安徽省阜南县2023-2024学年高一上学期期中教学质量调研英语试题
展开英 语
考生注意:
1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上,并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。 回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5 小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:Hw much is the shirt?
A.₤ 19.15. B.£9.18. C.£9.15.
答案是 C。
1. Whse raincat is that?
A. The man speaker's. B. The wman's. C. The wman's brther's.
2. What will the wman get?
A. Free things. B. Extra mney. C. Cheap things.
3. Hw much des the wman ask nw?
A. $500. B. $490. C. $450.
4. What des the man lve?
A. Tennis. B. Sccer. C. Vlleyball.
5. Where des the cnversatin take place?
A. In a schl. B. In a restaurant. C. In a supermarket.
第二节(共15 小题;每小题1.5 分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. When shuld the dinner be ready?
A. At 5:00. B. At 5:30. C. At6:30.
7. What des the wman ask the man t d?
A. Set the table. B. Cme n time. C. Believe in her.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. What will the man d tnight?
A. G dancing. B. Exercise utdrs. C. Watch a sccer match.
9. Wh des the wman want t g with?
A. Bb. B. Mary. C. The wman's brther.
听第8段材料,回答第 10 至 12 题。
10. What club will the wman prbably jin?
A. The art club. B. The phtgraphy club. C. The basketball club.
11. What is Bill gd at?
A. Drawing. B. Playing basketball. C. Singing.
12. What is the relatinship between the speakers?
A. Wrkmates. B. Classmates. C. Teacher and student.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What des the wman want t d?
A. Lse weight. B. Imprve health. C. Becme an athlete.
14. Which part f the wman des the trainer want t train?
A. Her legs. B. Her heart. C. Her stmach.
15. Hw lng shuld the wman walk in ttal?
A. Fr 10 minutes. B. Fr 20 minutes. C. Fr 40 minutes.
16. Hw ften shuld the wman take walks?
A. Every day. B. Every week. C. Every mnth.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. What is the speaker?
A. A student. B. A dctr. C. A teacher.
18. Hw many physical activities des the speaker suggest in the speech?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
19. Which habit helps rganize yur thughts and gals?
A. Ging fr a walk. B. Keeping diaries. C. Taking deep breaths.
20. What is the speech abut?
A. Ideas n dealing with stress.
B. Where the stress cmes frm.
C. Hw stress influences students.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15 小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Welcme t the Fllwing Art Activities
Family Zne
Sunday, Octber 1, 1 p. m.—4 p. m.
Families are invited t visit the MFAH Family Zne. Yu’ll find attractive activities with clring sheets, clr ed pencils, bks, and mre. Knwledgeable prfessinals(专业人员) are n hand t help answer questins abut the wrks f art n shw.
Happy Hur Thursday
Thursday. September 28. 5 p. m.——8 p. m.
Happy Hur Thursday is the place t be! Meet yur friends at the MFAH fr the best night f the week. Explre the campus, visit the galleries(画廊), and get a drink at the public huse (cash nly).
General admissin is free n Thursday, and the Museum is pen late.
Art Bites I American Painting and Sculpture
Thursday. Octber 5.6 p. m.——6:30 p. m.
A little art can g a lng way! Visit the galleries and enjy the art. The fcus f this Art Bite tur is n American painting and sculpture. Art Bite turs are 30 minutes lng and are part f the Happy Hur Thursday festivities at the Museum. This guided tur is included with general admissin, w hich is free n Thursdays.
Glassell Studi Schl
Curses in art are ffered the fall, spring, and summer
The Glassell Studi Schl ffers curses in art histry and studi arts fr adults ages 18 and lder f all skill and experience levels. Studi curses and wrkshps are available( 可得到的) in varius frms f media, including painting, drawing, printmaking, digital and film phtgraphy, 3D design, and mre. Curses are ffered in the fall, spring, and summer semesters. Sign up fr the next semester belw.
21. What can yu d when visiting Family Zne?
A. Have a drink with yur family. B. Take a curse t learn art skills.
C. Put yur wn artwrks n shw. D. Ask experts fr infrmatin abut art.
22. What d Happy Hur Thursday and Art Bites have in cmmn?
A. They last 30 minutes. B. They are free n Thursdays.
C. They are held at night. D. They nly accept cash.
23. Which f the fllwing hlds art classes?
A. Art Bites. B. Family Zne.
C. Glassell Studi Schl. D. Happy Hur Thursday.
B
A Nrwegian wman and her Nepali Sherpa guide have cmpleted the fastest climb f the wrld's 14 highest muntains. Kristin Harila, aged 37, and her guide Tenjen Sherpa, aged 35, reached the tp f the final muntain, K2, last Thursday.
All the tps the tw reached are abve 8,000 meters, said Karrar Haidri, the secretary at the Pakistan Alpine Club. They did it in 92 days. The frmer recrd-hlder, Nirmal Purja, a Nepali-brn British citizen. climbed the 14 peaks(顶峰) in 189 days in 2019. Mst muntain climbers spend years trying t climb the wrld's greatest peaks.
Bth climbers tpped Shishapangma in the Tibet area f China n April 26. They have since climbed Everest, Kanchenjunga, Lhtse, Makalu, Ch Oyu, Dhaulagiri, Manaslu, and Annapurna in Nepal befre ging t Pakistan, where they climbed Nanga Parbat, Gasherbrum I, Gasherbrum II and the Brad Peak befre tpping K2. The cmpany Seven Summit Treks(SST)prvided supprt fr the climbers’ effrts.
Garrett Madisn f the U. S.-based Madisn Muntaineering cmpany is als n K2, leading a different grup. He said the climbers used a windw f gd weather t g t the tp f the muntain. “They have dne it a shrt while ag,” Madisn tld the media, adding that the Nrwegian wman was “extremely strng mentally and physically.”
Harila first planned t break the recrd and climb all 14 tp peaks in 2022. Hwever, China cnfined freign climbers because f the safety requirement, s Harila was unable t climb tw f the 14 peaks.
K2 has ne f the mst dangerus recrds fr muntaineers, with mst deaths happening n the return dwn. Any wrng mve can cause a snwslide(雪崩), and kill. Only a few hundred climbers have successfully reached its tp.
And ne mre climber made that list and set anther recrd n Thursday, reprted SST directr Tashi Lakpa Sherpa. Seventeen-year-ld Nima became the yungest persn t climb K2, Tashi said.
24. Which is the key t setting the muntain climbing recrd fr Harila and Sherpa?
A. The way they chse t climb muntains.
B. The number f muntains they climbed.
C. The time they spent in climbing muntains.
D. The heights f the muntains they climbed.
25. What des the underlined wrd “cnfined” in paragraph 5 prbably mean?
A. Stpped. B. Encuraged. C. Guided. D. Preferred.
26. Which f the fllwing statements matches K2?
A. It may cause life-risks t its climbers.
B. It is lcked dwn fr sme mnths a year.
C. It is the highest amng the 14 muntains.
D. It is the mst ppular amng climbers.
27. What can be learned abut Harila and Nima?
A. They climbed the muntains tgether.
B. They are the new wrld recrd makers.
C. They climbed furteen high muntains.
D. They used gd weather t climb K2 successfully.
C
Five secnds are left n the clck. The ball is passed frm ne player t anther. The athletes mve quickly past ppnents(对手). In the final secnd, a player scres the winning gal. What sets this match apart? The players are in wheelchairs.
Wheelchair rugby is played in mre than 25 cuntries arund the wrld, with men and wmen cmpeting equally. It is als a sprt in the Summer Paralympics, the wrld’s secnd-largest sprting event after the Olympics.
The sprt's rules and equipment are different frm traditinal rugby, which has 15 players n an utdr field and kicking methds that are similar t ftball in the United States. Wheelchair rugby is played indrs n a small hardwd curt. Only fur players frm each 10-member team are n the curt at the same time. In wheelchair rugby, the ball is smaller than a traditinal rugby ball and rund instead f val(椭圆形). This makes it easier t carry n ne’s knee. It's als easier t catch, which is imprtant because sme players struggle with hand mvements.
In wheelchair rugby, the aim is t carry the ball acrss the gal line. Instead f kicking ther players alng the way, the athletes crash with each ther in rder t kick the ball ut.
In New Zealand, the All Blacks, the traditinal rugby team, are widely knwn. But nt everyne knws abut the Wheel Blacks, wh travel acrss the cuntry and internatinally t cmpete.
Members f this great team wn the gld medal in the 2004 Paralympic Games and the third medal in the 2019 Asia-Oceania Champinships.
The team captain encurages everyne t find a sprt they lve, n matter what limitatins(限制) they may have. “In any sprt that yu’re wanting t try,” he said, “just g fr it. Dn’t be afraid t push the limit."
28. What is special abut the match intrduced in the text?
A. It is very cmpetitive. B. There's smething wrng with the players' bdy.
C. Men and wmen cmpete tgether. D. It receives great attentin.
29. What des paragraph 3 mainly talk abut?
A. The histry f the game. B. The traditinal rugby.
C. Different rugby balls. D. Differences between tw kinds f sprts.
30. What happens during the wheelchair rugby?
A. Athletes run after each ther. B. Athletes break the rules a lt.
C. Athletes knck int each ther. D. Athletes kick ther players wildly.
31. What des the captain encurage thers t d?
A. Try their best in the sprt t win an hnr.
B. D mre exercise t push their limit.
C. Take part in different sprts if they have time.
D. Face limitatins and d the sprt they lve.
D
The WMO says Earth just had its httest summer ever. August f this year was the httest August ever recrded with mdern equipment since 1979. It was als the secnd httest mnth ever recrded, behind nly July 2023.
August was abut 1.5 degrees Celsius warmer than pre-industrial averages(平均). That is the highest ne that wrld leaders have said the wrld must nt pass. Scientists, hwever, are mre wrried abut temperature increases ver many years and nt just a few mnths.
S far, scientists said 2023 has been the secnd httest year that it has recrded, behind nly 2016. But daily August temperatures are higher than thse recrded fr the same perid in earlier years. The WMO als said the wrld's ceans were the httest ever recrded at nearly 21 degrees Celsius. Water cvers mre than 70 percent f the Earth's surface.
Scientists blame(把……归咎于) the heat n the burning f cal, il and natural gas and the added influence frm El Niñ fr the warming climate. El Niñ is a warming f the suthern Pacific Ocean that affects weather wrldwide. It changes weather arund the wrld and even mre s in its secnd year.
Climatlgist Andrew Weaver was nt surprised by the numbers. He said gvernments have nt taken glbal warming seriusly enugh. He expressed wrry that the public will frget the prblem when temperatures fall again.
While the wrld's air and ceans are setting recrds fr heat, Antarctica(南极) cntinues t set recrds fr lw amunts(数量) f sea ice. “Antarctic sea ice cver is actually an area that has nt been develped, and the glbal sea surface temperature is nce again at a new recrd,”WMO's secretary-general, Petteri Taalas, said in a statement. Taalas added,“It is wrth nticing that this was happening befre we see the full warming influence f the El Nifi event.”
32. What can we knw abut the year 2016?
A. It had the httest August n recrd. 1 00B. Its temperature set a new recrd that year.
C. It had the mst ht mnths that year. D. Its temperature passed the limit humans can bear.
33. What can be learned frm paragraph 4?
A. Causes f climate change. B. Harm f glbal warming.
C. Ways t stp glbal warming. D. Rles f the ceans.
34. What des Taalas think f the cean temperature?
A. It may be even mre wrrying. B. It remains unchanged these years.
C. It rises at a fixed speed every year. D. It has n clear influence n climate.
35. Which f the fllwing can be the best title fr the text?
A. Humans Are Respnsible fr Climate Change
B. Cntinuing Glbal Warming Wrries Scientists
C. The Lss f Earth's Ice Cver Harms Humans
D. This Summer Has Been the Httest n Recrd
第二节(共5 小题;每小题2.5 分,满分12.5 分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A simple and cmmn way t water plants is t hld a garden pipe(管子) and let the water fall dwn directly n the plants and sil. This is a gd chice that des nt waste water. It als can help prevent plant disease. But a garden pipe is nt the nly way t water yur plants.
The When and Hw f Watering
36 This lets the water g deeply int the sil befre the weather gets t ht. If yu water late in the day, the water will just evaprate(蒸发) frm the surface. If yu water in the evening,the plants stay t wet vernight.
Hw yu water is just as imprtant as when yu water. If yu water quickly every day, it des nt help the rts, which can spread ver 30 centimeters int the sil. Water the sil less ften, but deeply. Be careful when watering very dry sil because the water will just run ff withut getting int the sil. 37
Cllect and Reuse Water
One way t help keep csts lw fr watering is t use used water. Instead f emptying water ut after biling fds, keep it and reuse it t water plants. 38 Yu can als catch and use rainwater.
Chse Native Plants
Mst gardeners just think abut which plants lk gd and the plants’ sunlight needs. 39 Drught-resistant(抗旱的) plants shuld nt be verwatered when trying t keep thirstier plants watered.
It is als best t use plants that are native(当地的) t the area where yu live. These plants are likely t be resistant t drught. 40 After that, they can live n just rainwater except fr during times f extreme heat.
A. Put mre pipes arund the plants.
B. But watering needs shuld be cnsidered, t.
C. Just make sure the water des nt have salt in it.
D. They just need watering fr the first tw years.
E. The best time t water yur plants is in the mrning.
F. Grwing plants in cntainers usually needs much water.
G. Water yur plants slwly and make sure the water is taken in by earth.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15 小题;每小题1 分,满分15 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C和 D 四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Recently an ld friend reached ut t me t ask abut the success I've had in my life r at least what 41 success n scial media and hw I achieved it. Because we have the 42 gals——get in shape, get int music mre seriusly, and be gd at 43 .
Thugh I haven't 44 reached my lng-term gals yet, he's seen that I've made sme prgress n my jurney t achieving these gals and wanted my 45 .
We had a(n) 46 n the phne abut this fr an hur and a half and it seemed like he was 47 by my experience at last. A week went by and he tld me that he 48 a persnal fitness class. He is als studying music, and ften sends me sme vides f him studying Chinese. He ften 49 all f the prgress he's making n scial media.
I'm thankful fr him giving me the 50 t give him suggestins, and I'm glad t see that he's spending the time and mney 51 himself. He even psted recently abut hw happy he is with all the recent 52 in his life.
Even if yu're still nt where yu want t be, there are a lt f peple ut there wh 53 what yu have and wh are impressed with hw far yu've cme. It's gd t realize hw far yu've cme, be 54 fr what yu have dne, and recgnize hw much yu can 55 thers t achieve the same.
41. A. des with B. differs frm C. lks like D. depends n
42. A. easy B. similar C. attractive D. special
43. A. basketball B. English C. running D. Chinese
44. A. cmpletely B. simply C. regretfully D. cmfrtably
45. A. excuse B. purpse C. service D. advice
46. A. argument B. talk C. jke D. meeting
47. A. prtected B. encuraged C. challenged D. questined
48. A. signed up fr B. tk cntrl f C. gave in t D. came up with
49. A. shares B. researches C. crrects D. remembers
50. A. ability B. methd C. chance D. supprt
51. A. understanding B. balancing C. teaching D. imprving
52. A. truble B. changes C. experiments D. trade
53. A. admire B. realize C. regret D. cmpare
54. A. careful B. serius C. prud D. ready
55. A. expect B. agree C. chse D. influence
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题1.5 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式,并将答案填写在答题卡上。
The term Xuan paper first appeared in On Famus Paintings thrugh the Ages, a bk 56 was written by Tang Dynasty(618——907) schlar Zhang Yanyuan. In the bk, he described Xuan paper 57 a perfect carrier fr writing and painting. Handma de Xuan paper frm Jingxian cunty, East China's Anhui Prvince, 58 (list) as a gift t the imperial curt(宫廷) fr the highest quality during that perid.
The traditinal skill f 59 (prduce) Xuan paper is demanding(要求高的). Sandalwd bark, a plant native t suthern China, ges thrugh 108 60 (step) tgether with rice straw(稻草) ver a perid f three years befre it can be made int fine Xuan paper. 61 whle curse is s difficult that even the mst skilled wrkers can nly d part f it.
The flw f ink decides the making f Chinese art, and Xuan paper is much 62 (gd)than ther paper with 63 (it) excellent ability t give full play t ink. Different materials during the paper making prcess can create different paper suited fr artistic expressin in freehand ink painting r writing.
Xuan paper has gne with the making f the Chinese artists fr thusands f years. Unlike ther frms f paper, Xuan paper is strng enugh 64 (stand) harm brught by time. It is this 65 (strng) that has made the prtectins f many valuable wrks frm ancient China pssible.Paper making is the wisdm f the ancient Chinese, and Xuan paper is the tp f paper making.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15 分)
假定你是校学生会主席李华,你校将于本周五举办主题为自然灾害(natural disaster)的讲座,请你为校英语广播站写一则通知。要点包括:
1.讲座时间及安排;
2.注意事项。
注意:1.写作词数应为80个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Ntice
The Student Unin
第二节(满分25 分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It's been ver a year since I started my jb fr neurpathy(神经病) treatments at a well-knwn healthcare center here in Oklahma. Since then I seem t becme very ppular, shwn nthing but lve, kindness and cnsideratin each time I arrive.
Anyway, tw weeks ag I met a lady named Judith, wh received neurpathy treatments there. She came here fr treatments every a few days. She lived alne, withut any children r family members arund.
One day, I talked with a wrker there. I tld her I was nce a caregiver and ran int sme prblems with my right leg after a terrible fall. That fall brke sme bnes in my right leg and left me with a large steel plate and 20 screws(螺丝).
Realizing my new challenges led me t have t make sme persnal changes. S I created sme f my latest hme prjects: vegetables and gardens, chickens and ducks and ther animals in my huse like dgs, cats and birds. I was just sharing hw I kept busy as part f my new exercise plan.
Then Judith wheeled ver and plitely interrupted(打断) and began asking abut my animals but she was mre interested in my birds. S I shared that I had several birds and she mentined she had tw new bird cages(鸟笼) that were given t her by her neighbr. And she had been hanging n t them and nw she wuld like t give them away. Hnestly, I culd use them because the cage I use nw was handmade but withut any drs t mve away waste. I felt like this ffer frm Judith was made fr me.
注意:1.续写词数应为 150 个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
S l decided t get the cage frm her huse after her treatment. Later, Judith had an peratin and needed smene t lk after her.
阜南县2023—2024学年度高一教学质量调研
英语·答案
听力原文
Text 1
W: Yur raincat is almst the same as my brther's.
M: Really? As a matter f fact, I just brrwed it frm him.
Text 2
M: I'm here t save yu sme mney. Just buy tw bxes f chclates, and I'll give yu five free eggs.
W: I've gt fur bxes here. Des that mean I can get ten eggs?
Text 3
M: Hw much are yu selling the cmputer fr?
W: At the beginning, I was asking $500, but I'll ask fr 10% less if yu buy it frm me tday.
Text 4
W: I'm trying ut fr the tennis team and the vlleyball team this term. What abut yu?
M: I'm nt ging t try ut fr anything. I lve sccer, but my teacher tld me we dn't have enugh peple t frm a team.
Text 5
M: Madam, this sit-dwn restaurant is mstly fr, uh…guests withut small children. Perhaps yu wuld be mre cmfrtable at a supermarket.
W:Our daughter is very plite, and we want t let her experience health y fd. Culd yu allw us in?
Text 6
M: Linda, are yu sure yu can finish it by 5 'clck? The guests will start arriving at 5:30.
W: Dn't wrry, Ken. The tables, chairs, and fd are all set. We've never let yu dwn befre, have we?
M: That's true, yu haven't. I'm just nervus. This dinner fr the CEO is really imprtant.
W: Ken, when yu trust us, yu trust cnfidence.
Text 7
W: Mike, what are yu ging t d tnight? D yu want t g dancing?
M: I'd lve t, Laura, but I can't. I'm ging t watch a sccer match with my brther.
W: Yu mean Bb?
M: Yes. Hey, are yu ding anything tmrrw? We culd g dancing then.
W: Tmrrw sunds fine. I'm ging t wrk until five.
M: S let's g arund six.
W: OK. Hey, why dn't we ask Mary t g with us?
M: Why nt? Later, maybe we can get sme dinner.
W: Sunds great.
Text 8
M:Hey, Linda. I'm lking at this list f schl clubs. There are s many chices! Which ne are yu ging t chse?
W: I like t draw, s maybe I'll jin the art club. Hw abut yu, Bill?
M: The phtgraphy club sunds like fun t me. But I dn't have my wn camera.
W: What a pity! D yu see the basketball club n the list? And I knw yu really like playing basketball.
M: I d. But I'm nt sure I play well enugh t jin the club.
W: Well, are yu ging t jin any ther clubs?
M:Of curse! I'm ging t becme a member f the schl's singing team. Yu knw hw much I lve t sing and I really sing well!
W: Yu're right. The singing team is perfect fr yu! Be sure and sign up befre Friday.
M: OK.
Text 9
W: Excuse me. I'm new here. I want t get back int shape. Can yu give me sme advice?
M:N prblem. We get a lt f peple like yu here. S yu are nt alne. I'm Peter Smith, head trainer here. It's nice t meet yu.
W: Hi, I'm Sally. S, where shuld I begin? There are s many machines t chse frm.
M: Well, I wuld suggest sme basic exercises just t train yur heart and sme f thse parts that have been ut f use fr a while.
W: S, shuld I get n this first?
M: Yes. Yu shuld start by walking fr 20 minutes, and then run slwly fr 10 minutes befre walking fr anther 20minutes.
W: Well, I can d that. Hw many times every mnth shuld I d it?
M: Every mnth? Yu shuld be asking hw many times every day!
W: Ww, it lks like getting back int shape is ging t be a big challenge. I hpe I can find the time.
Text 10
M: Many peple ften feel stressed these days, especially fr us students. If yu dn't want t g t the dctr's r ask ur teachers fr help, here I have sme ideas t help yu feel mre active.
Medical studies shw that the best way t deal with stress is thrugh exercise. But nt everyne has time fr that,especially students. In this case, try ding sme exercise such as push-ups. Yu culd als practice sme dance mves.Other exercises yu culd d are weight-lifting and rpe-jumping. If yu prefer t be utside, yu culd g fr a walk in a park.
Anther way yu culd deal with yur stress is by writing dwn yur prblems and thughts. Yu culd make time t write in a diary every day, fr example. Yu might find that making this a habit actually helps rganize yur thughts and gals and keeps yu thinking psitively. Finally, take sme time t take deep, slw breaths. It's easy, quick, and yu dn't need t stp yur studies t d it.
(共 20 小题;每小题1.5分,满分 30 分)
1——5 CACBB 6——10 ACCBA 11——15 CBABC 16——20 AACBA
(共 20 小题;每小题2.5分,满分50 分)
21——25 DBCCA 26——30 ABBDC 31——35 DBAAD 36——40 EGCBD
(共 15 小题;每小题1分,满分 15 分)
41——45 CBDAD 46——50 BBAAC 51——55 DBACD
(共 10 小题;每小题1.5分,满分 15分)
56. which/that 57. as 58. was listed 59. prducing 60. steps
61. The 62. better 63. its 64. t stand 65. strength
写作第一节(满分15 分)
One pssible versin:
Ntice
T let students knw mre abut natural disasters, ur schl will hld a lecture this Friday. The lecture will take place in the schl hall at 2 pm n Friday. It will be presented by a grup f experts, wh will share their knwledge and experience with us. There will als be a Q & A sessin after the lecture, where yu can ask any questins yu may have.
Yu are suppsed t arrive n time and be respectful t the speakers and yur fellw students. Please als be mindful f yur behavir during the Q&A sessin.
We lk frward t seeing yu all at the lecture.
The Student Unin
评分原则
1.本题总分为15分,按5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于60 的,从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
7.内容要点可用不同方式表达,对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
【各档次的给分范围和要求】
第五档:(13——15 分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.覆盖所有内容要点。
3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
4.语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。
5.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档:(10——12 分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉1、2 个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
6.达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档:(7——9分)
1.基本完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
6.整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档:(4——6 分)
1.未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
2.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
3.语法结构单调、词汇知识有限。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
5.较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
6.信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档:(1——3 分)
1.未完成试题规定的任务。
2.明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
3.语法结构单调、词汇知识有限。
4.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
5.缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
6.信息未能传达给读者。
不得分:(0分)
未能传达给读者任何信息;内容太少,无法评判;所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
写作第二节(满分25 分)
One pssible versin:
S I decided t get the cage frm her huse after her treatment. I drve with Judith t her huse. When we arrived there, she tk ut the tw cages and gave them t me. I fund the cages are large, strng and beautiful, just the kind I was lking frward t. I thanked her fr her gifts. I was glad t take the cages hme, and I culdn't wait t put the birds int their new hme. The birds als seemed t enjy their new hme, and were hpping abut ha ppily in it.
Later , Judith had an peratin and needed smene t lk after her. I thught this wuld be a gd chance fr me t repay her, s withut hesitatin I ffered t take care f her fr free. I knw she wuld accept my help as she lived alne and had n children r relatives t care fr her. It was I wh helped her with her husewrk such as washing clthes,cking and cleaning. Judith was very grateful fr my help. I tld her it was the right thing fr me t d in return fr her kindness.
评分原则
1.本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于 130的,从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
(2)内容的丰富性;
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
【各档次的给分范围和要求】
第五档:(21——25 分)
1.与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
2.所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
3.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档:(16—20 分)
1.与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
2.所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但不影响意义表达。
3.比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档:(11—15 分)
1.与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
2.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但不影响意义表达。
3.应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档:(6—10 分)
1.与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
2.语法结构单调,词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。
3.较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档:(1—5 分)
1.与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
2.语法结构单调,词汇项目很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达。
3.缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
不得分:(0分)
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
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