2023年山东省济南市历下区中考一模英语试题（含答案）

2023年九年级学业水平第一次模拟考试

英语试题（LX2023.4）

本试题分选择题部分和非选择题部分，共8页，满分为150分，考试用时120分钟。

答题前，请考生务必将自己的姓名、座号和准考证号填写在答题卡上，并同时将考点、姓名、准考证号和座号填写在试卷规定的位置。

答题时，选择题部分每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。

考试结束后，将本试题和答题卡一并交回。

选择题部分  共90分

I．听力测试（30分）

A)听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。

1. A. This is my cousin.   B. I like pandas best.   C. She has a volleyball.

2. A. Have a nice trip!   B. Let’s make a cake!   C. Hope things work out!

3. A. Are these his trousers?  B. Is there a park near here?  C. Does he have a fever?

4. A. Lily can’t find her pencil.  B. Sarah didn’t go to the zoo.  C. Jill doesn’t eat junk food.

5. A. How old is the actor?  B. Who went to the countryside?  C. Why not talk to her?

B)在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。

6. How will they get to the cinema?

A. By bus.    B. By subway.   C. By bike.

7. Who did Dave go fishing with?

A. His father.   B. His sister.   C. His brother.

8. What club does Andy want to join?

A. The sports club.   B. The music club.   C. The art club.

9. When did Bob wake up?

A. At 10:00.   B. At 10:30.   C. At 11:00.

10. Where probably are the speakers?

A. In a restaurant.   B. In a shop.   C. In the hospital.

C)在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。

11. How many years haven’t they seen each other?

A. 3.    B. 4.    C. 5.

12. Which subject did Ms. Li teach?

A. Science.   B. History.    C. English.

13. When will Jack go to the university?

A. Next week.   B. Next month.   C. Next year.

14. What does Jack want to be?

A. A scientist.   B. An engineer.   C. A teacher.

15. Where are they going now?

A. The classroom.   B. The playground.   C. The dining hall.

D)在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。

16. Where was the watermelon field?

A. Near a small lake.   B. Around a big forest.   C. At the foot of the hill.

17. What was the weather like that day?

A. Cloudy.    B. Sunny.    C. Rainy.

18. How far was it from home when Lulu had a rest?

A. About 400 meters.   B. About 600 meters.   C. About 800 meters.

19. What happened to the watermelon?

A. It broke into pieces.   B. It was eaten by Pipi.   C. It fell into the lake.

20. How did Lulu feel at the end of the story?

A. Happy.    B. Sad.    C. Relaxed.

II．完形填空  阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。（15分）

Reggie was a normal boy, but he had been born ___21___. Unluckily, he always seemed to end up being treated differently and very carefully. Children ___22___ that they would hurt him, and that maybe he wouldn’t hear the ball being hit in his direction.

Reggie didn’t like this very much. And the person who disliked it most was his friend Michael. He decided one day that things had to ___23___. One great idea ___24___ Michael’s mind. His father was the town’s mayor(镇长), and he managed to convince(说服) his father that this year, they should give a one-day ___25___ to deaf people. During that whole day ___26___ in town would have to wear earplugs(耳机).

People liked the idea, because everyone loved Reggie. The day became known as The Day of ___27___, and when it arrived everyone stuck earplugs in their ears. That morning people showed up with ___28___ and great interest. But as hours passed, people got to know how ___29___ life was when you couldn’t hear anything.

Reggie was very ___30___! On that day no one was thinking of Reggie as just a deaf person. This meant he could be treated just ___31___ any other little boy, and people saw a whole new side of him. Not only that, but Reggie had a bright and sharp mind. On that day, using his usual gestures(手势), Reggie was the one who could ___32___ best with everyone. People paid more attention to what he was saying, and they were ___33___ by his intelligence, creativity, and his ability to find solutions to almost any problem. They realized that in normal life all Reggie needed was a little ___34___ time than others to communicate. That was the only difference. ___35___ they should treat him as common as possible.

We should give everyone with disability a chance to show their good qualities.

21.A. deaf   B. foolish   C. blind   D. outgoing

22.A. wished  B. decided   C. worried   D. asked

23.A. lose   B. leave   C. return   D. change

24.A. entered  B. saved   C. cleaned   D. sent

25.A. lesson  B. game   C. festival   D. trip

26.A. nobody  B. everybody  C. anybody  D. somebody

27.A. Music  B. Dance   C. Silence   D. Glasses

28.A. excitement  B. achievement  C. questions  D. jokes

29.A. strict   B. lucky   C. difficult   D. easy

30.A. funny  B. upset   C. happy   D. angry

31.A. about  B. in   C. without   D. like

32.A. communicate  B. produce   C. develop   D. protect

33.A. surprised  B. scared   C. educated  D. needed

34.A. more  B. quicker   C. louder   D. safer

35.A. But   B. Because   C. Or   D. So

III．补全对话  阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。（5分）

A: Jack, you look unhappy. ___36___

B: Well, I don’t know. I just feel tired.

A: Oh. ___37___

B: To tell the truth, I can’t stand being asked to study the whole weekend.

A: Have you talked about your feeling with your parents?

B: No. ___38___ They believe only hard work makes perfect and won’t agree with me.

A: See, you never talk. ___39___ Communicating properly helps solve problems.

B: Maybe you are right.

A: By the way, I heard you are good at chess.

B: Thanks. ___40___

A: I set up a chess club last week. Come and join us.

B: OK, sounds great. Thank you for cheering me up.

36.A. What is your secret?   B. What’s the matter?

C. What can I do for you?   D. What would you like to do?

37.A. Where did you go?   B. When did you study?

C. What happened?    D. How did you come back?

38.A. I don’t think it works.   B. They are understanding.

C. That sounds great.    D. I talked a lot.

39.A. Why don’t you visit the teacher?  B. How about taking art lessons?

C. How about your friends?   D. Why not try expressing your feeling?

40.A. I’ve learned it for years.   B. I don’t really enjoy it.

C. It is very difficult.    D. I almost forget it.

IV．阅读理解  阅读下列短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（40分）

A

Once a man named Grant found a box of old papers in a room at the top of his house. He burnt most of them, for he didn’t like old things very much. But one of these papers was an old letter. At the bottom of the letter was the name of a famous writer.

“When this letter was written,” said Grant, “no one knew about the writer. But now everyone knows him. Some people like to buy letters like this. I may be able to get a lot of money for this letter if I sell it to the right man.”

But there were a lot of dirty marks all over the letter.

“It doesn’t look nice.” he thought, “No one wants to buy a letter if it’s dirty. I’ll have to clean it first.” So he took a piece of cloth and some water and cleaned the letter. He worked hard and took a lot of care. At last, the letter looked new and he was very pleased with his work.

“Now it looks very nice,” he said to himself. “I’ll be able to sell it for a lot of money.”

He took the letter to a shop in London where old papers of this kind were bought and sold.

“I want to sell this letter,” Grant said to the man in the shop. “It was written by a famous writer. You know about these things. How much will you give me for it?”

The man looked at the letter for a long time.

“I’ll give you two pounds for it.” he said at last.

“Only two pounds!” said Grant, “But people pay ten pounds for a letter like this. And just look! I’ve even cleaned it to make it look nice.”

“I can see that.” said the man. “That’s the trouble. People who buy old papers like them to be dirty!”

41. What did Grant dislike?

A. New things.  B. Old things.  C. Letters.   D. Newspapers.

42. Why didn’t Grant burn the old letter?

A. Because he liked it very much.

B. Because the writer was his friend.

C. Because the letter had many dirty marks.

D. Because he thought he could make money.

43. How much did the shop assistant give Grant for the old letter?

A. Two pounds.  B. Five pounds.  C. Seven pounds.  D. Ten pounds.

44. What can we know from the passage?

A. Grant found an old letter in the garden.

B. Grant liked to buy old letters from the shop.

C. The letter was written by a famous writer.

D. Without dirty marks, the letter was valuable.

45. What happened at the end of the story?

A. Grant sold the old letter at a high price.

B. Grant regretted for what he had done.

C. Grant was excited about what the man said.

D. Grant loved collecting old books from then on.

B

A great saying always helps a lot. There are a lot of great Chinese sayings and many of them are about how to live a good life. What’s your favorite saying? We have interviewed some foreign students in China. Here are some of their answers.

Carlos is an 18-year-old Australian boy. His favorite saying is, “To have faults and not to correct them, this, indeed, is to have faults.” He agrees with the saying. He said it took him much time to learn new words when he began learning Chinese. He didn’t want to put in the time to practice. That was his greatest weakness. So he tries to correct it by finding an enjoyable way to study. Reading is really a good start.

“When I have two others with me, I can always find one to be my teacher” is one of Rosa’s favorites. Rosa majors in Chinese painting in Shandong University. Whenever she talks with her classmates, she will think of this great saying. She can learn a lot from others, even from the mistakes.

What Alicia likes best is, “Even if it was just a little help from others, you should return the favor with all you can when others are in need.” She appreciates the idea of expressing thanks, so she tells her friends and families about it in France.

46. Who are Carlos, Rosa and Alicia?

A. They are foreign students.   B. They are foreign teachers.

C. They are classmates.    D. They are Australians.

47. What does the passage mainly talk about?

A. Good lives in China.    B. Chinese sayings.

C. Chinese painting.    D. Exchange programs.

48. What is Carlos’ great weakness?

A. Memorizing.    B. Not enough practice.

C. Reading.    D. Being careless.

49. What does Rosa learn from her favorite saying?

A. She can always learn something from others.  B. She should believe in her teachers.

C. She can be a good teacher in the future.  D. She believes others paint better than her.

50. What is the Chinese meaning of Alicia’s favorite saying?

A.众人拾柴火焰高。    B.前人种树，后人乘凉。

C.滴水之恩当涌泉相报。   D.不以善小而不为。

C

When people think of Beijing, the hutong style always comes to mind. It is no exaggeration(夸张) to say within hutong lives the city’s history. Every year, it receives more tourists from home and abroad than the high-rise buildings.

The word “hutong” referred to a place where people lived, which was borrowed from the Mongolian word to mean “water well” about 700 years ago. Until now, one can still find dry wells in hutong. Hutong we see today are made up of small paths(小路) formed by walls of siheyuan. They were built during the Yuan, Ming and Qing dynasties.

When the People’s Republic of China was founded in 1949, there were more than 3,000 hutong. Most of the city’s population lived in this traditional housing. But with the development of the city in the 1980s and early 1990s, many hutong were demolished to build roads, skyscrapers(摩天大楼) and modern houses.

The government has realized the importance of hutong to Chinese culture. In 2002, Beijing listed 40 protected historical zones and increased its efforts to rebuild some key remains and older streets in the city. Nearly 500 hutong have been saved.

Hutong that still exist are like oases(绿洲) of calm in the noisy city. Although located downtown, the hutong were free from the noise of traffic, as they were too narrow to bear much. Walking through them, it’s common to see groups of elderly people sitting together playing cards, mahjong or Chinese chess. In the early mornings and evenings, they get together to practice traditional forms of exercise such as Taiji as well as dancing and singing folk songs or Beijing Opera. Hutong have become a museum of Beijing’s folk customs and history.

51. What is the earliest meaning of the word “hutong”?

A. Small paths.  B. Water well.  C. Siheyuan.  D. A traditional house.

52. What does the underlined word “demolished” in paragraph 3 mean?

A. Taken down.  B. Moved.   C. Set up.   D. Forgotten.

53. What does the last paragraph mainly talk about?

A. The future of hutong.   B. The change of hutong.

C. The beauty of hutong life.   D. The history of hutong life.

54. What can we know from the passage?

A. There are more than 3,000 hutong now.

B. Most people in Beijing used to live in hutong.

C. The government has built new hutong since 2002.

D. Hutong are like the noisiest places in the city.

55. From which is the text most probably taken?

A. A poem book.  B. A cultural magazine.  C. A history novel.  D. A storybook.

D

How do you feel about nature? After spending hours indoors, do you feel better when you visit your local park? I believe the answer must be “YES”.

Most people think that nature is good for our bodies and brains. However, humans are spending more time inside and less time outside. For example, the number of visitors to Canada’s national parks is getting smaller every year. And in countries such as the USA, only 10% of teenagers spend time outside every day. Many doctors feel that this is a problem in the twenty-first century.

Therefore, some doctors are studying the connection between nature and health: one example is the work of Dr. Matilda in Sweden. The doctor gave people a maths test. During the test, their heart rates(心率) were fast. After the test, one group of people sat in a 3D-virtual-reality(虚拟现实) room for fifteen minutes with pictures and sounds of nature. Their heart rates were slower than people’s in the other group. The virtual touch with nature helped them feel more relaxed. The natural world allows our brains to rest and slow down, and can leave us feeling happier and less stressed. Another example from Canada also shows nature is good for health. In Toronto, researchers studied 31,000 people living in the city. In general, they found that healthier people lived near parks.

Because of studies like these, some countries and cities want people to enjoy nature in their everyday life. In Dubai, people plan to build a new shopping mall with a large garden, so shoppers can relax outside with trees, plants and water. And South Korea has new forests near its cities and around 13 million people visit these forests every year. Getting close to nature has been thought to be necessary for brain development in children. In Switzerland, “forest schools” are popular. School children study their subjects in the forests and exercise a lot outside. So after building cities for so long, perhaps it’s now time to start rebuilding nature.

56. What does the underlined word “this” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. People spend more time inside than outside.

B. People think nature is good for our bodies.

C. Only teenagers spend time outside every day.

D. The number of people to parks changes every day.

57.After the maths test, which of the following helped slow the heart rates of people?

A. The advice from the doctor. B. Pictures and sounds of nature.

C. The maths problems in the test. D. The real natural world.

58. What do the results of the studies show in paragraph 3?

A. The maths test is bad for health as it makes people nervous.

B. People’s heart rates get slower in a 3D-virtual-reality room.

C. More and more Canadians will move to live near parks.

D. Nature can help people be more relaxed and healthier.

59. To help people enjoy nature, which of the following is not done by the countries?

A. Building new forests near cities.   B. Inventing a brain development programme.

C. Planning a green area for shoppers.  D. Having classes and doing sports in the forest.

60. What can we learn from the last sentence of the passage?

A. Nature is more important than cities.  B. Country life is healthier than city life.

C. Nature should be part of people’s life.  D. People have lived in cities for so long.

非选择题部分  共60分

V．阅读填词（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Mary was in bed, feeling ___61___ (sleep). She ___62___ (open) a book and read the first few words, “The dodo(渡渡鸟) was a bird that couldn’t fly...” and soon she fell fast asleep.

Whoosh! The window flew wide open. Mary sat up, and through the window she saw a dodo standing in her yard!

“I lived over four hundred years ago,” the dodo said. “But then terrible ___63___ (thing) happened. Forests ___64___ (cut) down by humans, so we had nothing to eat. We all died.” The dodo felt sad. Before it said another word, ___65___ elephant bird came and said, “I am the ___66___ (heavy) bird that has ever lived. I weigh half a ton. But we disappeared over a thousand years ago ___67___ humans made us lose our homes.”

The window blew shut, and Mary woke up with a start. There was no one or nothing to see, except the book in ___68___ (she) hand. But there was a feeling of ___69___ (sad) left in her heart. Why not take action now ___70___ (build) a peaceful world for both animals and humans?

VI．阅读理解七选五  根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(10分)

“I wish I had straight hair”, “I’d like to be taller”. At times, we all want to look more like someone else. However, the pictures we see on social media can give us wrong ideas about how our bodies “should” look. ___71___ Accepting the differences and feeling good about our bodies are really important for our self-confidence.

Body confidence is when someone accepts and behaves kindly towards their body. ___72___ Jade Parnell from the Centre for Appearance Research(CAR), says that body confidence means having a light of contentment(满意) that no one can turn off and being OK with who you are completely. If you feel positive about your body, you are more likely to take care of it. ___73___ You may even do less well at school and feel down because of the worries.

___74___ She says, “If you are spending time trying to look in a certain way, you will have less time to spend with your friends and to make important memories. So just avoid it.”

To develop a positive body image, Parnell says, “Try to talk positively about your own body and other people’s bodies. Don’t pay too much attention to appearance.” ___75___ She points out that comparing only creates a standard we think we need to follow and leads to feelings of disappointment.

VII．书面表达（35分）

第一部分  情境运用  根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。（10分）

第二部分  写作（25分）

假如你是李华，你的英国朋友Jack来信说对“中国红”很感兴趣，想了解“中国红”在中国人日常生活中的体现。请你给他写一封回信介绍“中国红”。

要求：

1.内容包括：“中国红”在以其为主要元素的传统节日中的呈现形式（至少2种）和其象征意义等；

2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；

3.100词左右；

4.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。

Dear Jack,

It’s great to receive your letter. Knowing that you’re interested in Chinese red, I’m writing to tell you something about it.

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

I truly hope my letter will help you understand Chinese red better.

Yours,

Li Hua

绝密★启用前

2023年九年级学业水平第一次模拟考试

英语试题参考答案（LX 2023.4）

I.1—5 BCACB     6—10 BCBAB    11—15 ABBCA    16—20 CBAAB

II. 21—25 ACDAC   26—30 BCACC   31—35 DAAAD

III. 36—40 BCADA

IV. 41—45 BDACB  46—50 ABBAC    51—55 BACBB    56—60 ABDBC

V.  61. sleepy   62. opened   63. things   64. were cut   65. an

66. heaviest     67. because   68. her     69. sadness    70. to build

VI. 71—75 DBCFA

书面表达

第一部分 情境运用

VII. 76. Why do you like English?/ Why is English your favorite subject?

77. He usually watches TV (after dinner).

78. Bill is taller (than Jack). /Jack is shorter (than Bill).

79. Have you ever been to the Bird’s Nest?/Have you ever been to Beijing?

80. What are (the/your) kites made of?

评分标准：

1）本题共10分。表达准确，无语言错误，2分；

2）表达较准确，有少量语法或拼写错误，1分；

3）词不达意，语句难以理解，语法或拼写难以辨识，0分。

4）以上答案为参考答案，若有其他合理并正确的答案可给分。

第二部分 作文

评分标准：

1）本大题共25分。

2）卷面书写潦草不工整，以至影响交际，可酌情扣1－2分。

3）拼写错误每个扣1分。同样错误不重复计算。

4) 书面表达可分为五个等级:

(1) 21－ 25分：短文内容符合所给提示，能运用丰富的词汇、短语、句式正确表达个人观

点。语句流畅，书写工整，语法错误较少（1－2处），字数符合要求。

(2) 16－20分：短文内容基本符合所给提示，能基本正确表达个人观点。语句通顺，语言

较丰富，书写工整，语法错误较少（3－4处），字数基本符合要求。

(3) 11－15分：短文内容基本符合所给提示，能基本正确表达个人观点。语句尚通顺，

书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数在80词左右。

(4) 6－10分：短文内容不太符合所给提示，不能正确表达个人观点。语句不够通顺，语法

错误较多，书写一般，字数在60词以下。

(5) 0－5分 ：短文内容明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容。语法结构或词汇方面的错误

较多，不能表达个人观点，词不达意，影响理解。