2023年福建省三明市三元区中考一模英语试题（含答案）

这是一份2023年福建省三明市三元区中考一模英语试题（含答案），共15页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分30分）， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

三元区2022—2023学年第二学期质量检测（一）
九年级英语试题
（满分：150分；时间：120分钟）
Ⅰ. 听力（共三节，20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
第一节：听句子，听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍）
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
第二节：听对话，听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题.
6. Why did Jenny’s brother stay up late last night?
A. He did his homework. B. He talked with a friend. C. He watched a soccer game.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题.
7. Where are the speakers now?
A. In a shop. B. In a restaurant. C. In a cinema.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题.
8. Who will come for the birthday dinner?
A. Dave’s teacher. B. Dave’s cousin. C. Dave’s aunt.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题.
9. When will the sports meeting start?
A. At 1:15 pm. B. At 1:30 pm. C. At 1:45 pm.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。
10. What does the girl want to return to Kate?
A. A watch. B. A camera. C. A mobile phone.
11. When will Kate come back?
A. At four. B. At five. C. At six.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
12. What’s the color of Greg’s trousers?
A. White. B. Brown. C. Black.
13. How much is the girl’s dress?
A. 12 dollars. B. 20 dollars. C. 22 dollars.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。
14. What is the man doing?
A. Asking the way. B. Asking for help. C. Trying to save a woman.
15. How soon will the firemen arrive?
A. In ten minutes. B. In eight minutes. C. In five minutes.
第三节：听短文。根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍）
The Introduction To Kites
the invention time
Over 2,000 years ago.
the use
Kites were 16 used by the Chinese army.
In ancient times, kites helped to 17 bridges.
In the 1880s, kites were first used to take photos.
In the 18 1900s, kites were used to help with weather report.
Nowadays, kites are usually used for fun.
the material
The first kites were made of 19 .
Today, most kites are made of paper or cloth.
the name
20 because of the way they look when they fly.
Ⅱ. 选择填空（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。
21. —Do you know ________ old teacher in the photo?
—Yes. He is a kind teacher and he did his best to help a lot of students with disabilities.
A. the B. a C. an
22. ________ Amy’s great joy, her parents promised to take her to visit Disneyland next month.
A. In B. To C. or
23. —Peter, I’m sorry that I took your soccer ball by mistake.
—It doesn’t matter. By the way, have you found ________?
A. my B. mine C. yours
24. He has ________ understanding the English article about ChatGPT as he doesn’t have a wide vocabulary.
A. luck B. difficulty C. effort
25. —Anna has shown great courage in the face of her illness.
—So she has. She is a really ________ girl.
A. brave B. clever C. funny
26. —If you always ________ yourself with others, you won’t be happy.
—You do have a point. I should try to enjoy being myself.
A. fill B. connect C. compare
27. Change is always coming, so it’s important for us to learn how to deal with it ________.
A. wisely B. slowly C. widely
28. Spokesperson Wang Wenbin won a lot of fans ________ his excellent performance in answering reporters’ questions.
A. instead of B. according to C. because of
29. —Sammy, I hear you’ve driven over Hong Kong-Zhuhai-Macao Bridge. ________ did it take you?
—About 40 minutes.
A. How far B. How long C. How many
30. John is a kind boy. No matter who is in need, he ________ tries his best to give a hand.
A. always B. seldom C. hardly
31. More than seventy percent of the students chose Miss Fisher to be the best teacher. They think she is ________ of all the teachers.
A. patient B. more patient C. the most patient
32. Making a public speech is a good way to practice speaking skills, ________ many people consider it difficult.
A. until B. since C. but
33. When we heard the news that the panda Lele passed away, we all felt ________. It was so cute.
A. boring B. sad C. confident
34. —People along the Yangtze River don’t allow them to factories.
—That’s because they want to protect the river.
A. put up B. give up C. set up
35. —Could you tell me ________?
—Sure. It’s about Yue Fei, a hero who lived during the Song dynasty.
A. when this book was finished
B. what this book is mainly about
C. who wrote this book
Ⅲ. 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
Many years ago, on a rainy evening, an old man and his wife entered a small hotel. Trying to get out of the rain, they went to the front desk, hoping to get a(n) 36 .
The clerk (店员) looked at the couple and said, “All our rooms are 37 .”
Hearing this, the couple got 38 . The clerk said, “I can’t keep an old couple out into the rain. You can sleep in my room if you don’t mind. It isn’t a suite (套房),but it will be good enough to make you 39 for the night.”
The clerk 40 , “Don’t worry about me. I will make out just fine.” So, the couple agreed. The next morning, as the old man paid the bill, he said to the clerk, “You are the kind of manager who should own the best 41 . Some day I will build one for you.” The clerk just thought it was a 42 and he didn’t take it seriously.
Two years passed. The clerk who had almost forgotten about the 43 , received a letter. The old man wrote about the stormy night. It made the clerk remember the couple. 44 the old man invited him to visit New York.
Then they met each other. 45 an amazing hotel, the old man said, “That is the hotel I have just built for you to manage.”
36. A. room B. meal C. coat
37. A. sold B. broken C. taken
38. A. surprised B. interested C. disappointed
39. A. tired B. comfortable C. valuable
40. A. continued B. introduced C. realized
41. A. school B. hospital C. hotel
42. A. story B. joke C. suggestion
43. A. room B. rain C. night
44. A. And B. If C. Until
45. A. Looking down B. Dreaming about C. Pointing at
Ⅳ. 阅读理解（共两节，25小题；满分45分）
第一节：阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
A
46. Who can take part in the STEM Night?
A. 7-year-old Bob. B. 11-year-old George.
C.14-year-old Kate. D. Kids of all ages.
47. What can children learn at the STEM Night?
A. How milk is good for our health. B. How to play a musical instrument.
C. How to get good grades in math exams. D. How 3D printing can be used in everyday life.
48. How should children register?
A. Go to school. B. Call 0411-xxxx.
C. Scan the QR code. D. Email xxxx@gmail.com.
49. Children who want to take part in the STEM Night can register on ________.
A. April 17th B. April 19th C. April 20th D. April 21st
50. From the poster, we know ________.
A. the STEM Night will last for two hours
B. each child can take part in up to five activities
C. children don’t need to pay for the STEM Night
D. the STEM Night is a welcome party for new students
B
The Start of Spring, the first solar term (节气) of the year, began this year on Feb.4 and ended on Feb.18. When the Start of Spring comes, everything turns green and is full of energy. People clearly see that the daytime is becoming longer and the weather is becoming warmer. Here are some things you should know about the Start of Spring.

Flying kites
Spring is the best season for kite-flying. This is a traditional folk activity, which has a history of more than 2,000 years. It can help improve one’s health and keep people from getting sick.
Biting spring
In many parts of China, it’s a tradition to “bite spring” on the first day of the Start of Spring. People usually eat spring pancakes and spring rolls (春卷).
Appreciating plum blossoms (赏梅花)
Plum trees blossom from the 12th lunar month to the second lunar month of the next year. The plum blossom always fights against the cold. In China, the plum blossom is praised as one of the four gentlemen of Chinese flowers.
Welcoming spring
People in China began holding a special ceremony on the first day of the Start of Spring about 3,000 years ago. They made sacrifices(祭品)to Gou Mang, the god of spring. By the Qing Dynasty, greeting spring had become an important folk activity. In Beijing, government officials welcome spring in the field near Dongzhimen (the east gate of the old Beijing city).
51. When did the Start of Spring begin this year?
A. On Jan.1st. B. On Feb.4th. C. On Feb.18th. D. On Feb.3rd.
52. What can we find when the Start of Spring comes according to the passage?
a. The night is longer. b. The daytime is longer. c. Lots of flowers blossom.
d. Grass and trees become green. e. The weather is becoming warmer.
A. abd B. bde C. acd D. bce
53. What do people eat on the first day of the Start of Spring?
A. Dumplings. B. Zongzi. C. Spring pancakes. D. Mooncakes.
54. From the passage, we can learn that ________.
A. people all over the country “bite spring”
B. flying kites has a history of about 200 years
C. the plum blossom always fights against the hot weather
D. government officials greet spring near the east gate of the old Beijing city
55. What’s the text mainly about?
A. An introduction to the Start of Spring. B. The story of the god of spring.
C. The tradition of biting spring. D. The Start of Spring and the Spring Festival.
C

56. Scientists study how to grow plants in space in order to ________.
A. improve the ecosystem B. develop new kinds of plants
C. make some food taste better D. prepare for the future space life
57. What do we know about Svet?
A. It was a greenhouse in space. B. Only vegetables were grown in it.
C. The first space plant was grown in it. D. It was developed by American engineers.
58. What did American researchers grow on ISS in 2014?
A. Arabidopsis thaliana. B. Wheat.
C. Lettuces. D. Rice.
59. What can we learn from the reading?
A. Americans first grew plants in space.
B. Wheat was first grown in space in 2014.
C. Veggie has stayed in space for more than twenty years.
D. China’s rice plants in space are kept in the Wentian lab.
60. In which part of a magazine can you find the reading most probably?
A. TRAVEL. B. SCIENCE. C. CULTURE. D. SCHOOL TIME.
D
①Zheng Huan has a deep love for nature. “Sunshine, air, water, plants and animals... They are the most important things on our planet. However, many people haven’t realized it,” Zheng said. “What’s worse, climate change is greatly affecting biodiversity (生物多样性) and our environment.
②Zheng decided to make a change. She set up the Youth Leader Fund and began working with game companies and artists. Together they have made climate change a thing that can be seen, felt and dealt with.
③Zheng has been working on a game called Guardians of Earth. Players take pictures of different kinds of plants and animals to earn points in the game. “The game has changed my ideas about plants and animals. They have all become alive and meaningful to me,” one player said.
④Another project Zheng is helping with is on digital art works about climate change. She invited artists to create pieces based on a sci-fi novel AI 2041, which talked about how AI would affect the environment in the future. “Online paintings can reach more people in a shorter time,” Zheng said. “I want to increase people’s understanding of nature in beautiful and futuristic (未来派的) ways,” she added.
⑤Zheng’s work has got wide attention and praise. She hopes one day biodiversity and climate change will become old ideas—like something that is rooted in people’s hearts.
61. The underlined word “ it ” in the first paragraph refers to “________”.
A. air pollution B. the importance of our planet
C. climate change D. the importance of nature
62. Why did Zheng set up the Youth Leader Fund?
A. To learn from artists. B. To get closer to nature.
C. To fight against climate change. D. To make more people get interested in nature.
63. What can we learn about the book AI 2041?
A. It became popular in a very short time. B. It is about advantages of AL
C. It was written by Zheng Huan. D. It is a sci-fi novel.
64. Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage?
A. B. C. D.
65. You may find the passage in ________.
A. a popular online game B. an interesting novel
C. a magazine about nature D. a guidebook
第二节：阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分）
E

2023 is the Year of the Rabbit. The Chinese Zodiac (十二生肖) has twelve animals, which come in the order of Rat, Ox, Tiger, Rabbit, Dragon, Snake, Horse, Goat, Monkey, Rooster, Dog and Pig. 66
The rabbit plays an important role in traditional Chinese culture and it has been admired by Chinese people since ancient times. Ancient Chinese believed that there was a rabbit living on the moon. 67 It made medicine there and could bring health to people. So the rabbit, especially the one with white hair, is also a symbol of a long life. 68 But its lucky meaning never disappears.
Besides the above meaning in legend, Chinese people regard the rabbit as a typical example of quickness and cleverness. 69 Here are some examples:
Wu Fei Tu Zou: Time passes so fast, just like how the crow (the sun) and the rabbit (the moon) travel every day. It shows time flies.
Dong Ruo Tuo Tu: Be able to move as quickly and easily as a rabbit that has broken loose. 70
Jiao Tu San Ku: A clever rabbit always has several places to hide, protecting itself from being found by enemies.
The rabbit is really an animal with many cultural meanings, isn’t it?
A. It is used to describe acting fast.
B. And the Year of the Rabbit is the fourth year in a 12-year cycle.
C. There are many idioms describing its quickness and cleverness.
D. And they could see it on the shiny full moon at the Mid-Autumn Festival.
E. The success of the Apollo Program proved the rabbit had never lived on the moon.
Ⅴ. 情景交际（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据情景提示，完成下列各题。
71. 你的同桌说他新买了一支铅笔，你想问是什么颜色的，你可以这样问：
______________________________________________________________________________________________?
72. 你即将毕业了，你不禁感叹时光飞逝，可以这样表达：
______________________________________________________________________________________________!
73. 你希望你的朋友梦想成真，你可能这样向他表达：
______________________________________________________________________________________________.
74. 你想问对方星期六打算干什么，你可以这样问：
___________________________________________________________________________________ this Saturday?
75. 你想借用一下你同桌的词典，你可以这样询问对方：
______________________________________________________________________________________________?
Ⅵ. 看图写话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
76. 77. 78.
(up, every) (while, was) (than)
79. 80.
(mean) (there be, in)

Ⅶ. 短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据语境、音标或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，要求所填的词意义准确，形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。
In a village, a teenage boy lived with his wise grandfather. He was a runner, and for him, 81 [sək’ses] was winning every race.
There was going to be a sporting event in his village. He prepared himself 82 the running competition. On the day of the event, most people in the village went to watch it. His grandfather also arrived.
People were all 83 (wait) to see the boy race. Then the 200-meter race began, and all the boys were running fast. The boy finished first in the race. He felt proud, but his grandfather looked calm. Later, the 100-meter race began. The boy finished it first again. All people cheered, but his grandfather 84 (remain) calm.
The boy asked for another race. He was sure that he would beat anyone in the race. But this time, he had two special challengers, a blind girl and 85 aged man. The race started. The boy ran fast and finished the race, while the other two were still standing at the starting line. With joy, the boy waved his hands to the crowd. But they kept 86 [’saɪlənt].
He asked his grandfather, “Why don’t they cheer for me like before?” The grandfather replied, “Start the race again with them. Remember, all three should 87 [krɒs] the finishing line.”
The boy stood in the middle 88 held the hands of the other two. They 89 (slow) walked and reached the finishing line at the same time. The people around all cheered. The boy asked his grandfather, “For whom are they cheering?”
Grandfather said, “They didn’t cheer for any one of you. They cheered for how you three finished the race. It is the 90 ( good) race you have ever run in your life.”
Ⅷ. 书面表达（满分15分）
91. 临近升学考试，感觉需要复习的内容好多啊！更纠结的是时间总是不够用，你的班级要开展以“时间管理”为主题的班会，请你写一篇小发言稿，谈谈时间管理的重要性，与大家一起分享一下你在学习和生活中是如何合理安排时间的，合理的时间管理为你带来了哪些效益等。
写作要求：(1) 要点齐全，语句通顺，语法正确，书写规范；
(2) 可适当增加细节，以使行文流畅；
(3) 80 词左右（短文的开头已给出，不计入总词数）；
(4) 短文中不得出现真实的姓名及校名，否则此题一律不得分。
Manage Our Time Wisely
Each of us has 24 hours a day and how we spend the time completely depends on ourselves. ________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
三元区2022-2023学年第二学期质量检测（一）
九年级英语听力材料
第一节：听句子。听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍）
1. I think drinking milk is good for our health.
2. Andy learned paper cutting when he studied in China.
3. We have to take our temperature before entering the supermarket.
4. A great number of Chinese doctors have made great contributions to helping us fight against COVID-19 in the past three years.
5. We have to put off our school trip till next week because of the heavy rain.
第二节：听对话。听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
M: Jenny, why is your brother so sleepy in class this morning?
W: Oh, he stayed up late to watch a soccer game on TV last night.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
M: Excuse me, can I help you?
W: Yes, please, I’d like a pair of sports shoes, and a white T-shirt.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
W: Dave, will your cousin Lisa come for your birthday dinner tonight?
M: Yes, she’ll come to my house an hour early to help me with the food.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
M: Mr. Black said that the sports meeting will start at 1:45 pm.
W: That’s great! I still have enough time to finish my lunch.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。
W: Tom, have you seen Kate?
M: Yes. What’s up?
W: She left her watch on my desk just now. And I want to give it back to her.
M: I’m afraid you’ll have to wait for a while. She has just gone to clean the library with her group. She won’t comeback until five o’clock.
W: I see.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
W: You look nice today, Greg. I really like your T-shirt.
M: Thank you. I often wear this white T-shirt and brown trousers together. The colors look nice together.
W: They do. You always dress well. I don’t care much about my clothes.
M: Really? You look great in this green dress.
W: I just bought it at a yard sale. It is only 12 dollars.
M: That’s really cheap.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。
W: Hello, 911.
M: Help! The house next to mine is on fire. Lots of black smoke is rising above the burning house.
W: Relax, sir, Explain exactly where you are.
M: I’m at No. 109 Bridge Street.
W: Got it, Is there anyone in the house?
M: No, the owner of the house is an old lady. Luckily, she is out. But I can hear her dog barking inside.
W: OK. The firemen will get there in five minutes.
第三节：听短文。根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍）
Kites were invented in China more than 2,000 years ago. They were first used by the Chinese army. In ancient times, kites carried lines across rivers. These lines helped to build bridges. In the 1880s, kites were first used to take photos. In the early 1900s, kites were used to help with weather report in the United States. Nowadays, people usually fly kites for fun.
The first kites were made of silk. After paper was invented, people used it to make kites. Today, most kites are made of paper or cloth.
The word kite is from an old English word that means “a kind of hawk (鹰)”. Kites were given this name probably because of the way they look when they fly.

三元区2022-2023学年第二学期质量检测（一）
九年级英语试题参考答案
注意：大小写书写不正确一律视为错误。
Ⅰ. 听力
1—5：BCBAC 6—10：CABCA 11—15：BBABC
16. first （此处不能写成1st，这里不是做数词用）
17. build 18. early 19. silk 20. Probably
【16～20小题评分说明】只要有错即不得分。
Ⅱ. 选择填空
21—25：ABCBA 26—30：CACBA 31—35：CCBCB
Ⅲ. 完形填空
36—40：ACCBA 41—45： CBCAC
Ⅳ. 阅读理解
A篇46—50：BDCAC B篇51—55：BBCDA C篇56—60：DACDB
D篇61—65：DCDAC E篇66—70：BDECA
Ⅴ. 情景交际
71. What color is your new pencil?
72. How time flies!
73. I hope you will make your dream come true.
Or: I hope you will realize your dream.
Or: I hope you will achieve your dream.
74. What are you going to do this Saturday?
Or: What will you do this Saturday?
75. May/Can I borrow your dictionary?
Or: May. Can I use your dictionary?
Or: Would you mind my using your dictionary?
【71～75小题评分说明】每个错两个单词扣1分，如有四个单词错误，则此小题不得分。
Ⅵ. 看图写话
76. He gets up at seven (o’clock) every day/morning. (主语只要是可以表示第三人称单数的男孩即可)
77. Jane was reading a book while Helen was running
78. The boy is (much) taller than the girl. (表人物的名词或代词合理即可)
Or: The girl is (much) shorter than the boy.
79. This (gesture/sign) means “be quiet”.
Or: This (gesture/sign) means you should keep quiet.
Or: This (gesture/sign) means to be quiet.
Or: The meaning of this (gesture/sign) is “keep/be quiet”.
Or: The meaning of this (gesture/sign) is to keep/be quiet.
80. There are many/some vegetables in the basket.
Or: There are some kinds of vegetables in the basket.
【76～80小题评分说明】每个错两个单词扣1分，如有四个单词错误，则此小题不得分:句型套用错误则不得分。
Ⅶ. 短文填空
81. success 82. for 83. waiting 84. remained 85. an
86. silent 87. cross 88. and 89. slowly 90. best
【81～90小题评分说明】只要有错即不得分。
Ⅷ. 书面表达
Manage Our Time Wisely
Each of us has 24 hours a day and how we spend the time completely depends on ourselves. Middle school is an important period in our lives. Using our time wisely helps us develop the habit of getting things done on time.
Beginning部分3分，说明管理时间的重要性。
As a student myself, I’m trying to manage my time better through the following two ways. Firstly, I create a daily timetable with all the tasks to be done. This helps me organize my time well during the day. Secondly, I do every task with my full attention. For example, I keep away from my storybooks and smart phone while I’m studying. By doing like this, I can spend less time on each task but achieve higher efficiency.
Body部分8分，陈述自己在生活和学习中合理安排时间事例及为自己带来的效益。
I hope everyone can make good use of time and enjoy a colorful life.
Ending部分2分，鼓励大家管理好自己的时间。
另：书写2分。