湖南省湘潭市初中学校2025_2026年上学期期未考试八年级英语学科试题卷（文字版，含答案）

这是一份湖南省湘潭市初中学校2025_2026年上学期期未考试八年级英语学科试题卷（文字版，含答案），共10页。
时量:1000分钟 满分:100分
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
1. What did Millie d every day last year?
A. She danced.B. She ran.C. She swam.
2. Where will the by g this summer hliday?
A. T Changsha.B. T Qingda.C. T Beijing.
3. What is the wman ding?
A. Driving a taxi.
B. Ordering a meal.
C. Making a phne call.
4. Hw ld is Steve's mther?
A. 39.B. 40.C. 41.
5. Why was Ben angry?
A. Because Jeff brke his glasses.
B. Because Jeff lst his bk.
C. Because Jeff brke his cup.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答6-7小题。
6. Where are the speakers?
A. In a hspital.B. In a restaurant.C. In a cinema.
7. What will Mike drink?
A. Milk.B. Cffee.C. Juice.
听第7段材料，回答8-9小题。
8. Hw was Tny's weekend?
A. Great.B. Busy.C. Bring.
9. What did Tny d n Sunday?
A. He studied at hme.
B. He played sccer.
C. He went the z.
听第8段材料，回答10-11小题。
10. What des Rachel lk like?
A. She is shrt and thin.B. She is tall and thin.C. She is f medium height.
11. What is Mrs. Burt's phne number?
A. 281 - 9176.B. 371 - 1697.C. 821 - 1798.
听第9段材料，回答12 - 14小题。
12. What time is it nw?
A. 6 p.m.B. 7 p.m.C. 8 p.m.
13. What is the wman's favrite fd?
A. Thai fd.B. Chinese fd.C. American fd.
14. Hw are the speakers ging t the place?
A. Take a car.B. Take a bat.C. Walk.
听第10段材料，回答15 - 17小题。
15. What day is it tday?
A. Saturday.B. Thursday.C. Tuesday.
16. Where is Brian?
A. In the library.B. At hme.C. In the park.
17. What des Ben ften d?
A. Meet friends.B. Play basketball.C. Read bks.
听第11段材料，回答18 - 20小题。
18. What des the speaker always d in the park?
A. He ges fishing.B. He plays sccer.C. He ges swimming.
19. Where is the speaker's favrite restaurant?
A. On Center Street.B. On Park Rad.C. On Main Street.
20. What is the speaker's huse like?
A. Crwded.B. Clrful.C. Tidy.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共11小题，每小题2分，满分22分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
The students in Class 2, Grade 8 did a survey abut their summer hliday activities. Here is the result.
21. What percentage f the students like traveling with family?
A. 10%.B. 20%.C. 30%.
22. Which activity is the mst ppular in Class 2, Grade 8?
A. Ding sprts.B. Traveling with family.C. Reading bks at hme
23. Why d the students like swimming best in summer?
A. Because it is easy t learn.
B. Because it can make them cl
C. Because it can make them famus.
B
The blue whale is the largest animal that has ever lived n Earth. It is even bigger than the biggest dinsaurs. An adult blue whale can be 30 meters lng and weigh 150 tns—that's as heavy as 30 elephants.
Blue whales live in ceans all ver the wrld, except the Arctic Ocean. They swim in grups and cmmunicate with each ther using lw sunds. These sunds can travel thusands f kilmeters under water.
Unlike many ther whales, blue whales eat very small sea animals—krill. They can eat up t 4 tns f krill in ne day. Mther blue whales feed their babies with milk, just like land animals.
Blue whales are amazing, but they are in danger. There are nt many left in the wrld. We must prtect them and their hme in the cean.
24. Hw heavy can an adult blue whale be?
A. 30 tns.B. 150 tns.C. 130 tns.
25. Where d blue whales NOT live?
A. In the Pacific Ocean.
B. In the Arctic Ocean.
C. In the Atlantic Ocean
26. What d blue whales eat?
A. Dinsaurs.B. Small fish.C. Krill.
27. Why must we prtect blue whales?
A. They are t big.
B. They are in danger.
C. They eat t much.
C
①Friends, the year 2050 is abut 25 years away frm tday, and tday every persn wants t knw abut ur future. Althugh n ne knws what is ging t happen, we can predict that.
②By 2050, there will be at least 9 billin peple in the wrld. And abut 75% f the wrld's peple will be living in cities. Then there will be buildings tuching the sky. Rads will be up t several flrs.
③In the future, we will be using mre technlgy devices (设备) than we d tday, and cmputers will be many times faster than tday. Self - flying cars will cme in 2050, s there wn't be s many cars n the rad. And self - driving cars will cme, t. Nw, self - driving trains are running in many rich cuntries. In this way, in the future, self - driving cars can make their place in
sme rich areas. What's mre, by 2050, 50% f jbs will als be lst because rbts will be ding mst f the wrk at that time.
④In 2950, peple wuld like t spend their hlidays n the Mn and Mars (火星), nt in freign cuntries. At that time, the Mn and Mars will be just like the Earth, with trees and plants. Abut this, NASA and many space cmpanies (公司) are wrking n it.
⑤In 2050, schls will be very different frm nw. Children will nt have heavy bags n their backs. They will have cmputers in their hands. And at that time, blackbards will als be tuch screens, s the teacher can draw any picture withut using any chalk (粉笔).
⑥It is said that by 2050, we will be able t find aliens (外星人) and their planets. And the wrld will nt end because at that time peple f many cuntries will prtect themselves befre the aliens cme.
28. By 2050, hw many peple will there be at least in the wrld?
A. Abut 9 billin.B. Abut 6.75 billin.C. Abut 7.5 billin.
29. Where wuld peple like t spend their hlidays in 2050?
A. On the Mn and Mars.
B. In freign cuntries.
C. In China.
30. What is the best title fr this passage?
A. Hw can peple live a better life?
B. What can peple d fr the nice life in 2050?
C. What will the wrld f 2050 be like?
31. What's the best structure f this passage?
第二节 (共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Are yu gd at cking? Cking is mre than just putting ingredients int a pt. It needs yu t learn certain skills, which can help yu make delicius dishes.
32
Yu can't make a nice meal withut gd ingredients. When shpping fr fd, be sure t pick fresh vegetables and meat. Then give them a gd wash befre cking.
33
When yu ck, yu use pts, spns, plates and s n. Put these things next t yu. It's a gd habit t prepare all the things well befre yu start cking.
Think f the clurs
An enjyable meal must lk gd. Fr example, red tmates g with yellw eggs and
white ndles g with green vegetables. Yur meal is nt nly fd t eat, but als a wrk f art t enjy.
_____
Adding seasning is the easiest way t imprve the taste f yur dish. If yu're nt sure hw much t add, just put a little and then taste. Add a little mre and taste, until it is just right.
_____ 35 _____
Like many ther things, yu can be gd at cking by making meals mre ften. S prepare a dinner fr yur parents at the weekend r n special hlidays. It's a nice way t shw yur lve and imprve yur cking skills.
A. D a lt f practice
B. Think f the price
C. Use gd ingredients
D. Get all yur things ready
E. Add the seasning (调味品) carefully
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
"Mary, d yu remember what day it is tmrrw?" asked Susan.
"It's mummy's birthday!" cried Mary. "What are we ging t give her as a 36 ?"
That was the prblem. They culdn't think f anything t d. Maybe they culd buy her sme flwers r make her a birthday card. But that wasn't 37 enugh fr mummy!
Bth girls wndered hw they culd make mummy's birthday an extra surprise. They asked dad fr help. After an hur f discussing with dad, the girls ndded t each ther. They finally had a 38 !
Next mrning dad 39 the girls very early, even befre the sun had risen prperly. Quickly and quietly, the three f them started t wrk. Dad and Susan blew up ballns—red, yellw, green, blue, and Mary 40 them all arund. Sn the rm was lking very 41 indeed.
Then they gt int the 42 . "Let's make breakfast!" Dad began giving advice in a lw vice. Susan and Mary did as dad said. 43 the children made the breakfast ready. There were sandwiches, a fruit salad, a glass full f 44 range juice and anther full f warm milk.
Mummy came ut f her rm. The girls rushed t her and hugged (拥抱) her. "Happy birthday!"
"What a wnderful 45 !" cried mummy, lking at the ballns and the breakfast table.
It was the best breakfast mummy had ever eaten.
36.A. slutinB. prmiseC. gift
37.A. expensiveB. simpleC. special
38.A. planB. dreamC. chance
39.A. wke upB. made upC. lked after
40.A. brkeB. bughtC. hung
41.A. cleanB. emptyC. beautiful
42.A. gardenB. bedrmC. kitchen
43.A. QuietlyB. CarelesslC. Suddenly
44.A. freeB. freshC. strange
45.A. cardB. jkeC. surprise
第二节 选词填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
slve if advice carefully certain angry mistake t trust experience
Dear David,
I'm glad t hear frm yu. Thank yu fr 46 me and sharing yur prblem with me. I'm srry t hear that yu didn't d well in yur maths exam last term because yu made many careless 47 . As a result, yur parents gt very 48 and sclded (训斥) yu. Yu 49 felt upset. In fact, I had the same 50 as yu when I was in primary schl. I nce did badly in my English exam and my parents sclded me t. They even warned (警告) me that they wuldn't let me g ut t play 51 I culdn't d well in the next exam. At that time, I really didn't knw what t d, s I went t ask my English teacher fr 52 . She asked me t have a talk with my parents and prmise that I wuld wrk hard and be 53 in the next exam. I did as my English teacher tld me.
54 my surprise, my parents were understanding. Why dn't yu try and d as I did? I'm sure yur parents will be thankful that yu talked with them. I hpe the advice will help yu t 55 yur prblem as sn as pssible. I'm lking frward t yur gd news.
Yurs,
Mike
第四部分 综合技能（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 （共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题或翻译划线部分。
As we all knw, it's imprtant t have gd friends and get n well with ur friends. Why are friends s imprtant t us? There are many reasns, and I think the mst imprtant ne is that friends can make ur wrld mre and mre clrful. When we are happy, they will share ur happiness; when we are dwn (沮丧), they will always cheer us up; when we are in truble, they will always be ready t help us ut.
I have a friend like this. Her name is Amma. She is mre utging than me. She can get n well with everyne. She shares everything with me. As fr hbbies, we bth like studying cmputer science. Last week, she wn a prize in a cmputer cmpetitin. I was really happy fr her and really prud f her. In study, we usually help each ther and learn frm each ther. I am weak in math. She ften helps me with math. Thanks t her help, I made great prgress in the final math exam.
Friends are like mirrrs and they can light up ur life. My friends are very imprtant t me and I can't live withut them.
56. Wh are imprtant t us accrding t the passage?
________________________________________
57. What will friends d when we are in truble?
________________________________________
58. What's Amma's hbby?
________________________________________
59. Which subject is the writer weak in?
________________________________________
60. 将短文中画线部分翻译成中文。
________________________________________
第二节（满分15分）
亲爱的同学们，寒假将至，你将怎样度过一个充实而有意义的寒假？请根据以下表格中所给的提示，用英语写一篇短文，简要介绍一下你的寒假计划（Winter Vacatin Plans）。
要求：1)文章必须包含表格中所有要点提示，并适当发挥。
2)词数80左右(文章开头已给出，不计入总词数)
3)文中不能出现真实的校名和姓名等。
试卷答案
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
1. 无音频，无法作答。
2. 无音频，无法作答。
3. 无音频，无法作答。
4. 无音频，无法作答。
5. 无音频，无法作答。
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
6. 无音频，无法作答。
7. 无音频，无法作答。
8. 无音频，无法作答。
9. 无音频，无法作答。
10. 无音频，无法作答。
11. 无音频，无法作答。
12. 无音频，无法作答。
13. 无音频，无法作答。
14. 无音频，无法作答。
15. 无音频，无法作答。
16. 无音频，无法作答。
17. 无音频，无法作答。
18. 无音频，无法作答。
19. 无音频，无法作答。
20. 无音频，无法作答。
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共11小题，每小题2分，满分22分）
21. C（根据图表中“Travel with Family (30%)”可知，30%的学生喜欢和家人一起旅行，2分）
22. A（图表中“Ding Sprts (40%)”占比最大，所以做运动最受欢迎，2分）
23. B(文中“Swimming is their favrite because it can make them cl in ht summer.”表明原因，2分)
24. B(文中“An adult blue whale can be 30 meters lng and weigh 150 tns”可知重量，2分)
25. B（文中“Blue whales live in ceans all ver the wrld, except the Arctic Ocean.”说明不在北冰洋生活，2分）
26. C（文中“blue whales eat very small sea animals—krill.”表明食物，2分）
27. B(文中 “Blue whales are amazing, but they are in danger. We must prtect them” 说明原因，2分)
28. A(文中 “By 2050, there will be at least 9 billin peple in the wrld.” 可知人数，2分)
29. A(文中 “In 2050, peple wuld like t spend their hlidays n the Mn and Mars” 表明地点，2分)
30. C（文章围绕2050年世界的样子展开，C选项符合，2分）
31. B（文章是总分结构，第一段总述，后面分述，B选项符合，2分）
第二节（共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分）
32. C（根据后文 “Yu can't make a nice meal withut gd ingredients.” 可知是使用好的食材，2分）
33. D（根据后文 “When yu ck, yu use pts, spns, plates and s n. Put these things next t yu.” 可知是准备好所有东西，2分）
34. E（根据后文 “Addine seasning is the easiest way t imprve the tast f yur dish.” 可知是小心添加调味品，2分）
35. A（根据后文 “Like many ther things, yu can be gd at cking by making meals mre ften.” 可知是多练习，2分）
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
36. C（根据 “it's mummy's birthday” 可知是礼物，1.5分）
37. C（根据 “make mummy's birthday an extra surprise” 可知送花或做卡片不够特别，1.5分）
38. A（根据上下文可知她们有了一个计划，1.5分）
39. A（根据 “even befre the sun had risen prperly” 可知爸爸叫醒她们，1.5分）
40. C（根据 “ballns” 可知是把气球挂起来，1.5分）
41. C（根据 “ballns” 可知房间看起来很漂亮，1.5分）
42. C（根据 “Let's make breakfast!” 可知是去厨房，1.5分）
43. A（根据 “Dad began giving advice in a lw vice.” 可知孩子们安静地做早餐，1.5分）
44. B（根据 “range juice” 可知是新鲜的橙汁，1.5分）
45. C（根据 “lking at the ballns and the breakfast table” 可知是惊喜，1.5分）
第二节 选词填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
46. trusting（“Thank yu fr ding sth.”，“trust” 意为 “信任”，1分）
47. mistakes（“many” 后接名词复数，“mistake” 意为 “错误”，1分）
48. angry（“gt” 后接形容词，“angry” 意为 “生气的”，1分）
49. certainly（修饰动词 “felt”，“certainly” 意为 “当然”，1分）
50. experience（“the same” 后接名词，“experience” 意为 “经历”，1分）
51. if（“if” 引导条件状语从句，意为 “如果”，1分）
52. advice（“ask fr advice” 意为 “寻求建议”，1分）
53. certain（“be certain” 意为 “确定”，1分）
54. T（“t ne's surprise”意为“令某人惊讶的是”，1分）
55. slve（“help sb. d sth.”，“slve”意为“解决”，1分）
第四部分 综合技能（共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
56. Friends.（根据文中“Why are friends s imprtant t us?”可知朋友重要，2分）
57. They will always be ready t help us ut.(根据文中“when we are in truble, they will always be ready t help us ut.”可知，2分)
58. Studying cmputer science.(根据文中“As fr hbbies, we bth like studying cmputer science.”可知，2分)
59. Math.（根据文中“I am weak in math.”可知，2分）
60. 朋友就像镜子，它们能照亮我的生活。（2分）
第二节（满分15分）
以下是一篇示例作文：
Winter Vacatin Plans
The winter vacatin is cming. I have a great plan. First, I will read sme interesting bks and d my hmewrk carefully. Reading can pen my mind and hmewrk is my duty. Then, I will take exercise every day t keep healthy. Running and playing basketball are my favrite sprts. Next, I will get tgether with my friends and visit my relatives. It's a gd time t share happiness and shw lve. Als, I will help my parents d husewrk. I can make sme delicius fd fr them. I believe I will have a wnderful winter vacatin.(内容涵盖表格要点，语言表达流畅，逻辑清晰，15分)