东西湖区2024-2025学年上学期期中八年级英语试题(word版含答案)
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这是一份东西湖区2024-2025学年上学期期中八年级英语试题(word版含答案),共13页。试卷主要包含了 本试卷由第I卷两部分组成, 答第II卷时,答案用0等内容,欢迎下载使用。
八年级英语试卷
亲爱的同学,在你答题前,请认真阅读下面的注意事项:
1. 本试卷由第I卷(选择题)和第II卷(非选择题)两部分组成。全卷共10页,七大题,满分120分。考试用时120分钟。
2. 答第I卷(选择题)时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把“答题卡”上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案。不得答在“试卷”上。
3. 答第II卷(非选择题)时,答案用0. 5毫米黑色笔迹签字笔书写在“答题卡”上。答在“试卷”上无效。
4. 认真阅读“答题卡”上的注意事项。
预祝你取得优异成绩!
第 = 1 \* ROMAN \* MERGEFORMAT I卷(选择题 共80分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试(共三节)
第一节(共4小题, 每小题1分,满分4分)
听下面4个问题。每个问题后有三个答语,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后,你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. At 10:00. B. Once a mnth. C. Fr 3 weeks.
2. A. T Beijing. B. Of curse. C. My mther.
3. A. Very kind. B. By bus. C. Animal Wrld.
4. A. Because it’s cheaper. B. It’s the wrst. C. N, she isn’t.
第二节(共8小题,每小题1分,满分8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5. Why des Jenny like Wanda Plaza?
A. It has the newest mvie.
B. It has the mst cmfrtable seats.
C. It has the best service.
6. What will they prbably d this afternn?
A. G t the muntains. B. Listen t the radi. C. Stay at hme.
7. Wh des the girl think runs the fastest?
A. Lily. B. Kate. C. Lucy.
8. What des the man think f the bk?
A. He lves it. B. He desn’t mind it. C. He can’t stand it.
9. When des Paul usually get hme?
A. At 4:00 p.m. B. At 4:30 p.m. C. At 5:00 p.m.
10.Where are the tw speakers talking?
A. In the classrm. B. In an ffice. C. In a restaurant.
11.What wuld the wman prbably say t the man next?
A. N prblem. B. Help yurself! C. Have a pint.
12.Where did the wman g?
A B C
第三节(共13小题,每小题1分,满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答13至15三个小题。
13.What des Mike plan t d after schl?
A. See a mvie. B. Take a walk. C. Have a rest.
14.What is the mvie abut?
A. Chang’ e. B. Hua Mulan. C. Mnkey King.
15.Which is true accrding t the cnversatin?
A. Jennie will watch the same mvie.
B. Mike desn’t like the mvie.
C. The character in the mvie is nt smart.
听下面一段对话,回答16至18三个小题。
16. What des the girl think f ChatGPT?
A. Interesting. B. Successful. C. Useful.
17. What can ChatGPT d accrding t the girl?
A. Sing sngs. B. Ask questins. C. Write stries.
18. What will students be like if they keep using ChatGPT t d their hmewrk?
A. Mre creative. B. Lazier. C. Mre talented.
听下面一段对话,回答19至22四个小题。
19.What’s the relatinship(关系)between the tw bys?
A. Brthers. B. Friends. C. Classmates.
20. Hw ften des Tm play tennis?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Five times a week.
21.Hw is Sam?
A. He is mre utging. B. He is quieter. C. He is mre serius.
22.What des Sam like best?
A. Bks. B. Sprts. C. Music.
听下面一段独白,回答23至25三个小题。
23.What did the mnkey d?
A. Swam in a lake. B. Lked fr fd. C. Climbed a muntain.
24. Hw did Betty feel at the tp f Munt Tianzi?
A. Scared. B. Relaxed. C. Amazed.
25. What is the text fr?
A. Sharing happiness with her parents.
B. Intrducing Zhangjiajie t Lucy.
C. Giving sme advice.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空(共10小题, 每小题1分,满分10分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。将代表该答案的字母在答题卡上相应的位置涂黑。
26. —Granny, it’s gd t have dumplings fr Winter Slstice(冬至), but they are hard t make.
—Just fllw me. Slwly... slwly. Yeah, _______.
A. that’s it B. never mind C. I see D. my pleasure
27. —When shuld we g ut fr dinner?
—_______. Any time is OK fr me.
A. Let’s gB. Help yurself C. N prblem D. Up t yu
28. —Remember this, Paul. ______ yu are, ______ grades yu will get.
—Thanks a lt, Ms. Miller.
A. The mre careful; the best B. The mre careful; the better
C. The mre carefully; the best D. The mre carefully; the better
29. —Hw was the weather yesterday?
—Terrible. It rained s _______ that we culd _______ g ut.
A. hardly, hardly B. hard, hard C. hard, hardly D. hardly, hard
30. —What a pity! I missed the pening f the Asian Games.
—If yu want t ______ mre abut it, yu can g nline.
A. bring ut B. find ut C. wrk ut D. think ut
31. —Danny likes t share everything n WeChat like the address and the telephne number.
—Oh, it’s dangerus fr us t give away t much ______ n the Internet.
A. news B. truble C. imprtance D. infrmatin
32. —Hey, Michelle, which ne d yu want, green tea r black tea?
—_______ is OK with me.Tea is my favrite.
A. Bth B. Any C. Either D. All
33. —Pr Jerry, why were yu late again?
—Bad luck. My watch _______ 30 minutes this mrning.
A. brke B. wn C. lst D. shared
34. —Yu will get ld fast if yu ften stay up late.
—Yu have a(n) ________. I will fllw yur advice.
A. pint B. excuse C. result D. reasn
35. —Studies shw that friends______mre DNA than strangers. Yu may have mre in cmmn with yur friends than yu think.
—That sunds interesting!
A. chse B. share C. win D. tuch
三、完形填空 (共15小题, 每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My friend Mr. Jhnsn is a famus dctr and has a hspital. S he has enugh mney t 36
all ver the wrld. And he’s been t a lt f places f interest. He likes t play with children and has a lt f little 37 . They ften ask him t tell them all kinds f funny things he 38 . It makes them happy and his 39 is always full f children when he’s free.
It was my little sn’s seventh birthday yesterday. The by wanted t 40 his ld friend Mr. Jhnsn t the party. He 41 Mr. Jhnsn himself and tld him abut it. The dctr accepted(接受) his invitatin happily. At half past seven the by was 42 his cming at the gate. 43 he saw his car, he ran twards him. Mr. Jhnsn 44 n time, with a nice present in his hand. After dinner the children sat arund the traveler and asked him t 45 them sme funny stries. Mr. Smith agreed and his stries made them 46 again and again. At last he tld them the funniest stry. He said, “Once I reached a city n a fggy day. The fg was the 47 in the wrld …”
“Please wait a 48 , Mr. Jhnsn,” my sn 49 the dctr, “It’s said the fg in Lndn is the thickest in the wrld.”
“Yu’re 50 , my clever by.” said the funny dctr. “The city had much fg that day …” “What’s it, then?” the by culdn’t wait t ask again.
“The fg was s thick that I culdn’t see it at all,” the funny dctr said with a smile.
36. A. wrkB. fightC. liveD. travel
37. A. friendsB. brthersC. wrkersD. classmates
38. A. readB. wrteC. thughtD. saw
39. A. hme B. rm C. hspital D. dinner
40. A. sendB. askC. carryD. get
41. A. knewB. caughtC. taughtD. called
42. A. waiting frB. dressing upC. lking arundD. caring abut
43. A. BefreB. As sn asC. UntilD. Since
44. A. cameB. answeredC. saidD. played
45. A. speakB. sayC. tellD. talk
46. A. thinkB. laughC. cryD. fear
47. A. thinnest B. finest C. heaviest D. biggest
48. A. mmentB. dayC. weekD. year
49. A. thanked B. brke C. stpped D. fllwed
50. A. srryB. sadC. wrngD. right
四、阅读理解 (共15小题, 每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
51. In which sectin f the newspaper can we read the material?
A.ART. B. SPORTS. C. LIFE. D. CULTURE.
52. When did peple f Gangbian Village celebrate the Diving Festival?
A. On April 15, 2024.
B. On June 14, 2024.
C. On July 31, 2024.
D. On September 22, 2024
53. A girl explainer at Suining Cunty Museum may wear ______.
A B C D
54. What is the best heading fr the third piece f news?
A. A scene like a galaxy.
B. Setting ff water lanterns.
C. A histrical activity.
D. Best wishes fr peple in Jinggu.
55. Why did different kinds f music arund the wrld meet in Xi’an?
A. Because the ld Silk Rad started here.
B. Because it’s the capital f Shaanxi Prvince.
C. Because many peple are interested in music.
D. Because Xi’an has a histry f abut 3,100 years.
B
In the twn f Lampang in nrthern Thailand, there is an unusual grup f musicians. They play many different kinds f music ---- frm traditinal Thai sngs t music by Beethven. Bth children and adults lve this grup. What makes them s ppular? Is it their music? Their lks? Yes, it’s bth f these things, but it’s als smething else: they’re elephants.
These musical elephants are frm the Thai Elephant Cnservatin Center (TECC) in Lampang. The TECC prtects elephants. It teaches peple t understand and care fr these huge, but gentle animals. And, like many zs arund the wrld, the TECC encurages elephants t paint.
Richard Lair wrks with the TECC. He knew that elephants hear better than they see. S he had an idea: if elephants are intelligent and they have gd hearing, maybe they can play music. T test his idea, Lair and a friend started the Thai Elephant Orchestra. During a perfrmance, the elephants play many kinds f instruments, such as the drums and the xylphne. The animals als use their vices and trunks t make sunds.
But can elephants really make music prperly? Yes, says Lair. They’re very creative. Humans may encurage the animals t play instruments, but the elephants make their wn sngs; they dn’t just cpy their trainers r ther peple. There are nw CDs f the grup’s music, which make mney fr the TECC. And the music these artists create is pretty amazing.
56. Where can we mst prbably read this passage?
A. A science newspaper. B. An animal magazine.
C. A stry bk. D. A histry bk.
57. What des the underlined wrd “them” refer t(指代)in the passage?
A. Musicians. B. Children. C. Adults. D. Sngs.
58. What can be inferred (推断) frm the passage?
A. Richard Lair started the Thai Elephant Orchestra by himself.
B. The elephants in the TECC can nly play traditinal Thai sngs.
C. The CDs f the Thai Elephant Orchestra are ppular with peple.
D. The elephants can nly play the drums and xylphne.
59. The underlined wrd “intelligent” in para.3 is the clsest t “______” in meaning.
A. t slw in learning smething
B. feeling pleased in ding smething
C. getting bred when ding smething again and again
D. having the high ability t learn and understand
60. The best title f the passage wuld prbably be _______.
A. Save the elephants B. Jin the TECC
C. Elephants’ special talents D. Musical instruments
C
Peter Pan is ne f the best-lved children’s bks f all time. The stry begins with “All children grw up, except ne”. It tells the stry f Peter Pan, a little by wh never grws up and can fly.
Wendy, Jhn and Michael Darling live in Lndn with their parents and their nurse, a dg called Nana. One night when Mr. and Mrs. Darling went ut, Peter gt int the huse thrugh the windw and met Wendy. Peter taught the Darling children t fly and tk them away t Neverland, an island t which peple culd reach nly by flying. It was an island that was full f fun and happiness, and nly children wh did nt want t grw up culd live there. On Neverland, they met pirates(海盗), fairies(精灵), Indians and mermaids(美人鱼) and had lts f adventures.
On the island, Wendy became a mther fr sme children called the Lst Bys. They lived with Peter Pan in a huse under the grund. But Captain Hk, an evil pirate wh had an irn hk (钩) instead f a right hand, caught Wendy and the bys. Peter went t the pirate ship t rescue them and there was a dramatic swrd fight between him and the captain. The fight was lng and hard. At last, Hk failed and was eaten by the crcdile. After that, the children flew back t their hme in Lndn. Mrs Darling agreed t adpt (收养)all the Lst Bys. She ffered t adpt Peter,t, but he didn’t want t grw up and returned t Neverland. Many years passed, when Peter visited Wendy again, she had a daughter f her wn. Peter tk her daughter t Neverland fr a visit, and then years later he tk her daughter’s daughter.
Peter Pan has becme the symbl f “eternal(永恒的) childhd”. The nvel praises the valuable memries in childhd, which is the mst beautiful music f life.There is a Peter Pan in
everyne’s mind where they d believe fairy tales.
61. Peter Pan fught with Captain Hk because _________.
Captain Hk was a pirate
Captain Hk tk Wendy and her brthers
he wanted t kill the captain
D. he wanted t rescue Wendy and the bys
62. What des the underlined wrd “rescue” mean in the third paragraph?
A.admire B. encurage C. save D. deal
63. Why didn’t Peter Pan chse t live with Wendy’s family in Lndn?
A. Because he didn’t want t grw up.
B. Because he didn’t want t leave his friends n Neverland.
C.Because he didn’t like Wendy.
D.Because he was wunded by Captain Ck.
64. Which is the right rder f what happened in the stry?
①Peter had a fight with Captain Hk, and Hk was eaten by the crcdile.
②Peter refused Mrs. Darling and flew back t Neverland.
③Peter gt int the huse thrugh the windw and met Wendy.
④Peter Pan taught the Darling children t fly and tk them t Neverland.
④③②① B. ③④①② C. ③①②④ D. ④①②③
65. What des the writer want t tell us?
A. Everyne culd get t the island Neverland.
B. We shuldn’t learn t grw up.
C. Wendy lved the Neverland and had a wnderful time there.
D. Everyne must grw up, but a Peter Pan can live in ur mind.
第II卷(非选择题 共40分)
五、词与短语填空(共5小题, 每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,用方框中所给的单词或短语填空,使短文在结构、句意和逻辑上正确。(提示:方框中有二个单词或短语是多余的。)
swinging / perfrm / share / fantastic / meaningless / bring ut / find ut
The Puning Yingge dance, a traditinal Chinese flk dance, is a mix(混合)f dance, pera and kungfu. It is a symbl f gd luck and peace. Peple usually 66 it during the traditinal Chinese festivals. In February 2024, a grup f dancers frm Guangdng became ppular in Lndn. They gave a 67 perfrmance n the street t welcme the Chinese New Year. They had clrful faces and each held tw shrt sticks(棍子). With the lud sund f drums, gngs, and shuts, the dancers walked and danced, 68 the sticks. “Practicing the dance is hard wrk but we will 69 ur best.” A man said excitedly. They wanted t 70 their culture and bring gd luck in the Year f Lng t peple in the UK.
六、综合填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,根据上下文或括号内单词等提示,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
In a small village, a by named Mark lived with his father, a wise ld man. One day, Mark tld his father 71 (sad) that he made little prgress in learning the guitar. N matter 72 hard he tried, he culdn’t imprve. S Mark went t his father 73 (ask) fr sme help.
“Fllw me, and I will lead yu t the high hills arund the village tmrrw,” said his father. The next day, they set ut. The rad was lng and difficult, 74 Mark still fllwed his father. As they gt higher, the father said that he wanted t g t the tp f the 75 (high) hill where he had never been t.
Mark was 76 (surprise) but decided t help his father. 77 great difficulty, Mark helped his father climb the hill. Smetimes he even carried his father n his back. When they finally gt t the tp, he and his father smiled at each ther. They 78 (enjy) the blue sky, white cluds and the smaller hills under their feet as if they were n the tp f the wrld.
“When yu were a little by, all the small 79 (child) called this hill “Munt Impssible”, because yu guys culdn’t reach its tp. And the elder children ften laughed at yu. D yu remember?”
Mark ndded. “And tday,” said his father, “yu nt nly climbed here, but als helped me t get here.”
“I became bigger and strnger than befre,” said Mark.
“Yu played n the smaller hills and became better at 80 (climb),” said his father. “It became pssible fr yu t climb Munt Impssible while yu weren’t even thinking abut it. S will the guitar.”
七、书面表达(共1大题,满分20分)
朋友是生命中的阳光,人生得一知己足矣。幸运的是,你有这样的一位朋友。请你根据以下内容提示写一篇演讲稿,从好朋友的外貌、个性、爱好、生活习惯和学习等方面介绍你最好的朋友。
内容提示:
What is yur best friend like?
What are the differences and similarities between yu?
Hw d yu like him / her? Why?
Smething mre abut friendship.
注意:
文中不得透露个人真实姓名和学校;词数:100左右;标题和开头已给出,不计入总词数。
My best friend
Hell, everyne! Tday I want t tell yu smething abut my best friend. ________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024~2025学年度上学期期中考试
八年级英语参考答案
听力部分(1’*25):1-5 BACCA 6-10CBABC
11-15 ABACA 16-20 CCBAB 21-25 BCBCA
笔试部分:
选择填空 (1’*10):26-30 ADBCB 31-35DCCAB
完形填空 (1’*15):36-40 DADBB 41-45 DABAC 46-50 BCACD
阅读理解(2’*15):51-55 DCABA 56-60 BACDC 61-65DCABD
词与短语填空(2’*5)
66. perfrm67. fantastic68. swinging 69. bring ut 70. share
综合填空 (1’*10):
71.sadly 72.hw 73.t ask 74.but 75.highest
76.surprised 77.With 78.enjyed 79.children 80.climbing
书面表达(20’):
My best friend
Hell, everyne! Tday I want t tell yu smething abut my best friend. My best friend is Fu Xing, a tall and thin by with black eyes and shrt straight hair. He is mre utging and I’m quieter. He likes sprts, s he is strnger and healthier than me. We bth like nature, s we ften g t the parks, rivers, muntains and frests. The mments we spent tgether are really wnderful t us. Of curse, when either f us meets truble, we’ll have a heart-t- heart talk t encurage each ther.
I always feel lucky t have such a clse friend. Our friendship means the wrld t me, and I hpe it lasts frever.
Thank yu!
附:书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
评分时,先根据短文的内容、语言和思维逻辑以及写作规范初步判定其所属档次,然后根据该档次的具体要求来确定或调整档次,最后给分。这一原则也称为整体评分或印象评分。
评分时,应关注的短文内容为:内容要点表达的清楚程度、完整性及准确性;应关注的短文语言和思维逻辑为:运用词汇和语法结构的准确性及上下文语意的流畅性和完整性。
评分时, 应关注的短文写作规范为:词数不少于 60 词,拼写和标点符号符合写作规范(英、美拼写及词汇用法均视为符合要求) ,如书写较差,以致影响交际,建议将分数降低一个档次。
二、档次判定
英语书面表达题的评判一般把学生写作的短文分为五个档次。
第五档次: (17~20分)
短文能呈现所有内容要点,写出的句子语意表达清楚、逻辑合理且基本无错误。
(信息无缺项、语言准确、逻辑缜密、错点≦2-3 个、书写美观,建议判 18 分)
第四档次: (13~16分)
短文能呈现绝大部分内容要点,写出的句子语意表达清楚且无严重错误,逻辑比较合理,有少数单词拼写错误。
(词法错误≦4-5 个、句法错误≦1-2 个,建议判 14 分;较之好者,考虑档内高分)
第三档次: (9~12 分)
短文能呈现大部分内容要点,写出的句子虽然有语法错误但能表达基本信息,逻辑基本合理,有较多的单词拼写错误。
(只有 1-2 个表述正确句、其他仅能表意、有多处词法句法错误,建议判 10 分;较之好者,考虑档内高分)
第二档次: (5~8 分)
短文包含部分内容要点,写出的句子有较严重的语法错误,表达的意思也不清楚,有较多的单词拼写错误。
(有三个关键词和 1-2 个有表意功能的句子,建议判 6 分;较之好者,考虑档内高分)
第一档次: (1~4分)
短文包含少量内容要点,写出的句子有严重语法错误,基本不能表达语意,或只写出几个关键词。
(仅抄写三个问题 3 分、两个问题2 分、一个问题 1 分;有句子但与要点无关,不给分。)
注意: 如短文出现以下情况之一,建议判零分。
1) 未能传递任何信息;
2) 内容太少,无法评判;
3) 所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
Little explainers(讲解员)
On July 26, 2024, at Suining Cunty Museum in Xuzhu, little explainers in Hanfu talked t visitrs abut the rich and clrful intangible cultural heritage(非物质文化遗产)and histry f Suining. By becming little explainers, the children help visitrs knw mre abut traditinal Chinese culture.
The Diving(跳水)Festival
On July 31, 2024, peple f Gangbian Village, Cngjiang Cunty met by the Sanbai River. They celebrated the Diving Festival n the 14th day f the sixth lunar(农历的) mnth. The villagers jined in different activities. They dived, sang Zhuang sngs and played with water.
On the evening f April 15, many peple put water lanterns int the Weiyuan River in Jinggu Dai and Yi Autnmus Cunty. They made a scene(场面)like a galaxy(星系)in the water. Putting water lanterns int the river is a histrical activity. It is a way fr peple t send their best wishes.
A cncert near the ld city wall f Xi’an
Chinese artists played in a cncert near the ld city wall f Xi’an n September22. Xi'an has a histry f abut3,100 years. It is the capital f Shaanxi Prvince. It is als the starting pint f the ld Silk Rad,s different kinds f music arund the wrld met here.
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