck. B. A truck hit a car. C. A traffic light broke down.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Why does the woman like her job?
A. She can eat free snacks. B. She can sleep in. C. She has great co-workers.
14. Where does the man work?
A. In an office. B. In a school. C. In his house.
15. How does the woman get to work?
A. She drives herself. B. She walks. C. She takes a taxi.
16. On what street does the woman work?
A. Green Road. B. Main Street. C. Park Avenue.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. When will the storm probably end?
A. On Wednesday. B. On Thursday. C. On Friday.
18. What will the temperatures be on Saturday in most areas?
A. In the high seventies. B. In the low seventies. C. In the low fifties.
19. Which holiday is coming up next?
A. Thanksgiving. B. Christmas. C. New Year's.
20. What does the man suggest people do on New Year's Eve?
A. Stay indoors. B. Avoid the police. C. Not drive after midnight.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、和D)中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
In America, the following secret swimming holes are hidden and hard to reach but well worth your adventure.
Cummins Falls
Looking for the best place to escape the summer heat in the heartland of America? For more than 100 years, Cummins Falls, a scenic, 75-foot waterfall located in Jackson County, TN, has been a treasure for Tennessee natives. But now, the secret is out! Although it's a bit tough to get to, once in the park, the mountains and river provide unmatched beauty on your way to taking a swim in Tennessee's eighth-largest waterfall.
Sliding Rock
A popular place to cool off during those hot North Carolina summers, Sliding Rock waterfall is located in the Pisgah National Forest in Transylvania County. A flattened rock about 60 feet lies in a nearly 7-foot-deep pool at the bottom, making this natural waterslide a great place to visit with people of all ages.
Mooney Falls
It is the tallest water feature in the Grand Canyon, rising 190 feet above the surface. Named after an explorer in the 1800s, Mooney Falls is accessible only by crawl through 2 underground passages and then climbing down a sheer cliff(峭壁)face with just a couple of chains to hold on to. Although it is tough to get to, the view and the cool alone make it worth the trip.
Lihue Estate
A private swimming hole at the old Lihue Sugar Farm on Kauai, HI, was changed into an inner-tube water ride by Kauai Backcountry Adventures in 2003 and opened to adults. The waters for this 2.5-mile journey, which come from near the top of Mount Waialeale-one of the wettest spots in the world-are channeled through ditches that were hand-dug by farm workers over a century ago.
21. Which hole may be the favourable destination for families?
A. Cummins Falls. B. Sliding Rock. C. Mooney Falls. D. Lihue Estate.
22. What can we learn about Mooney Falls?
A. It was found by an explorer. B. It was hand-dug in the 1800s.
C. It is some dangerous to enter. D. It is the tallest fall in the world.
23. What is special about Lihue Estate?
A. It has man-made channels. B. Its area is private.
C. Its water is from underground. D. It lies below Mount Waialeale.
B
Jesse Kata, the 26-year-old American traveler, arrived in Peru last March, ready to visit Machu Picchu. It was supposed to be the final stop on his around-the-world trip, but then lockdown struck Peru on March 16, the day Kata was supposed to start hiking.
He decided to hang around for a few weeks in the hope that it would reopen. He considered some of the emergency evacuation(撤退)flights back home to America, but found them to be very expensive. Days turned into weeks, then months, and still Kata waited.
He made the best of his time. He rented a small apartment in the town and passed the time taking daily yoga classes, teaching local children how to box, and studying for various fitness and sports nutrition certification(认证)exams. He was working towards his goal of opening his own gym back home in America.
Finally, after earning the nickname "the last tourist in Peru", Kata's patience paid off. On October 11, he derived special access to Machu Picchu and allowed to enter the ancient site with the country's culture minister, Alejandro Neyra, and a handful of guides.
It's an example of slow travel-travel so slow, in fact, that Kata didn't even go anywhere except to the village at the foot of the Andean Mountains. Rather than rush off on an emergency flight, Kata accepted that sudden slow pace of life and made the best of it, simply fitting into the local community and putting in time. He must have gotten to know Peruvian village life better than he ever imagined-and gained so much more in the process than if he'd taken the quick and easy route home.
24. What can we know about Jesse Kata?
A. He enjoyed taking a short journey. B. He spent more than half a year in Peru.
C. He showed great interest in mountains. D. He was short of money when travelling in Peru.
25. Why did Kata work on fitness-related activities in Peru?
A. To get to know local physical culture better. B. To coach in a gym back home in America.
C. To go on a long hike to Machu Picchu. D. To prepare himself for running a gym.
26. What does the underlined word "derived" in Paragraph 4 mean?
A. Gained. B. Lost. C. Refused. D. Demanded.
27. What does the author intend to do in the last paragraph??
A. Add some background information. B. Summarize the previous paragraphs.
C. Provide some advice for readers. D. Introduce a new topic for discussion.
C
Earth's second-longest man-made structure, though, is not a wall, but a fence. It spreads about 5, 614 km across eastern Australia and is intended to stop the country's dingoes(野犬) from hunting sheep, which are farmed mainly to the south.
Australia's dingo fence does not stand alone. There are millions of kilometres of fences in the world. Some are aimed to limit the movement of animals, some the movement of people, and some only to mark the boundary(界限).
Recently things have been changed by a report from Professor Alex Mclnturff. One discovery he has made is that more than half of the fence research studies focus on just five countries- America, Australia, Botswana, China and South Africa. A second is that only a third of those examined the impact of fences on target species involved, meaning the animals purposely intended to be kept in or out.
In fact, Australian fences intended to keep out dingoes are also barriers(障碍)to long-necked turtles, which travel great distances over land when moving between nesting sites. In Botswana fences built to prevent cattle from wildlife-borne disease influence the migration routes of wildebeest.
Fences are not so bad for every creature. Hawks in Montana gladly sit on newly built fences to hunt small animals, while fence-based spiders in South Africa achieve better results than their tree-based cousins when it comes to catching insects.
Often, though, the winners are creatures that cause trouble for ecological environment. Keeping dingoes out of large parts of Australia has allowed red foxes to increase greatly. Native rodents(啮齿类动物)have suffered as a result. Some have been brought to the edge of extinction.
28. Which is the purpose of building fences in Australia?
A. To lengthen the boundary. B. To help people move around freely.
C. To protect farm animals. D. To stop wild animals from being hunted.
29. What does the underlined word "those" in Paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Fence research studies. B. The five countries.
C. Target species. D. The impact of fences.
30. Which of the following animals benefit from fences?
A. Long-necked turtles in Australia. B. Cattle in Botswana.
C. Tree-based spiders in South Africa. D. Red foxes in Australia.
31. What could be the best title for the text?
A. The Report by Alex Mclnturff B. Fences -Barriers to Wildlife
C. Earth's Longest Man-made Structure D. Rodents-in Danger of Extinction
D
As the world sees more and more extreme weather patterns, it's becoming increasingly difficult to ignore the effects of climate change. It is now a common topic of discussion and it has even found its way into the books we read. Because of this, a genre(类型)called climate fiction, or cli-fi, has found new life.
The term "cli-fi" was first used in 2007 by US climate activist and writer Dan Bloom. He wanted to make "climate fiction" more appealing. According to Bloom, the term really gained popularity when Canadian writer Margaret Atwood used it in Twitter, introducing it to her half-a-million followers.
As the name suggests, climate fiction refers to stories with a central theme of climate change or global warming. These kinds of books can help us imagine what the world might be like in the future because of major climate change events.
Adeline Johns-Putra is a professor of literature at Xi'an Jiaotong-Liverpool University in Suzhou and has edited many books on climate fiction. "It's part of a pattern," Johns-Putra told Smithsonian Magazine. "It's a feedback loop(环), as these books feed into our awareness and that feeds into our demand to read these books."
The genre is also gaining popularity with high school and college students because it looks at topics that are relevant to what's really happening today. Also, many cli-fi novels tend to have dystopian(反乌托邦的)themes, which are very popular in young adult novels.
In 2015, cli-fi author Sarah Holding wrote for The Guardian that cli-fi "reconnects young readers with their environment", which helps them appreciate it more, "especially when today, a large amount of their time is spent in the virtual world".
Cli-fi has also helped to inspire students to pursue science majors, with some universities even offering courses specifically focusing on climate fiction.
"These books aren't going to save the world in any straight form or way," Johns-Putra commented. "But they're certainly going to help us think about how the world gets saved."
As Atwood wrote in her dystopian cli-fi novel MaddAddam, "People need such stories, because however dark, a darkness with voices in it is better than silent space."
32. What is cli-fi?
A. Stories about country life. B. Stories about the future.
C. Stories about climate change. D. Stories with dystopian themes.
33. How does cli-fi influence young students?
A. It encourages them to write their own cli-fi.
B. It raises their awareness of the real world.
C. It makes them more interested in the virtual world.
D. It teaches them to appreciate what they have.
34. What does Atwood think of cli-fi?
A. They are too dark for people. B. They tend to make people feel empty.
C. They should involve different voices. D. They can get people thinking about their reality.
35. What is the author's main purpose in writing the article?
A. To introduce a new genre of writing. B. To warn readers of future climate crises.
C. To introduce a famous US climate activist. D. To inspire students to pursue science majors.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
When a week flies by quickly, maybe you can't help asking yourself, "What did I do last week? Where did the time go?" Life seems to be out of control and soon, before we know it, we'll become old and wonder what we've achieved. 36
The first thing you should do is write down what is most important to you in your life. For example, what are your deepest values? 37 What do you imagine yourself being and doing 10 years from now?
It is also necessary to create a plan every Sunday evening for the following week. 38 Put all of them in your schedule. It is important that you have made proper plans like going to the grocery store or getting something done for your work or study. What's more, make sure that you understand things will come up suddenly.
39 You'd better print out your schedule and make it able to be seen throughout the week. Furthermore, at the end of each day, think of what you enjoyed doing. This will help you be thankful to each day and finally live a more meaningful life.
In a word, when you are at work, be at work. 40 To live a successful life, you have to stay focused on what is in front of you!
A. When you're at home, be at home.
B. What gives you hope every single day?
C. How to start all over again the next day?
D. Remember what will make you feel more relaxed, peaceful and happy.
E. Once you've created the plan, it's important for you to see it every day.
F. Sit down in a quiet place in your home while considering what needs to get done.
G. Actually, we all can have a successful life if we learn to plan our weeks in our life.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
My 12-year-old niece was staying with us for a little while. One night we stayed up talking about how we used to. 41 and take part in random acts of kindness. We talked about how so much had 42 , and how it would be difficult to do so many of those things now, 43 when it came to helping out strangers.
The next day, I 44 a task downtown and took her with me. As we walked around, we heard a beautiful male voice 45 . We turned around to see a middle-aged man sitting on a corner with his guitar. A couple was sitting on a bench nearby and listening to his 46 .
After I ran my errand(差事), we 47 to sit at an outdoor restaurant across from him on the other side of the street. My niece kept 48 and saying how wonderful his singing was. Seeing how moved she was by his music, at the end of our 49 , I gave her a $10 bill and asked her to put it in his bowl.
She was 50 , but headed over. As she 51 , the man was just finishing a song, and they had a conversation. She told him how 52 she was by his music, and he told her she 53 his day. As she was excitedly talking about the 54 with me, she mentioned, "He didn't even know how much it was. He just 55 that someone was enjoying his music."
41. A. volunteer B. advertise C. communicate D. research
42. A. remained B. changed C. declined D. sharpened
43. A. probably B. rarely C. merely D. especially
44. A. assigned B. chose C. performed D. studied
45. A. singing B. whispering C. yelling D. crying
46. A. speech B. music C. remark D. philosophy
47. A. failed B. expected C. hesitated D. happened
48. A. blaming B. arguing C. smiling D. joking
49. A. visit B. interaction C. shopping D. meal
50. A. surprised B. tired C. upset D. delighted
51. A. appeared B. approached C. left D. passed
52. A. astonished B. touched C. disturbed D. protected
53. A. took B. set C. fill D. made
54. A. conversation B. contribution C. expectation D. cooperation
55. A. considered B. remembered C. valued D. criticized
第二节(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母提示或汉语意思，在句子的空白处写出各单词的完全形式。
56. Paula (值得)a special mention for all the help she has given us.
57. The shoe factory is one of the largest (雇主)in this area.
58. It is (非凡)that women did not have the vote until that time.
59. The name of the cheese is Dolcelatte, l meaning sweet milk.
60. You can hardly b him for not waiting. You were late for an hour.
第三节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
请根据汉语提示完成下列句子。
61. In this way, practicing (日复一日)helped Stephen sharpen his skills.
62. Humor could not only entertain but (产生新认识)sensitive or emotive issues.
63. (多亏)my teammates' hard efforts, I had the opportunity to show my skills.
64. Maybe animals evolved as they (适应)their changing environments.
65. He performed (超出预期)with his accurate shooting and continuous efforts.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是李华，10月14日老人节(the Double Ninth Festival)，你和同学去康养中心(health care center)参加了“关爱老人”志愿服务。请你写一篇短文投稿，内容包括：
1.时间、地点；
2.活动(打扫卫生、聊天等)；
3.你的感受。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
An Unforgettable Experience


第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I was the best speller in my third-grade class. Everyone knew it. I could spell lots of difficult words effortlessly. Perfect scores came to me after each weekly spelling test.
Our teacher Mrs. Brown's rule for spelling tests was that if you didn't get at least 60 percent correct, you had to copy each word for next week's spelling test fifty times. Ryan, the kid who sat next to me, was not very clever. He did badly in every subject, including spelling.
One day when Mrs. Brown passed back our spelling test's papers, I took a quick look at Ryan's paper and saw his big red mark-56 percent. He quickly folded(折叠)the paper and pushed it into his desk. Before the next spelling test, I was so confident about my spelling abilities that I thought that I didn't need to prepare for it.
The day finally came. As Mrs. Brown slowly mouthed each word and then repeated it, the silence was broken only by crazy pencil scratches(沙沙声). Then Mrs. Brown said, "Handkerchief."
As I rapidly put pencil to paper, I stopped. My mind was racing as I wrote down h-a-n-d-k-e-r-c-h. What was the remaining part? Did the word end up with "i-e-f", "e-i-f" or just "i-f"? My mind was blank. I wrote "e-i-f" down, but I was wondering whether I should erase(擦除)them and change them to other letters. Then it hit me that助an knew how to spell it. He wrote the word fifty times-there was no way he would forget it.
Ryan had put his pencil down. It was a wide-open road between my eyes and the word that I knew he had correctly written on his paper. I was very nervous as Mrs. Brown was about to mouth the next word.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I turned my eyes to Ryan's paper without anyone noticing me.

Finally, I decided not to cheat.

高二英语试题参考答案及评分标准

第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 CBABC 6-10 CABCB 11-15 BAACC 16-20 CAABC
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21-23 BCA 24-27 BDAC 28-31 CADB 32-35 CBDA
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36-40 GBFEA
第三部分 英语运用（共三节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 ABDCA        46-50 BDCDA      51-55 BBDAC
第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分））
56. deserves 57. employers 58. remarkable 59. literally 60. blame
第三节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
61. day in and day out 62. throw new light on 63. Thanks to
64. adapted to 65. beyond everyone’s expectations
第三部分 写作（满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
（一）评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按6个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差，以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
（二）各档次的给分范围和要求
第六档（13—15分）：完全完成了试题规定的任务，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
——覆盖所有内容要点。
——应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
——有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第五档（10—12分）：完全完成了试题规定的任务，达到了预期的写作目的。
——虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
——应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第四档（7—9分）：基本完成了试题规定的任务，整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
——应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第三档（4—6分）：未恰当完成试题规定的任务，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
第二档（1—3分）：未完成试题规定的任务，信息未能传达给读者。
——明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
——语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
第一档（0分）
——未能传达给读者任何信息。内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
（三）参考答案
An Unforgettable Experience
On Double Ninth Day, my classmates and I worked as volunteers at the nearby health care center, which really means a lot to us youngsters.
Fully prepared, we went to different posts and started our work. Some spent time chatting with the elderly, some were busy cleaning up, and others made dumplings together. After lunch, we put on performances for the elderly, and they were delighted for what we had done.
Through the volunteer activities, not only can I understand the elderly better, but also I can improve the sense of responsibility for caring about them.

第二节（满分25分）
（一）评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分，按七个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑。
（1）续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度；
（2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于80的，酌情扣分；
（2）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分；
（3）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（二）各档次的给分范围和要求
第一档（0分）
——未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
第二档（1—5分）
——内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节；
——所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解；
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
第三档（6—10分）
——内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节；
——所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解；
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第四档（11—14分）
——创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关；
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解；
——尚有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第五档（15—17分）
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关；
——使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解；
——使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第六档（18—21分）
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；
——使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解；
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第七档（22—25分）
——创造了新颖、丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
——使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解；
——自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
参考答案（不作为评分答案标准，仅供参考）
One possible version:
I turned my eyes to Ryan’s paper without anyone noticing me. There it was, spelled out in Ryan’s poor handwriting. My eyes went quickly back to my own paper, and I changed the letters “e-i-f to the letters “i-e-f”. I remained nervous as Mrs. Brown mouthed the last spelling words. My stomach was painful, and my mind was racing. I had just cheated for the first time in my life. Was this the way I kept my perfect record? By being a cheater?
Finally, I decided not to cheat. I picked up my eraser just as Mrs. Brown asked us to hand our papers to her. Quickly, I erased what I had written down earlier and changed it to what I knew was the wrong word. As my sweaty hand released my pencil, I breathed a sigh of relief. I held my head high as I handed my less-than-perfect paper to Mrs. Brown. What if my mark would be not as good as before？At least my honesty was.


附：听力原文
Text 1
M: I got a D? I don’t understand. I studied for four hours last night, (1) and three hours the night before. What about you?
W: I only studied for one hour, but I got an A.
Text 2
M: I’ll take a large bucket of popcorn, a Diet Coke, and a root beer, please.
W: We’re out of Diet Coke, but I can give you a regular Coke instead. (2)
Text 3
M: I thought that maybe we could go there for lunch today. That is, if you haven’t promised to do that with someone else…
W: That would be wonderful, Joe. But I have to finish these emails first. (3)
Text 4
M: I haven’t gotten my scores on the test yet. Do you think I should call to ask what’s going on?
W: There is no hurry. The test scores are to be known at least two weeks after the test. (4)
Text 5
W: Keith, I was surprised to hear that you used to live in Finland.
M: Yeah, I lived on a small farm there. There’s a little place called Kalhaba. And I was teaching basketball in a middle school. (5)
Text 6
W: Are you new, too?
M: Yes, my family just moved here from Alaska. (6) What class do you have next? (7)
W: English with Mrs. Miller. (7) Then I have World History. How about you?
M: Science with Mr. Smith. Do you know where his classroom is?
W: It’s just down the hall. How do you like California?
M: I like it a lot. What about you?
W: I lived in Oregon when I was little, so I’m used to West Coast winters.
Text 7
M: Joan, why are you late today? Wow! Your coat is very dirty! Did you fall?
W: Yes, I had a terrible experience on the subway. Listen to this! A man came up to me and pulled out a knife. He pointed it right at me. (8)
M: Oh, no! Did he hurt you?
W: No, he didn’t hurt me, but he took my handbag.
M: Then what did you do?
W: I caught hold of his knife, and he pushed me to the floor. (8)
M: Oh, no! Did the other passengers help you?
W: Yes, they did. Two men ran after the guy and caught him.
M: Good job! (9)
Text 8
M: Now, Mrs. Franks, I’d just like to read your words back to you, and then you can write your name on it.
W: Fine.
M: I was standing in front of the Second National Bank building at about 8:50 a.m. (11) I saw a small red car heading for the crossroads of Churchill Avenue and York Road. It was coming towards me along Churchill Avenue at about 40 miles per hour. The traffic lights on York Road had changed to green, and a big truck began to move forward at about five miles per hour. The driver of the car probably didn’t see that his traffic light had changed from yellow to red, and ran into the side of the truck. (12)
W: Oh, dear!
Text 9
M: Do you like your new job?
W: I love it! The office has free snacks, (13) and we have group yoga every afternoon. We use an empty office room as a yoga classroom.
M: Great! I work from home, (14) so I have to buy my own snacks. I do get to make my own hours, though.
W: I have to get into the office by 8:00 a.m. I like to sleep in, so it’s hard to get up. I always take a taxi to work because I don’t ever have enough time to walk. (15)
M: Why don’t you drive?
W: I don’t have a car.
M: Do you like your co-workers?
W: I have trouble with a few of them, but I like the rest.
M: Where is your office? (16) We could get lunch together sometime.
W: It’s on Park Avenue. (16) Where do you live?
M: On Main Street. That’s pretty close to Park Avenue.
W: It is. We can meet up on Green Road. That’s right in between us.
Text 10
Good evening, this is Ben Williams with the 7 o’clock weather report. We’ve been experiencing some light rainstorms this past week, but they’re about to get stronger tonight. Expect thunder, lightning, and high winds, with temperatures in the low fifties. The storm will hopefully end by Wednesday night. (17) We should wake up to blue skies on Thursday morning, and if all goes well, the weather will be clear for the holiday weekend. The storm on Thanksgiving was certainly enough to frighten everyone into staying inside, but we should be free of bad weather for Christmas. Friday will bring temperatures in the low seventies, and we should see the high seventies in most areas on Saturday, (18) which is Christmas day. (19) The weather should stay nice right on into New Year’s. Please be safe out there on New Year’s Eve. Drive carefully and try to avoid driving after midnight. (20) There will be police all over town, so don’t even think about drinking and driving. That’s all for the weather report. Goodnight.