湖北省武汉市东西湖区2022-2023学年上学期期末八年级英语试题(含答案)
展开武汉市东西湖区2022-2023学年上学期期末
八年级 英语试题
亲爱的同学,在你答题前,请认真阅读下面的注意事项:
1. 本试卷由第I卷 (选择题) 和第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题) 两部分组成。全卷共10页,七大题,满分120分。考试用时120分钟。
2. 答第I卷 (选择题) 时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把”答题卡”上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案。不得答在”试卷”上。
3. 答第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题) 时,答案用0. 5毫米黑色笔迹签字笔书写在”答题卡”上。答在”试卷上无效。
4. 认真阅读”答题卡”上的注意事项。
预祝你取得优异成绩!
第I卷 (选择题共85分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共4小题,每小题1分,满分4分)
听下面4个问题。每个问题后有三个答语,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,听完每个问题后,你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. An engineer. B. New York. C. To the countryside.
2. A. I don’t know. B. No, I don’t. C. Twice a week.
3. A. Work as a guide. B. Sure, I’d love to. C. After I finish college.
4. A. Tomorrow evening. B. I don’t mind them. C. Sounds good.
第二节 (共8小题,每小题1分,满分8分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读一遍。
5. Where are the two speakers probably?
A. In a park. B. In a museum. C. In a zoo.
6. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Their future jobs. B. Their schoolwork. C. Their parents.
7. How will the woman go to the party?
A. By taxi. B. By bus. C. By car.
8. What’ does the man mean?
A. He thinks the dress is too expensive.
B. He doesn’t think the dress is beautiful.
C. He thinks the woman should buy the dress.
9. What will the woman learn during the summer vacation?
A. Cooking. B. Driving. C. Dancing.
10. What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers?
A. Mother and son. B. Waiter and customer. C. Father and daughter.
11. What’s the boy’s resolution?
A. Exercising more. B. Learning to play the guitar. C. Getting better grades.
12. Which festival is the man talking about?
第三节 (共13小题,每小题1分,满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话和独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间,每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答13至15三个小题。
13. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. The travel plan. B. A work plan. C. Shanghai.
14. What can we know about the man?
A. He will fly to Shanghai.
B. He will begin his trip on July 5th.
C. He will go sightseeing around the city by bus.
15. How much will the man pay for his trip?
A. 2000 yuan. B. 1500yuan. C. 1000yuan.
听下面一段对话,回答16至18三个小题。
16. Where are the speakers talking probably?
A. In the boy’s home. B. In the girl’s home. C. On the phone.
17. What does the boy want Linda to do
A. To teach him to make chicken egg soup.
B. To teach him to make chicken noodles.
C. To teach him to make tomato and egg soup.
18. What can we know from the conversation?
A. The boy will go and buy some onions.
B. Linda will go to the boy’s home by bike.
C. Linda often sees some eggs in the kitchen.
听下面一段对话,回答19至21三个小题。
19. Which is Not true according to the conversation?
A. The boy doesn’t mind game shows.
B. Both of them like talk shows.
C. Mary likes to find out what different people think about a subject.
20. What does Mary think of scary movies?
A. Exciting. B. Enjoyable. C. Meaningful
21. What kind of program did they choose to watch?
A. A game show. B. A folk show. C. An act
听下面一段独白,回答22至25四个小题。
22. Why do the students have to start early tomorrow morning?
A. It’s a long way to the East Lake.
B. There is only one bus to the East Lake in the morning.
C. They all want to watch the sunrise in the mountains.
23. What does the speaker advise to bring?
A. Sunglasses. B. An umbrella. C. A jack
24. What can the students do after they get to the East Lake?
A. Take photos and have a picnic. B. Take photos and enjoy the scenery. C. Go fishing and boating.
25. What is the speaker doing?
A. Giving some information about a trip.
B. Offering an invitation of an activity.
C. Making an introduction () about a place.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。将代表该题卡上相应的位置涂黑。
26. —Mom, do you mind if I play computer games for a while?
— __________. But please turn down the sound.
A. Yes, feel free B. With pleasure C. I am sorry D. Not at all
27. —How do you like soap operas?
—__________, but they are not my favorite.
A. I can’t stand them B. That’s OK C. I’d love to D. I don’t mind them
28. —Why are you so worried, Mike?
—There __________ a math test tomorrow—I’m bad at it, you know.
A. is going to have B. will have C. is going to be D. will going to be
29. —What do you think of yesterday’s action movie?
—It is really __________ one that I have ever seen.
A. exciting B. more exciting C. the most exciting D. as exciting
30. —Leo! Mom is going to cook a meal for us!
—What? Oh, no! She’s a good mother but a __________ cook!
A. creative B. poor C. top D. primary
31. A good teacher can always __________ the love of learning in students.
A. water B. decide C. send D. plant
32. —I really want to __________ these details of the story. It’s so long.
—But I think most of them are quite interesting.
A. cut out B. look out C. work out D. get out
33. —Do your family often exercise at weekends?
—__________ of us does. My parents are busy with work while I am busy with study.
A. Both B. None C. All D. Neither
34. —Why not let your brother cook dinner? He is free at home.
—I can’t __________ anything worse—broken dishes, burnt food. . .
A. understand B. imagine C. notice D. wonder
35. —My boss will pay a __________ visit to the factory, though everything is OK.
—Oh! I think he just wants to make sure the plan goes well.
A. personal B. physical C. full D. serious
36. —Don’t try to __________ anything from me, Bob!
—I know nothing about it, Mom. I was doing the homework in my room then.
A. hear B. stop C. get D. hide
37. —You know what? Lisa and Lily are just twins!
—Really? But they’re completely __________ to each other in every way.
A. close B. opposite C. similar D. fit
38. —Sandy never cooks at home! How can a girl be so lazy?
—I don’t think you have __________ to worry, Mom! That’s just a new lifestyle!
A. cause B. opinion C. excuse D. result
39. Mary is looking forward to __________ the result. Please remember __________ her the good news.
A. know; to tell B. knowing; telling C. knowing; to tell D. know; telling
40. —Welcome to my home! What would you like to drink?
—I’m thirsty. __________ will do.
A. Nothing B. Everything C. Something D. Anything
三、完形填空 (共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I was a junior high school student in 1980, God gave me a gift, it was happiness.
One weekend, I went to visit my grandparents in the countryside. On my way home a car ran over me and cut off my 41 because of its high speed. Several days later when I woke up at the hospital, I realized I had to spend the rest of my life 42 arms. How sad I felt at that time! Even I was full of fears. 43 slowly I knew I had to face the fact and got over it. I couldn’t get my arms back even though I 44 every day.
However, it’s easier 45 than done. It took me nearly half a year to get out of the sadness 46 . I got so much from my past story.
From then on, I could treat my life with a 47 mind. But in our daily life, I often see my classmates get 48 about little things: They get a bad grade on a test; their bus comes 49 ; they don’t have a mobile phone, but 50 have, and so on. But I only 51 life. I was lucky to realize from an accident.
It is a waste of our life to focus on what you have 52 . We should always think of what we have. So why are so many people unhappy? Someone may say, “My whole life would improve 53 I have a new car. “But when you get the car and what 54 ? For a whole week you are walking on air. Then you go right back to being unhappy.
Happiness depends on what we have! It’s in our heart. It’s a state of mind, even though you own the whole world, you may still feel 55 . Happiness comes from mastering the art of appreciating (感激) and taking pleasure in what you really have.
41. A. feet B. legs C. arms D. ears
42. A. with B. without C. for D. on
43. A. Or B. But C. So D. Once
44. A. cried B. laughed C. sat D. stood
45. A. dreamed B. acted C. called D. said
46. A. strongly B. especially C. completely D. similarly
47. A. crazy B. normal C. full D. special
48. A. excited B. nervous C. serious D. worried
49. A. early B. first C. fast D. late
50. A. the other B. one another C. other D. others
51. A. hate B. dislike C. enjoy D. save
52. A. lost B. had C. found D. spent
53. A. because B. as C. if D. whether
54. A. happens B. takes place C. used D. uses
55. A. funny B. happy C. excited D. unhappy
四、阅读理解 (共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
_________________________ 93-year-old Jos Bots tries hard to become the world’s oldest solo paraglider (单人滑翔伞运动员). The record before is held by a Polish man who soared (高飞) to heights of 332m at the age of 91 in 2017. Mr. Bots did a test once and he missed (the 300m high level) by 10m because of the bad conditions. He is paying close attention to the weather report waiting for the perfect chance to beat the world record. A Teenager Flies Around the World 17-year-old Mack Rutherford has now set the record for the youngest person to fly around the world alone and broken his sister’s record. He flew in a small, two - seater airplane. One of the plane’s seats was taken the place by an extra gas tank (汽油箱) . This allowed Mack to fly farther. He visited 30 countries in all and he once had to land on an island with no one else on it. Talented Music Boy 10-year-old Seba Stephens became the youngest person ever to receive a professional certificate (证书) in music from the famous Berklee College of Music. The certificate is equal (同等的) to about four college-level classes and is very difficult to get. Seba started a band when he was five and had made money by first grade. |
56. In which section of the newspaper can we read the news?
A. AMAZING LIFE. B. SPORTS DESK. C. BOOK FUN. D. KIDS NEWS.
57. What would be the best heading for the first piece of news?
A. A Dream Comes True. B. Old Man, Challenging Dream.
C. Weather Matters. D Dangerous Solo Paragliding.
58. It’s clear that Jos Bots __________.
A. can’t fly to a height of 300 meters B. has broken his leg in the test
C. hasn’t realized his dream yet D. likes to try what others can’t do
59. What do we know about Mack Rutherford?
A. He flew around the world with his sister. B. His plane could take many people.
C. His sister had flown around the world. D. His flying went well, without any difficulties.
60. Seba Stephens got a certificate in music __________.
A. when he was in the first grade B. to make more money
C. because he played the drums well D. which was of a high standard
B
Almost all cultures celebrate the end of one year and the beginning of another in some way. Different cultures celebrate the beginning of a new year in different ways, and at different times on the calendar.
In Western countries, people usually celebrate New Year at midnight on December 31st-January 1st”. People may go to parties, sometimes dressed in formal (正式的) clothes, and the may drink champagne (香槟) at midnight. During the first minutes of the new year, people cheer and wish each other happiness for the year ahead. But some cultures prefer to celebrate the new year by waking up early to watch the sun rise. They welcome the new wear with the first light of the sunrise.
Many cultures also do special things to get rid of (摆脱) bad luck at the beginning of a new year. For example, in Ecuador, families make a big doll from old clothes. The doll is filled with old newspapers and firecrackers. At midnight, these dolls are burned to show the bad things from the past year are gone and the new year can start afresh (重新地). Other common traditions to keep away bad luck in a new year include throwing things into rivers or the ocean, or saying special things on the first day of the new year.
Other New Year traditions are followed to bring good luck in the new year. One widespread Spanish tradition for good luck is to eat grapes on New Year’s Day. The more grapes a person eats, the more good luck the person will have in the tear. In France, people eat pancakes for good luck at New Year. In the United States, some people eat black—eyed peas for good luck—but to get good luck for a whole year you have to eat 365 of them!
61. The reading is mainly about __________.
A. the meaning of “Happy New Year!
B. several different New Year traditions
C. what to eat on New Year’s Day
D. why people dress up nicely on New Year’s Day
62. It’s clear that __________.
A. some cultures celebrate New Year in the morning
B. the Western people celebrate New Year only on New Year’s Day
C. people in Ecuador go to parties on December 31s1-January 1st
D. no cultures do special things to celebrate New Year
63. In some cultures, people throw things into rivers or oceans to __________.
A. bring good luck B. keep away bad luck C. forget everything D. plan for the next year
64. To have a happy new year __________.
A. friends talk to each other in special ways
B. families make big dolls filled with old clothes
C. some people get up early to watch the sunrise
D. Europeans eat 365 grapes on New Year’s Day
65. When eating black-eyed peas on New Year’s Day, people think __________.
A. one pea brings one day of luck B. black-eyed peas are the best medicine
C. the peas are too black and taste bad D. the peas are helpful to count numbers
C
There in the tall trees of our small backyard, some birds nest and bring up their young.
Living with these little animals is joyful. But sometimes, it hurts to see them die.
One winter morning, I found a baby blackbird sitting still in a corner. I picked it up, quickly moved it near a fire and covered it with a towel. Then I made silly bird noises, expecting that it would reply. It was breathing, though very weakly. But it did start to feel warmer, so there was hope!
In the next few hours, I kept coming to check on it. One time, its eyes opened and it seemed to look at me, but most of the time its legs were outstretched (伸直的) . This was not a good sign! But I still kept making bird noises, saying, “Come on! Be strong!” I just wanted it to know that there was someone who cared. Unluckily, it still didn’t pull through.
During that whole winter, I always couldn’t get that poor baby bird out of my mind. “Why couldn’t I save it? What about its brothers or sisters?”
Dad watched all of these, but said nothing.
One sunny spring day, he invited me to walk with him in the backyard. Right there in the trees, I saw three young blackbirds singing happily. Oh! These baby blackbirds survived and they came to visit us again!
“See! Some birds die, and some live. That’s life! But we still should carry the hope for life, right?” said Dad gently, and I knew he was right.
66. The little bird sat still in the corner perhaps because __________.
A. it couldn’t find its family then B. it came to visit the author
C. it tried to find a warm place D. it was too weak because of the cold
67. The author made some bird noises because he was trying to __________.
A. call the blackbird’s friends over and help it together
B. wake up the young bird and encourage it to survive
C. make the baby bird feel warmer in this way
D. tell the bird some good news of its brothers and sisters
68. It’s clear that __________.
A. the author’s family liked keeping birds in the yard
B. the blackbird got better soon under the author’s care
C. the author thought that the bird had some hope to live on at first
D. the bird also made some noises to thank the author
69. The author kept thinking of that poor blackbird because __________.
A. he felt so sorry for not bringing it back to life
B. he missed the bird’s happy voice a lot
C. its family were all in danger
D. he could never see any birds in the yard
70. We can infer from the passage that __________.
A. only three birds survived the winter
B. the author was quite good at speaking the bird’s language
C. Dad brought other birds back to make the author happy
D. the author might understand the meaning of life and feel much better at last
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共35分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
仔细阅读下面五个句子,然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空,使每个句子在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示:方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
71. I’m going to write articles and __________ them to magazines and newspapers.
72. In most countries, people usually eat __________ food on special holidays.
73. Problems and __________ are normal in life. But talking to someone about them can help a lot.
74. Today there are __________ robots working in factories.
75. However, I’d still be glad to __________ with any of the party preparations, like planning the games.
八、阅读理解填词 (共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入适当的单词,单词的第一个字母已给出。
The oil paper umbrella (油纸伞) is a traditional Chinese art. It has a history of over 1000 years in China. In e__________ (76) Tang Dynasty (朝代), people brought it to Japan and Korea, so it was called “Tang Umbrella”. Later, the oil paper umbrellas became popular in other Asian countries. However, after the steel-ribbed (钢骨) umbrellas appeared in the 1850s, the hand-made oil paper umbrellas became l__________ (77) used in daily life. They were turned into decorative artifact (装饰性工艺品) .
Yuhang in Hangzhou is known for making oil paper umbrellas for more than 230 years. They are mainly made of skin paper, bamboo, a coating of Tung oil (桐油). They need to take more than seventy s__________ (78) to make, such as making bamboo ribs, pasting papers (糊纸) and painting patterns (图案) and soon. It takes at l__________ (79) a week to make one umbrella. In 2008, people a__________ (80) these umbrellas to Intangible Cultural Heritage List (非物质文化遗产名录) of China.
A young man called Liu Weixue learned the traditional art of making oil paper umbrellas from his grandfather. “I want to bring the art to life.” Liu said. He i__________ (81) the umbrellas to win the hearts of young people. As the traditional paper was e__________ (82) to break, he started to use a kind of thicker (较厚的) paper. In a t__________ (83), he opened and closed the umbrellas for 1000 times without breaking
Now Liu h__________ (84) the art can be passed on. He goes to the school to teach students. He also goes to e__________ (85) in different places to make more people be interested in the art.
七、书面表达 (共1大题,满分15分)
新年即将来临,辞旧迎新之际,学校举办”Looking back on 2022 and Looking forward to2023”的英语演讲活动。假如你是李华,请根据下面的要点用英文写一篇演讲稿。
内容要点如下:
1. 2022年收获很大,阅读了大量的书籍,获得丰富的知识;并且与同学们相处融治;
2. 2023年,你将开始一个新爱好,如学一门新的语言或乐器,成为更好的自己;
3. 帮忙分担家务,花更多时间和家人在一起;
4. 一周锻炼五次,养成更好地生活习惯;为将来成为宇航员做好准备。
注意:
1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称:
2. 词数:60-80;标题和开头已给出,不计入总词数:
3. 内容连贯,不要逐条翻译。
参考词汇:knowledge n. 知识 (不可数); instrument n. 乐器; develop v. 培养、养成
Looking back on 2022 and Looking forward to 2023
Good morning, everyone! My name is Li Hua. I feel it a great honor to speak here.
I learned a lot in 2022. _____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
武汉市东西湖区2022-2023学年上学期期末
八年级 英语试题 参考答案
一、听力部分 (1*25) :
1-5ACCBC 6-10 ABCAB 11-15 CBACA 16-20 CABAC 21-25 BACBA
二、选择填空 (1*15) :
26-30 DDCCB 31-35 DABBA 36-40 DBACD
三、完形填空 (1*15) :
41-45 CBBAD 46-50 CBDDD 51-55 CACAD
四、阅读理解 (2*15)
56-60 ABCCD 61-65 BABCA 66-70 DBCAD
五、词语短语选择填空 (2*5) :
71. send 72. traditional 73. worries 74. already 75. help out
六、阅读理解填词 (1*10)
76. early 77. less 78. steps 79. least 80. added
81. improved 82. easy 83. test 84. hopes 85. events
七、书面表达 (15*) :
Looking back on 2022 and Looking forward to 2023
Good morning, everyone! My name is Li Hua. I feel it a great honor to speak here.
I’ve learned a lot in 2022. In my spare time, I read lots of books so that I got much knowledge. I got along well with my classmates as well. The new year is around the corner, I want to change myself. First of all, to be better myself, I’ll take up a new hobby like learning a new language or instrument. Besides, I will help out with housework and spend more time with my family. In addition to, I’ll keep in good health by exercising 5 times a week to develop better living habits. And I’m always making preparations for being an astronaut.
I hope I can make it!
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