2025年安徽省滁州市全椒县中考三模英语试题（中考模拟）

这是一份2025年安徽省滁州市全椒县中考三模英语试题（中考模拟），共13页。

注意事项： 中考名师直播
三年中考真题1.本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。英语听力音频
2.全卷包括“试题卷”(12页)和“答题卷”(2页)两部分。 *配套参考答案
3.请务必在“答题卷”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4.考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题，满分20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What time is it nw?
2. What are the speakers ging t d n the weekend?
3. What des the wman think abut the bk?
A. Interesting. B. Difficult. C. Helpful.
4. Hw will the man g t schl tday?
A. On ft. B. By car. C. By bike.
5. Hw des Brett feel abut tmrrw's match?
A. Cnfident. B. Excited. C. Wrried.

Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。
6. Which sprt will the man take part in?
A. The running race. B. The lng jump. C. The high jump.
7. What will the speakers mst prbably d next?
A. D sprts. B. G t the library. C. Watch a match.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。
8. What des the man's father d?
A. A player. B. A teacher. C. A dctr.
9. What des the wman advise the man t d?
A. T talk with his parents.
B. T ask Ms Tang fr help.
C. T fllw his parents' advice.
10. What's the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Brther and sister. C. Teacher and student.
Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. Hw did Li Mei g t Singapre?
A. By bus. B. By plane. C. By train.
12. What did Li Mei think f the jurney?
A. Bring. B. Tiring. C. Exciting.
13. When did Li Mei arrive at the camp?
A. In the mrning. B. In the evening. C. At night.
14. Hw did Li Mei feel at first?
A. Surprised. B. Happy. C. Lnely.
15. What des the speaker mainly tell us?
A. An experience at a summer camp.
B. A stry frm a freign camper.
C. A skill f making friends.

Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Making friends with a teacher
第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题，满分35分)
V.单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. Everybdy has gt a lt in the past three years. It's a(n) fr yur hard wrk.
A. wrd B. prize C. pht D. interest
22. Mrs Smith is a mther. She desn't allw her children t surf the Internet r watch TV n weekdays.
A. strict B. helpful C. careful D. patient
23.— Lucy's birthday is cming. Hw can we it fr her?
— What abut having a surprise party fr her?
A. change B. discuss C. explain D. celebrate
24.— What d yu think we need t d after an accident?
—— We’ d better the cause f the accident s that we can stp it frm happening again.
A. make up B. try ut C. find ut D. give up
25.—I fund in the rm. Where have they gne?
— Oh, they have gne t the sprts hall.
A. smebdy B. nbdy C. anybdy D. everybdy
26.— Dn't make s much nise. Grandma .
—OK, n prblem.
A. sleeps B. will sleep C. is sleeping D. was sleeping
27. It was raining and the driver culd hardly see peple r cars n the rad.
A. suddenly B. prbably C. heavily D. slwly
28. I didn't understand my teacher's great lve I became a teacher myself.
A. if B. until C. since D. because
29. Five mre clubs next week t make ur schl life rich and clrful.
A. set up B. are set up C. will be set up D. were set up
30.— Wuld yu mind my turning up the TV? The New Year cncert has just begun. . Yur sister is ding her hmewrk nw.
A. Better nt B. Nice idea C. Nt at all D. Of curse yu can
Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Shps in Sweden are shutting dwn ne after anther in recent years. In a village called Veckhlm, the 31 shp clsed dwn mre than ten years ag. The nearest supermarket is a half-hur drive away, but the villagers have n 32 but t g there.
Last July, a self-service stre 33 in the village. The idea came frm DanielLundh. The 20-square-meter 34 is pen 24 hurs a day, but there are n shp assistants(店员). 35 can buy things thrugh an app n their phnes.
“It's a great 36 fr us in ur daily life,” said Giulia Ray, ne f the lcals inVeckhlm. “We’ re 37 t be able t shp here.”
“We cme here every few days and buy what we need,” said Lucas Edman, an engineer wh wrks in Veckhlm. “It's a little 38 , but it's kay. It's a price I can accept, and it 39 me a trip t anther place.”
In just three years, Daniel has 40 nearly 30 self-service stres in Sweden. He als plans t pen sme stres f this kind abrad sn.
31. A. first B. far C. rich D. last
32. A. chice B. hpe C. pain D. regret

33. A. remained B. appeared C. happened D. spread
34. A. restaurant B. museum C. stre D. farm
35. A. Visitrs B. Plicemen C. Wrkers D. Custmers
36. A. rest B. cnvenience C. need D. mvement
37. A. lucky B. safe C. angry D. silly
38. A. cheap B. quiet C. expensive D. lud
39. A. shws B. saves C. wins D. brings
40. A. tk dwn B. tidied up C. clsed dwn D. set up
B
There's a special way t share reading: read it ut lud.
An rganizatin called LitWrld 41 Wrld Read Alud Day (WRAD) mre than ten years ag. WRAD is held n the first Wednesday in February. On that day,millins f peple arund the wrld read 42 t celebrate it.
This year, Karisa 43 WRAD with her furth graders. “My 44 read ut their favrite picture bks in class,” she said. The class made a vide call with Swansn, the famus children's 45 . Swansn said, “I read my picture bk Ftprints Acrss the Planet. It was s much fun 46 the bk. We talked abut hw everything 47 ur planet.”
Anther writer, Elly Swartz, als visited many classrms nline. An eighth grader named Maya was very 48 because she met her favrite writer!
Pam Allyn, funder f LitWrld, said, “I want peple t knw hw 49 reading alud is,” she said. “It helps imprve many 50 skills, such as listening and writing.The kids get jy ut f the experience.”
41. A. shwed B. changed C. created D. prtected
42. A. alne B. alud C. quietly D. carefully
43. A. tested B. discvered C. described D. celebrated
44. A. students B. caches C. parents D. friends
45. A. dctr B. artist C. writer D. traveller
46. A. printing B. selling C. cllecting D. sharing
47. A. influences B.cmpares C. repairs D. interests
48. A. humrus B. excited C. lnely D. serius

49. A. strange B. crazy C. difficult D. imprtant
50. A. research B. language C. life D. service
Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hey, Li Ming. The summer hliday is just arund the crner. 51
B: Yes. I' ll g t attend a science and technlgy summer camp in Xuancheng with my cusins.
A: 52
B: Sure. Where are ging fr the hliday, Wang Peng?
A: Yeah, my parents will take my sister and me t Shanghai fr a trip.
B: Shanghai? 53
A: Yes, it is. It is full f fun. 54
B: Hw lng will yu stay there?
A: Fr a week. My aunt wrks in Shanghai and we will stay in her hme.
B: 55
A: Thank yu, Li Ming.
A. Have a gd trip!
B. That sunds exciting.
C. D yu have any plans?
D. I' ve never heard abut it.
E. Is it a wnderful place?
F. Wh are yu ging there with?
G. I' ve been dreaming f ging there fr a lng time.
第三部分 阅读(共两节，满分40分)
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)
第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Smetimes, the wrld can be a little dangerus. If yu dn't knw hw t tea yur children abut safety, yu can read these strybks t them.
Oscar and the Bird
Like yur kids, Oscar, a cat has a lt f prblems. Luckily, Bird knws the answer! The bk has beautiful pictures and tells children t use electricity(电) safely.This stry can als get children interested in science.
Nt Everyne Is Nice
After schl, Kathy is waiting fr her mther when a strange car cmes alng. A man smiles and ffers t drive her hme. Kathy is just abut t walk t the car when her mther arrives... This bk teaches children that being kind des nt mean being safe.
N Dragns fr Tea
When a friendly dragn attends a tea party, it accidentally kncks ver a candle and the clth n the table catches fire. Frtunately, a clever little girl knws what t d.Frm this stry, readers will knw what we shuld d in a fire.
Lk Left, Lk Right, Lk Left Again
Wally Waddlewater wants t send a birthday card t his grandma. But t get t the pst ffice, he has t crss several busy streets. Wally Waddlewater tells us hw t crss the street safely.
56. Which bk tells us hw t crss busy streets?
A. Oscar and the Bird.
B. Nt Everyne Is Nice.
C. N Dragns fr Tea.
D. Lk Left, Lk Right, Lk Left Again.
57. What causes a fire in N Dragns fr Tea?
A. A cat. B. A table. C. A candle. D. A girl.
58. What are the fur bks mainly abut?
A. Staying safe.B. Making friends.C. Asking the way. D. Studying science.
B
Bill Lsass is a helpful man. Thirteen years ag, he started the Flrida DreamCenter t help the pr. Every week, he dnated abut 25,000 punds f fd t thse in need.
Bill had a birthday wish. He hped that n his birthday he culd drive an ice cream truck all day, gIvIng ut ice cream everywhere, s that mre peple culd share the happiness with him. His wish came true n his birthday this year. On Saturday, his daughter surprised him by renting(租)a“Krazy Ice Cream” truck and giving it t her father.

On that day, peple f all ages culd get a free ice cream frm the truck. Bill said,“It is a really special birthday present and I'm happy t be able t share my happiness with my friends.”
Bill's kindness tuched many peple. A man named Rashn tld a lcal televisin statin, “Life is hard right nw and the little thing he did meant a lt t us.” An elderly man named Melvin Hillman saw what Bill did and said, “That was great. Thank yu,Bill, fr letting me be a part f this. With mre peple like him in the wrld, I think ur wrld wuld be a better place.”
59. Which wrd best describes Bill Lsass?
A. Funny. B. Plite. C. Cnfident. D. Kind-hearted.
60. Hw did Bill get the“Krazy Ice Cream” truck?
A. Rashn rented it t him.
B. Melvin bught it fr him.
C. He gt it frm his daughter.
D. His friends gave him as a birthday gift.
61. Hw did Melvin feel that day?
A. Curius. B. Thankful. C. Surprised. D. Wrried.
62. What is the best title fr this text?
A. The Hard Time in Bill's Life
B. The Way Bill Makes the Truck Famus
C. Bill's Birthday Party
D. A Special Birthday Gift fr Bill
C
Srikanth is a farmer in a village in India. A few weeks ag, a grup f mnkeys came t the area. They ate cffee beans n Srikanth's farm and messed up his farm.Srikanth tried t drive the mnkeys away.
Srikanth kept a statue(雕塑) f a tiger at the farm gate. That was where the mnkeys came in. At first, the mnkeys were a little afraid, s his idea seemed t wrk. Hwever, as the clr f the statue began t fade(褪去), the mnkeys grew embldened and returned.
Then he had an idea. He tk sme paints and painted black lines n his pet dg,Bulbul. Bulbul was brwn, s it lked like a tiger frm far away. Srikanth tk the dg t his cffee bean field every mrning and evening. He said, “I saw the mnkeys running away when they saw Bulbul. My farm is safe again.”

Srikanth's idea wrked s well that ther farmers began t learn frm him.Farmers n lnger wrried abut their crps being eaten by mnkeys, because there were cute“tigers” in their fields. Unlike tigers, they didn't rar(吼叫). Smetimes they ran after the mnkeys t drive them.
Srikanth said the black lines wuld lse mst f the clr in a mnth. He'd repaint the dg. Because he thught it was a gd way fr peple and animals t live in harmny.
63. Why did the mnkeys return sn?
A. Because the statue culdn't mve.
B. Because the statue was t small.
C. Because the statue lst much f the clur.
D. Because the mnkeys pulled dwn the statue.
64. What des the underlined wrd“embldened” mean?
A. Interesting. B. Brave. C. Strange. D. Simple.
65. Hw did Srikanth make his idea wrk in a lng run?
A. By repainting the dg.
B. By killing sme mnkeys.
C. By living with ther farmers in harmny.
D. By asking the farmers help each ther.
D
If yu live in the Caribbean r the suthern United States, did yu ntice any dust(沙尘) in the air during the last mnth? If s, yu've experienced a“Gdzilla dust clud”. Late last mnth, a huge dust clud reached the Caribbean and the Gulf Cast. It came frm as far away as Africa. Scientists believe it is the largest and thickest dust clud in at least 50 years.
Every year, a layer(层) f very dry, dusty air frms ver the dry desert area f the Sahara in Africa. It is called the Saharan Air Layer(SAL). It crsses the Atlantic every three t five days between late spring and early fall. It usually increases in activity frm late June t mid-August.
The dust clud last mnth was really huge. It blew 5,000 miles acrss the Atlantic Ocean. It was much thicker than usual and it was lwer t the grund. The cluds turned the sky milk-white. Peple culdn't see as far as they used t. This als caused prblems fr flights.
Dust cluds are harmful t peple's health. Scientists advise peple t stay at hme. But nt everything abut dust cluds is bad. They reflect(反射) sunlight back int the sky. This helps keep the summer cl.
66. Where did the“Gdzilla dust clud” cme frm?
A. The suth f the US. B. The Caribbean.
C. Africa. D. The Gulf Cast.
67. When may the Saharan Air Layer becme the mst serius?
A. Frm March t May. B. Frm April t July.
C. Frm June t August. D. Frm July t Nvember.
68. What d we knw abut last mnth's dust clud?
A. It caused n air pllutin.
B. It was higher in the sky.
C. It brught incnvenience t peple's travel.
D. It was thinner but cvered 5,000 square miles.
69. In which part f a website can we prbably find the text?
A. Weather. B. Travel. C. Health. D. Sprts.
E
Kha Yai Natinal Park is ne f the best natinal parks in Thailand. Set up in1962, it is als the ldest natinal park in the cuntry. There are all kinds f birds,plants and wild animals there. Many turists g there every year.
Hwever, the turists als bring prblems. In fact, littering is a serius prblem in the park.
The park was tired f littering, s the fficials came up with an idea t teach visitrs a lessn. They decided t return all the rubbish t the turists wh had left it.
It happened after Thailand's envirnment minister (部长) psted sme phts nline. His pictures shwed sme water bttles and fd bags, alng with a nte that read, “Yu left these in Kha Yai Natinal Park. We' ll send them back t yu‘as a suvenir(纪念品)’.”
Yu may be wndering hw the park knws where t send litter? The answer is simple. When visitrs came t the park, they registered(登记) their persnal infrmatin, such as their names, phne numbers and hme addresses. S it was easy t find sme litterers by checking it.
The park fficials have als made ther effrts, fr example, putting up ntices t tell thse visitrs wh d nt fllw the rules culd be seriusly punished. After these steps were taken, the envirnment in the park has been greatly imprved in recent years.
70. What prblem des Kha Yai Natinal Park face?
A. It is ut f repair fr lng. B. It has fewer turists.
C. It suffers frm littering. D. It has t many wild birds.

71. What did the park fficials decide t d t slve the prblem?
A. Put phts f littering nline.
B. Talk with peple wh left the litter.
C. Ask visitrs t pick up the litter in the park.
D. Send the litter back t peple wh left it.
72. What des the underlined wrd“it” refer t(指的是)?
A. The litter. B. The answer. C. The suvenir. D. The infrmatin.
第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
F
Once upn a time, there was a tiger named Kamau. Kamau lst a leg, s he was unable t walk very well.
One fine mrning, Kamau saw a parrt(鹦鹉) in a tree that had lst ne f her wings.
“Hell! My name is Jelani,” the parrt first said hell t Kamau.
“I'm Kamau,” Kamau said.
“D yu knw what‘Kamau’ means?” Jelant asked. Kamau was sad after hearing the questin. He answered, “My name means ‘Quiet fighter’. But the name des nt fit me, fr nw I cannt be called a fighter.”
“D yu knw what my name means? It means‘strng’. As yu can see, my bdy isn't fit fr it, either. But I still dream f flying freely,” Jelani said. “Smetimes yu just have t let g f what yu dn't have and create a future with what yu d have.Dn't be sad! There is still a gd life ahead.”
Jelant's wrds tuched Kamau. He regained his self-cnfidence. A year later,Kamau became a father f three children. He tried t prtect them frm any harm. The family lived a happy life. He hped t teach his children what he learned frm Jelani.“Children, the meaning f life is nt nly t create the future with strng physical strength. It's mre abut yur mind and yur will. When yur mind is sunny, yur life will be sunny,” Kamau said.
73. What was wrng with Jelani?(不超过10个词)

74. What was Jelani's dream?(不超过5个词)


75. What lessn can we learn frm the stry?(不超过10个词)

第四部分 写(共两大题，满分25分)
IX.单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. Philip brke Ms Green's glasses, but she wasn't m (生气的) at hum.
77. Emily was lucky enugh t find a s (座位) n the undergrund during the mrning rush hur.
78. I'd like a secnd pinin befre I make a d (决定).
79. My brken mdel plane was f (修) by my grandpa just nw.
80. I left in such a hurry that I f (忘记) t turn ff the TV.
X.书面表达(共1小题；满分20分)
假如你是某中学的李辉，你的家人打算暑假期间去合肥三河古镇游玩。你想邀请外教 Tm 一起前往。请给 Tm写一封邀请信，发出邀请并介绍三河古镇的特色。内容包括：
1.位于肥西县境内,是5A级风景区(scenic spt),特色旅游名镇:
2.境内三条小河交汇，流入巢湖；
3.建筑特色：临水建房，四面环水。
注意：
1.短文须包含上述内容要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
2.文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称：
3.词数80~100(开头和结尾已为你写好，不计入总词数)。
Dear Tm,







Yurs,
Li Hui

参考答案
英语(一)
第一部分 听力
I---Ⅲ.1~5 BABBC 6~10 CACBA 11~15 BCBCA
Ⅳ.16. grwth 17. admire 18. greet 19. plitely 20. same
评分标准：1~20题每小题1分。16~20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情给分。
第二部分 语言知识运用
V.21~25 BADCB 26~30 CCBCA
评分标准：21~30题每小题1分。
Ⅵ.31~35 DABCD 36~40 BACBD 41~45 CBDAC 46~50 DABDB
评分标准：31~50题每小题1分。
Ⅶ.51~55 CBEGA
评分标准：51~55题每小题1分。
第三部分 阅读
Ⅷ.56~60 DCADC 61~65 BDCBA 66~70 CCCAC 71~72 DD
73. She lst ne f her wings.
74. She dreamed f flying freely.
75. When yur mind is sunny, yur life will be sunny.
评分标准：56~75题每小题2分。73~75题的答案使用完整或简略形式均可，能答出关键词语即可给分，所提供的答案仅供参考。
第四部分 写
.76. mad 77. seat 78. decisin 79. fixed 80. frgt
评分标准：76~80题每小题1分。
X. One pssible versin:
Dear Tm,
I am writing t invite yu t g t Hefei with my family in the cming summer hliday.
My parents and I plan t g t Sanhe Ancient Twn. Sanhe Ancient Twn lies at the suth end f FeixiCunty, Hefei City. It is a 5A scenic spt, a famus turist twn and an ancient twn f Chinese fd culture.There are three rivers in the ancient twn f Sanhe, running east int Chahu Lake. The basic characteristics f Sanhe Ancient Twn are special. The lcals build huses near the water, all f which are surrunded by water n all sides. All the rivers and lakes are cnnected with each ther. T enjy the beautiful scenery there, let's g tgether, shall we? I hpe yu can accept my sincere invitatin. I lk frward t yur reply.
Yurs,
Li Hui
安徽省中考仿真卷·英语
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为20分，按五个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，结合内容和语言表达，综合评定分数。
3.考生可以根据要点适当发挥，加入细节及自己的观点。
4.词数少于80的，从总分中减去1分。
5.拼写错误多，书写较差以致影响表达，在所确定档次的分数范围内，减去1分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档(很好):(17~20分)
涵盖所有内容要求，运用较多的语法结构和词汇，语言基本无误，有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑，内容充实，体现了活跃的思维和清晰的逻辑，具备了较强的语言运用能力，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(好):(13~16分)
涵盖所有内容要求，运用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，有少量错误，但不影响对所写内容的理解，运用了简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯、完整，表达清楚，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(一般):(9~12分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务，运用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足任务要求，有一些错误，但不影响对所写内容的理解，内容不够连贯，信息基本可以传达。
第二档(较差):(5~8分)
明显漏掉主要内容，语法结构简单，词汇贫乏，有较多的错误，影响对所写内容的理解，缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯，信息未能清楚传达。
第一档(差):(0~4分)
明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，有大量的错误，所写内容无法理解，信息未能传达。
听力录音文字稿
Ⅰ.短对话理解
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. M:I left my bag in the museum. I'd like t get it back.
W: Let me see. It clses at 6 pm. Yu nly have 40 minutes t get there.
2. W: Wuld yu like t g fr a picnic with me n the weekend?
M: Gd idea. It's t bring t stay at hme.
3. M: This bk is very interesting and I think it's helpful in imprving ur English.
W: Well, but it's a little difficult fr me.
4. M: Mum, my bike is brken. Culd yu drive me t schl?
W: Sure, dear. But yu have t wait fr a mment. I' ll pick yur dad frm the bank first.
5. W: Hell, Brett. Are yu ging t play a ftball match tmrrw?
M: Yes, it's a really imprtant match, but I'm a bit nervus. I haven't practiced fr a lng time.
Ⅱ.长对话理解
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6 和第7两个小题。
M: The schl sprts meeting is cming.
W: Yeah, which sprt will yu take part in, William?
M: The high jump. Hw abut yu, Linda?
W: I'm nt sure. Maybe a running race.
M: Great! It's s warm tday! Let's g and have sme sprts right away.
W: That's a gd idea!
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
W: Yu seem t be very sad. What's the matter?
M: Well, I want t be a basketball player, but my parents dn't agree.
W: Why?
M: Because they want me t be a dctr like my father. They think playing basketball takes t much time. They even ask me t give it up.
W: Oh, have yu ever talked with them?
M: Yes, but they didn't listen t me. What shuld I d?
W: What abut asking ur teacher Ms Tang fr help?
M: Sunds nice. I' ll have a try.
Ⅲ.短文理解
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
Li Mei went t Singapre last summer t take part in a summer camp. It tk her abut tw hurs t fly there.But she was never bred alng the way. She used the time t watch a wnderful film n the plane. When she gt ff the plane, it was six ' clck in the evening. All the ther campers were there. She was the last ne. All the campers at the summer camp seemed very active. At first, Li Mei didn't knw anyne there, s she had t stay alne. But after making friends with a Thai student, she quickly became active. Li Mei learned many interesting custms frm the Thai student. Sn, after being intrduced t each ther, they gt t knw each ther. A few days later, they became gd friends.
Ⅳ.信息转换
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Making friends with a teacher is a beneficial thing. This is nt nly gd fr yur studies, but als gd fr yur wn grwth.
Firstly, yu must respect the teacher's rle. Have a heart f admiratin fr the teacher's effrts. This will get the teacher's lve.
Starting a cnversatin with yur teacher actively is als imprtant. After class r n weekends, greet yur teacher when yu meet him r her. Yu can have a talk abut yur study, and yu can als talk abut ther things.It is als gd t share yur wn thughts and pinins plitely.
What's mre, try t find cmmn interests. If yu and yur teacher share the same hbby r interest, such as sprts, reading, music, r travel, it will f curse deepen yur friendship easily.
Dn't wrry if the teacher is lder than yu. Yu can becme gd friends if yu are willing.
Benefits
· Gd fr yur studies.
· Gd fr yur wn _16_ .
Ways f
develping
friendship
with a
teacher
Respect the teacher.
Respect yur teacher's rle and _17_ his r her effrts.If s, yu will get the teacher's lve.
Start a
cnversatin
actively.
· After class r n weekends, _18_ yur teacher when meeting him r her.
· Yu can talk abut yur study and ther things.
· Yu can share yur wn thughts and pinins _19_ .
Find cmmn interests.
Sharing the _20_ hbby r interest will help deepen yur friendship easily.