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      2025年河北省唐山市路北区中考二模英语试题(中考模拟)

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      2025年河北省唐山市路北区中考二模英语试题(中考模拟)

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      这是一份2025年河北省唐山市路北区中考二模英语试题(中考模拟),共16页。
      1. 本试卷分共8页,总分120分,考试时间120分钟。
      2. 答题前,考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
      3. 所有答案均在答题卡上作答,在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前,请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”,按照“注意事项”的规定答题。
      4. 答选择题时,用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;答非选择题时,请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。
      5. 考试结束时,请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
      第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
      第一节 听句子,选择最佳答语(共5题:每题1分,满分5分)
      1. A. Yes, please. B. Sunds great. C. Have fun.
      2. A. Cheer up. B. Gd fr yu. C. Thank yu.
      3. A. Of curse. B. Srry, I wn’t. C. Me, neither.
      4 A. Speaking. B. I am Mary. C. This is Alice.
      5. A. What’s wrng? B. Take it easy. C. Help yurself.
      第二节 听对话和问题,选择正确答案(共13题:每题1分,满分13分)
      6. What was the girl ding at 9’ clck yesterday?
      A. B. C.
      7. Where will they g?
      A. B. C.
      8. What’s the pssible relatinship between them?
      A. Gd friends. B. Teacher and student. C. Father and daughter.
      9. What des Alice need?
      A. An eraser. B. A pencil bx. C. A ntebk.
      10. Hw will the weather be n Saturday?
      A. Windy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy.
      11. What will they d this weekend?
      A. Take a tur. B. Stay at hme. C. G t a cncert.
      12. What is Emma ging t watch tnight?
      A. A dinner shw. B. A new mvie. C. A ftball game.
      13. What will Emma d tmrrw?
      A. Take an exam. B. G ut fr dinner. C. Finish sme wrk.
      14. Wh may give them a ride t the restaurant?
      A. Emma’s father. B. A taxi driver. C. Jenny’s mther.
      15. Why did Jasn lk s sad?
      A. Fr the math exam. B. Fr his medicine study. C. Fr his parents’ dream.
      16. What d Jasn’s parents want him t be?
      A. A teacher. B. A dctr. C. A writer.
      17. In which subject did Jasn get an A?
      A. Math. B. English. C. Histry.
      18. What is Ms. Black’s advice?
      A. T study medicine. B. T talk t his parents. C. T make a change.
      第三节 听短文和问题,选择正确答案(共7题:每题1分,满分7分)
      19. In which cuntry is it cmmn t ask an adult’s age?
      A. China. B. England. C. France.
      20. What shuld yu d when yu are ging t meet a German?
      A. Give persnal cards. B. Kiss each ther. C. Arrive n time.
      21. What flwers mean bad luck t the French?
      A. Red flwers. B. Yellw flwers. C. Blue flwers.
      22. What is the cmpetitin abut?
      A. Writing English stries. B. Singing Chinese sngs. C. Telling Chinese stries.
      23. What shuld yu d if yu want t win the cmpetitin?
      A. Tell a stry in Chinese. B. Make the listeners mved. C. Shw a lng vide.
      24. When will the cmpetitin be held?
      A. On June 8th. B. On June 12th. C. On June 18th.
      25. Hw can yu knw mre abut the cmpetitin?
      A. By visiting the website. B. By attending a meeting. C. By sending an email.
      第四节 听短文填空(共5题:每题1分,满分5分)
      第二部分 语言运用(共两节,满分25分)
      第一节 完形填空(共10题;每题1分,满分10分)
      阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      Pets aren’t just a fun member f the family. They are als gd fr yur health and happiness. Peple with pets are mre likely t be ____1____. Playing with a cat r taking a dg fr daily ____2____ arund the garden gets yu mving yur bdy, and ut in the fresh air t.
      Spending time with yur pet helps yu get ____3____. Talking t yur pet abut yur wrries can make yu feel mre cmfrtable and helps yu feel ____4____. When yu’re with yur pets, yu can let g f prblems ____5____ yu give yur full attentin t the pets.
      Having an animal in the family helps yu learn new ____6____. like hw t teach them t understand rders, such as “Sit” r “Lie dwn”. ____7____ games t play with them allws yu t practice being creative. Learning hw t ____8____ pets, understanding what they want and making sure that they live ____9____ teach yu t understand thers’ feelings. Pets can als help yu get t knw ther dg wners n walks, r help yu becme _____10_____ with them when yu tell funny stries abut yur pets.
      1. A. freeB. activeC. mdernD. special
      2. A. testsB. talksC. walksD. plays
      3. A. smartB. bredC. tuchedD. relaxed
      4. A. betterB. cuterC. wiserD. pruder
      5. A. befreB. unlessC. becauseD. althugh
      6. A. skillsB. spiritsC. culturesD. languages
      7. A. WatchingB. InventingC. WinningD. Attending
      8. A. wake upB. wrk nC. search frD. lk after
      9. A. lazilyB. busilyC. happilyD. quietly
      10. A. trainersB. friendsC. membersD. relatives
      第二节 短文填空(共15题:每题1分,满分15分)
      阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。
      Sme peple have n interest in sprts. They think that sprts make them ____11____ (tire) and smell bad. They say, “Playing sprts is ____12____ ttal waste f time.” T these peple. I plitely say, “Yu have nt discvered the fun f sprts!”
      Let me share ____13____ yu a basketball game I played tw weeks ag. Our parents and friends all came ____14____ (cheer) fr us. A lt f peple ____15____ (watch) at that time. We lnged t win the game with such a large gathering.
      The game was nearly ver and we were tw ____16____ (pint) behind. Our cach called us tgether and said, “Okay, this is it! Either we scre nw ____17____ the game is ver. Let’s wrk hard t scre. Even if we dn’t scre, at least we knw that we ____18____(try) ur best already. Cme n, bys, dn’t think t much. It desn’t matter if we lse. Just d it.”
      Well in the last minute f the game, we ____19____ (true) scred and tw teams tied: 94:94. We went int vertime and we _____20_____ (lse) at last. But after the game, all f us ____21____ (hug) by ur cach excitedly. He tld us that he was s prud f us because he had never seen a team try _____22_____ (hard) than us.
      T be hnest, I get a lt f _____23_____ (please) frm playing sprts. It makes me strng _____24_____ happy. S my advice is t chse a sprt and keep _____25_____ (d) it. D remember it’s never t late t play sprts!
      第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
      第一节 阅读理解(共15题;每题2分,满分30分)
      阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      A
      Hw t read the medicine label (标签)
      26. When shuldn’t the medicine be taken?
      A. In August 2024.B. In Octber 2024.C. In April 2025.D. In July 2025.
      27. Wh can take the medicine?
      ①Jim, a 3-year-ld by, wh has a cugh
      ②Linda, a 15-year-ld girl, wh has a cld.
      ③Jhn, a 30-year-ld man, wh has a backache
      ④Mary, a 26-year-ld wman, wh has a headache
      A. ①②B. ②④C. ③④D. ②③
      28. Hw many tablets shuld a 12-year-ld by take at mst a day?
      A. 8.B. 10.C. 12.D. 14.
      B
      When I was a little by, I lived n Maple Street in a small twn. My neighbr, Mr. David, was a mst interesting persn. He liked t plant trees in his large yard n weekends. But the way he planted trees was quite different. Every mrning, while ther yards were filled with the sund f watering cans, Mr. David’s yard remained strangely quiet. He never watered his new trees.
      “Mr. David?” I called ut, “Aren’t yu ging t water yur new trees?”
      He lked up, “Ah, yung Alex! Cme clser and I’ll tell yu a secret.”
      When I entered thrugh the gate, he pinted at the baby trees. “Water is like easy answers—t much makes rts lazy. These trees need t search fr water deep undergrund t grw strng. Watering trees will spil them,” He added, “If yu water the trees, each baby tree will grw weaker and weaker,” said David.
      He tld me that watering these new trees wuld make rts shallw, but deep rts were very imprtant fr trees. I didn’t understand his wrds at that time.
      Several years after I left hme, I came back t visit my parents. When I walked by David’s huse, I stpped and watched the trees. The trees he planted years ag, tall and strng, twer ver his yard like giants.
      I suddenly realize planting a tree is just like bringing up a child. Their rts, like children’s independence, grw strngest when given space t struggle. And in that struggle, they make rts deep and find their wn way t sunlight. As a father f tw children, I shuldn’t care fr them t much. Instead, they shuld depend n themselves. In that case, whatever happens, they can make their wn decisins.
      29. What des the underlined wrd “spil” prbably mean in Paragraph 4?
      A. Be bad fr.B. Be famus fr.C. Be similar t.D. Be thankful t.
      30. Why did David never water his new trees?
      A. Because he didn’t have enugh water.B. Because he was t weak t water trees.
      C. Because he wanted t make rts deep.D. Because he didn’t knw hw t plant trees.
      31. What des the writer learn frm his experience?
      A. Children shuld plant mre trees.B. Parents shuld water trees all the time.
      C. Children shuld depend n themselves.D. Parents shuld care fr children a lt.
      C
      In the year f 2025, what is the mst ppular? That must be DeepSeek, an AI tl (人工智能工具) frm China. It makes a wnderful debut (惊艳亮相) acrss the wrld. It is s ppular that even many great cmpanies want t cperate with its cmpany, which is als called DeepSeek. Besides the famus AI tls, it has created sme amazing learning tls with the help f AL
      Fr example, they carefully watch hw students study. They find ut if a student likes reading alud r silently, which subjects are easy and which nes are difficult. After that, they make special study plans fr each student. If a student is bad at math, the plan will have mre math practice.
      Anther great thing abut DeepSeek is the fast feedback (反馈). When students finish their hmewrk r tests, it quickly shws what’s wrng and gives advice t make it right. This helps students learn frm their mistakes right away.
      Aside frm that, teachers als lve DeepSeek. They can see hw well students are ding at any time. They make clear reprts, s teachers dn’t have t spend hurs checking. This gives them mre time t prepare fun lessns r help students wh need it.
      Nw, lts f schls all ver the wrld are using DeepSeek. Students are mre excited abut learning and feel mre sure f themselves. DeepSeek must have a prmising future.
      32. Hw des the writer express his idea in Paragraph 2?
      A. By giving examples.B. By listing numbers.C. By cmparing facts.D. By asking questins.
      33. Which f the fllwing may the writer agree with?
      A. Students wn’t need teachers t learn because f DeepSeek.
      B. Teachers spend mre time checking hw well students are ding.
      C. DeepSeek is the name f an AI tl, nt a technlgy cmpany.
      D. DeepSeek can find ut what subject yu are gd at and pr at.
      34. What des the writer think f the future f DeepSeek?
      A. Dubtful.B. Hpeful.C. Wrrying.D. Interesting.
      35. If we put the passage int three parts, which f the fllwing is the best?
      A. ①/②/③④⑤B. ①/②③/④⑤C. ①②③/④/⑤D. ①/②③④/⑤
      D
      If yu’re wrking t becme better r hping t make a change, yu’ll prbably hear yur family and friends say “g big r g hme”. They think yu shuld set high gals. But is it really gd?
      Having high gals culd be gd. It can encurage yu t get better. When yu have high gals fr smething, yu’ll prbably try yur best t make them cme true. Fr example, if yu want t get an A in a test, yu will prbably spend a lt f time wrking n it. Als, when yu start meeting yur gals, yu’ll set even higher gals fr yurself. Besides, having high gals n yurself desn’t nly d yu gd. It will make a difference t thers.
      But if yur gals are t high t realize, it can be bad. Having high gals can smetimes lead t mind prblems, such as wrry and unhappiness. The findings f a study shwed that sme students were under serius stress because they wanted t be perfect. High gals can als let yu dwn. This is especially true when yu set gals n ther peple whse actins yu cannt cntrl. Fr example, if yu’re feeling lnely and yu call up yur friends, yu surely expect them t make yu feel better. When this fails t happen, yu will feel dwn and unsatisfied with yur friends. T avid this situatin, yu shuld set yur gals realistically (切合实际地).
      It is hard t manage gals, but the main thing is t set a mre realistic and achievable gal.
      36. What d yur family and friends want yu t d when they say “g big r g hme”?
      A. T cheer thers up.B. T g back hme.
      C. T set high gals.D. T stay with them.
      37. When yu want t get an A in a test, what will yu d?
      A. Spend much time wrking n it.B. Stp meeting anther gal.
      C. Finish yur hmewrk n time.D. Make a difference t thers.
      38. Why were sme students under serius stress?
      A. Their family didn’t supprt them.B. Their study results were terrible.
      C. Their friends didn’t care abut them.D. Their gals were t high t realize.
      39. Hw can yu avid feeling dwn when setting gals n thers?
      A. By calling up yur friends.B. By setting gals realistically.
      C. By making thers feel better.D. By cntrlling their actins.
      40. What is the best title fr the text?
      A. Right Views n Setting GalsB. Valuable Advice n Achieving Gals
      C. Pssible Reasns fr Setting GalsD. Serius Prblems in Achieving Gals
      第二节 阅读表达(共5题:每题2分,满分10分)
      阅读下面短文,简略回答问题。
      Accrding t the new curriculum standard (课程标准) fr labr (劳动) educatin, students in primary and middle schls have at least ne curse every week n basic husehld skills such as cking.
      Cking shuld be cnsidered as an art just like any ther activity because it requires skills and knwledge. It’s said that students shuld learn scientific facts as well as hw t prepare meals. The fllwing will explain why students shuld learn cking in schls.
      First, cking is an imprtant skill in life. Why? Because students wh learn cking skills are mre likely t lead successful independent lives when they are ut f schl. Als, they can step int the wrld knwing hw t make a living.
      Secnd, cking helps discver future career. When schls ffer cking lessns, students will shw an interest in it and might take cking as a career. This will give them the chance t perfect their basic skills and be creative in the kitchen.
      Third, cking n yur wn avids wasting mney. Students spend a lt f mney n ready-made fd. In fact, they can prepare a nice meal with less cst by buying fresh vegetables, meat, fruit and s n.
      Sme students talk abut their experiences abut the cking classes.
      Michael: Our schl ffers different kinds f DIY classes t make desserts. DIY classes run daily frm 4:00 p.m. t 6:00 p.m. It is a cmpletely hands-n persnal cking experience. Yu can g t ur website t get mre infrmatin abut DIY.
      Linda: I learn cking skills bth at schl and in my neighbrhd. There is such a fantastic Chinese restaurant in the neighburhd that peple lve all the dishes. The ck, wh is gd at Chinese dishes, teaches peple hw t ck traditinal Chinese dishes every Mnday afternn.
      Cking skills are useful, but it des require sme fully equipped (配备齐全的) kitchens. I hpe these classes will be gd fr students and nt be seen as windw dressing.
      41. Hw many curses n basic husehld skills d students have each week?
      _______________________________________
      42. Why is cking an imprtant skill in life fr students? (写出一种答案即可)
      _______________________________________
      43. When can yu take DIY classes?
      _______________________________________
      44. Where des Linda learn cking skills?
      _______________________________________
      45. Hw d yu feel abut cking classes? Please share yur experience f cking. (答案须与文中例句不同)
      _______________________________________
      第四部分 情景交际(满分10分)
      补全对话(共5题:每题2分,满分10分)
      根据下面的对话情景,在空白处填入一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
      (Amy and Tm are talking abut their future during the break in the classrm.)
      Amy: Gd mrning, Tm!
      Tm: Gd mrning, Amy!
      Amy: ________46________
      Tm: My dream is t be an inventr. It is great in my heart.
      Amy: ________47________
      Tm: Because I enjy making new things by myself. What abut yu, Amy?
      Amy: I have n idea. ________48________
      Tm: Of curse. The key is t knw yurself and chse the right path.
      Amy: ________49________ But I’m nt sure what I’m gd at.
      Tm: ________50________
      Amy: I like drawing in my spare time. Drawing makes me happy.
      Tm: Maybe yu’ll be an artist smeday. T be an artist, yu need a gd teacher. What’s mre, yu shuld keep practicing.
      Amy: That makes sense. I knw what I need t d nw. Thank yu very much.
      第五部分 写作(满分15分)
      书面表达
      51. 假设你是李华,你校将举办国潮文化节(China-Chic Cultural Festival)。请结合以下思维导图,用英语写一封邮件,邀请你的外国好友Jasn来参加。
      注意:
      1. 包含提示内容,可适当增加细节;
      2. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名;
      3. 词数80个左右(开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数)。
      Dear Jasn,
      I knw yu are interested in Chinese culture. Here is gd news fr yu.
      _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
      Lking frward t yur reply.
      Yurs
      Li Hua
      2025年九年级第二次模拟检测
      英语试卷
      注意事项:
      1. 本试卷分共8页,总分120分,考试时间120分钟。
      2. 答题前,考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
      3. 所有答案均在答题卡上作答,在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前,请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”,按照“注意事项”的规定答题。
      4. 答选择题时,用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;答非选择题时,请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。
      5. 考试结束时,请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
      第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
      第一节 听句子,选择最佳答语(共5题:每题1分,满分5分)
      1. A. Yes, please. B. Sunds great. C. Have fun.
      2. A. Cheer up. B. Gd fr yu. C. Thank yu.
      3. A. Of curse. B. Srry, I wn’t. C. Me, neither.
      4. A. Speaking. B. I am Mary. C. This is Alice.
      5. A. What’s wrng? B. Take it easy. C. Help yurself.
      第二节 听对话和问题,选择正确答案(共13题:每题1分,满分13分)
      6. What was the girl ding at 9’ clck yesterday?
      A. B. C.
      7. Where will they g?
      A. B. C.
      8. What’s the pssible relatinship between them?
      A. Gd friends. B. Teacher and student. C. Father and daughter.
      9. What des Alice need?
      A. An eraser. B. A pencil bx. C. A ntebk.
      10. Hw will the weather be n Saturday?
      A. Windy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy.
      11. What will they d this weekend?
      A. Take a tur. B. Stay at hme. C. G t a cncert.
      12. What is Emma ging t watch tnight?
      A. A dinner shw. B. A new mvie. C. A ftball game.
      13. What will Emma d tmrrw?
      A. Take an exam. B. G ut fr dinner. C. Finish sme wrk.
      14. Wh may give them a ride t the restaurant?
      A. Emma’s father. B. A taxi driver. C. Jenny’s mther.
      15. Why did Jasn lk s sad?
      A. Fr the math exam. B. Fr his medicine study. C. Fr his parents’ dream.
      16. What d Jasn’s parents want him t be?
      A. A teacher. B. A dctr. C. A writer.
      17. In which subject did Jasn get an A?
      A Math. B. English. C. Histry.
      18. What is Ms. Black’s advice?
      A. T study medicine. B. T talk t his parents. C. T make a change.
      第三节 听短文和问题,选择正确答案(共7题:每题1分,满分7分)
      19. In which cuntry is it cmmn t ask an adult’s age?
      A. China. B. England. C. France.
      20. What shuld yu d when yu are ging t meet a German?
      A. Give persnal cards. B. Kiss each ther. C. Arrive n time.
      21 What flwers mean bad luck t the French?
      A. Red flwers. B. Yellw flwers. C. Blue flwers.
      22. What is the cmpetitin abut?
      A. Writing English stries. B. Singing Chinese sngs. C. Telling Chinese stries.
      23. What shuld yu d if yu want t win the cmpetitin?
      A. Tell a stry in Chinese. B. Make the listeners mved. C. Shw a lng vide.
      24. When will the cmpetitin be held?
      A. On June 8th. B. On June 12th. C. On June 18th.
      25. Hw can yu knw mre abut the cmpetitin?
      A. By visiting the website. B. By attending a meeting. C. By sending an email.
      第四节 听短文填空(共5题:每题1分,满分5分)
      第二部分 语言运用(共两节,满分25分)
      第一节 完形填空(共10题;每题1分,满分10分)
      【1~10题答案】
      【答案】1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. B
      第二节 短文填空(共15题:每题1分,满分15分)
      【11~25题答案】
      【答案】11. tired
      12. a 13. with
      14. t cheer
      15. were watching
      16. pints 17. r
      18. have tried
      19. truly 20. lst
      21. were hugged
      22. harder 23. pleasure
      24. and 25. ding
      第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
      第一节 阅读理解(共15题;每题2分,满分30分)
      阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      A
      【26~28题答案】
      【答案】26. D 27. B 28. C
      B
      【29~31题答案】
      【答案】29. A 30. C 31. C
      C
      【32~35题答案】
      【答案】32. A 33. D 34. B 35. D
      D
      【36~40题答案】
      【答案】36. C 37. A 38. D 39. B 40. A
      第二节 阅读表达(共5题:每题2分,满分10分)
      【41~45题答案】
      【答案】41. At least ne curse./At least ne.
      42.
      Because they are mre likely t lead successful independent lives./Because they can step int the wrld knwing hw t make a living./Because it helps students discver future career./Because cking n yur wn avids wasting mney.
      43. Frm 4:00 p.m. t 6:00 p.m. (daily/every day).
      44. Bth at schl and in her neighbrhd.
      45. I think cking classes are really interesting. Once I tk a cking class and learned t make a pizza. It was s much fun t see the raw materials turn int a delicius dish. (答案不唯一,言之有理即可)
      第四部分 情景交际(满分10分)
      补全对话(共5题:每题2分,满分10分)
      【46~50题答案】
      【答案】46. What is yur dream?
      47. Why d yu want t be an inventr?/Why?
      48. Culd/Can yu give me sme advice?
      49. Yu’re right./That’s true./I agree.
      50. What d yu like ding in yur spare time?
      第五部分 写作(满分15分)
      书面表达
      【51题答案】
      【答案】例文
      Dear Jasn,
      I knw yu are interested in Chinese culture. Here is gd news fr yu.
      Our schl will hld the China-Chic Cultural Festival at 2:00 p.m. n May 30th in the schl playgrund. During the event, we will watch flk activities such as lantern making and paper cutting. At the same time, we will enjy Beijing Opera and martial arts perfrmances. We all lve the festival because it’s a gd chance t lk back n histry and a wnderful time t get tgether. I hpe yu can cme t celebrate it with us. Yu shuld bring a camera t take phts and pay attentin t safety.
      Lking frward t yur reply.
      Yurs,
      Li Hua
      A Charity Sale
      Time 26. frm ______ t Friday
      Place 27. the Central ______
      Read and buy 28. interesting and ______ used bks
      Wrking hurs 29. ______ hurs every day
      Hw t help 30. ______ mney t help pr students
      Directins
      adults and children 12 years and ver
      2 tablets (药片) every 4 t 6 hurs;
      nt mre than 12 tablets in 24 hurs
      children 4 years t under 12 years
      I tablet every 4 t 6 hurs;
      nt mre than 6 tablets in 24 hurs
      children under 4 years
      can’t take the medicine
      A Charity Sale
      Time 26. frm ______ t Friday
      Place 27. the Central ______
      Read and buy 28. interesting and ______ used bks
      Wrking hurs 29. ______ hurs every day
      Hw t help 30. ______ mney t help pr students

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