2021芜湖高二上学期期末英语试题含答案

2020—2021学年度第一学期芜湖市中小学校教育教学质量监控

高二年级英语试题卷

注意事项：

1.本试卷满分为100分，考试时间为120分钟。

2.本试卷包括“试题卷”和“答题卷”两部分。“试题卷”共8页，“答题卷”共2页。

3.请务必在“答题卷”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题是无效的。

4.考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”一并交回。

第一部分  听力（共15小题，满分l5分）

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What did the woman do at the weekend?

A. She went to see her uncle.

B. She gave a hand to her uncle.

C. She visited the City Museum.

2. Why didn’t the man sleep well?

A. He studied the whole night.

B. He worried about the exam.

C. He stayed up late watching TV.

3. What probably is the woman?

A. A student. B. A nurse. C. A teacher.

4. How many hours can the park be open on Saturdays?

A.13. B.10. C.9.

5. What will the speakers do next?

A. Attend a meeting. B. Hold a party. C. See a friend.

第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6至8小题。

6. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. In an office. B. At home. C. At a restaurant.

7. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening?

A. Go to a concert. B. Visit a friend. C. Work extra hours.

8. Who is Alice going to call!

A. Mike. B. Joan. C. Catherine.

听第7段材料，回答第9至11小题。

9. What’s the possible relationship between the speaker>?

A. Interviewer and interviewee.  B. Fellow workers. C. Teacher and student.

10. Which of the following is the woman’s major?

A. English. B. Biology. C. Maths.

11. What is the woman’s greatest strength?

A. Dealing with people. B. Learning fast. C. Taking challenges.

听第8段材料，回答第12至15小题。

12. Why do people hardly ever meet their pen-friends?

A. Because pen-friends use different languages.

B. Because pen-friends are not really friends at all.

C. Because pen-friends usually live a long way from each other.

13. What kind of things do pen-friends usually write about?

A. Their favourite magazines.

B. Their towns . schools and interests.

C. Stamps, coins and picture postcards.

14. Which is the best place to find a pen-friend?

A. In English countries. B. On postcards. C. In magazines.

15. What is John Smith interested in?

A. Collecting stamps. B. Geography. C. Dancing.

第二部分  阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

Online Events at Natural History Museum in December

Dinosaur Activities for Families

Catch up on our Nature Live Program and find out everything about dinosaurs with Museum scientist Paul Barrett. You can learn to bake tasty biscuits with footprint-shaped holes. You can also follow our simple instructions to draw a cartoon T-Rex and read on to find out how artists bring dinosaurs to life with their pictures.

Dates: All day and every day.

The Science of Whale Earwax

What can a whale’s earwax tell us about is life, health and the quality of the oceans over many decades? Join Museum researcher Richard Sabin to discover some of the fascinating ways we study whales, and how vital museum collections are in helping us to understand and conserve these amazing animals.

Date: December 28 (12:00-12:45)

Darwin’s Fossils

Join Museum scientist Lorna Steel to discover how Darwin’s study of fossils shaped his scientific thinking. You can ask questions while the talk is happening. Head to the video on YouTube and type your question into the chat box during the broadcast.

Date: December 24 (10:30-11:15)

Love Naturally

Attracting a mate can be a tricky business for any species. How can birds do it? Have a night with Lates Online. Take a drink, turn on your computer, and join researcher Juan Camilo on the Friday of every week. You can explore the wilder side of dating. And you can rewatch past Lates Online events on the Museums YouTube channel.

Time: From 19: 30.

16. What can you learn to do in the Dinosaur Activities for Families?

A. Make a dinosaur cartoon. B. Preserve dinosaur footprints.

C. Bake dinosaur footprint cookies. D. Make a sculpture of dinosaur.

17. How can you raise your questions about Darwin’s Fossils?

A. Asking orally face to face. B. Entering your questions in the chat box.

C. Mailing your questions to the museum. D. Broadcasting your questions in the chat room.

18. Who can you join if you want to watch birds dating?

A. Paul Barrell. B. Lorna Steel. C. Juan Camilo. D. Richard Sabin.

B

A trip to a bank’s ATM machine is usually a common affair, but for Jose Nunez Romaniz. his visit on Sunday is one that he will remember for the rest of his life. The 19-year-old was helping his grandfather buy a pair of socks online when he noticed his account balance was low. So he drove to the nearest Wells Fargo to make a deposit. Little did he know, he was about to make an incredible discovery.

When he arrived to make his deposit, Jose noticed a clear plastic bag on the ground filled with cash. It turned out to be $135,000 worth of $50 and $20 bills. When he first saw it, he stared at it for a few seconds , not knowing what to do. He was very shocked. He had never seen so much money. After taking a moment to collect himself, Jose did what he knew was the right thing: he called the police. They soon discovered that the money had accidentally been left behind by a worker tasked with refilling the ATM.

Jose’s childhood dream has been to work in law enforcement himself as a crime scene investigator and he currently studies criminal justice at Central New Mexico Community College. Local businesses have offered Jose rewards. He has received git cards from local restaurants, sports gear, and season tickets for University of New Mexico football team of ESPN radio. He was also given a $500 scholarship from an electric company. And, perhaps best of all, the police chief invited Jose to apply for a job as a public service aid for the department. It was also the best gift for Mother’s Day. “She called me and almost started crying... She told me I did the right thing and that she was proud of me.”

19. Why did Nunez Romaniz go to the nearest Wells Fargo?

A. His grandfather asked him to go there.

B. His grandfather was waiting there.

C. He was hoping for un incredible discovery.

D. He needed to increase his account balance.

20. Who left the plastic bag with an amount of money?

A. Jose. B. The police. C. A staff of the bank.  D. A customer.

21. What difference did the incident make to Jose’s life?

A. He became very wealthy. B. He got a job chance.

C. His school gave him a scholarship. D. He was admitted to college.

22. What do you think of Jose Nunez Romaniz?

A. Honest and kind.  B. Wise and generous.

C. Brave and strong.  D. Modest and smart.

C

By the year 2050, a fifth of the world’s cities will experience unprecedented climate conditions and environments that currently don’t exist in any major cities, according to new research. A team of scientists at the Crowther Lab in Switzerland produced the report, which described the climate for 520 major cities 30 years in the future.

The results showed that 77 percent of the world’s cities will experience a surprising change in climate conditions by 2050, and 22 percent of the 520 cities will see conditions that are not currently experienced by any existing major cities.

In China in 2050, the climate of Xi’an, in Shanxi province, will be similar to that of current day Maseru, the capital city of Lesotho in southern Africa, with the maximum temperature of the warmest month likely to increase by 4.59℃. Chongqing in southwest China will resemble the climate of Swaziland capital Mbabane, as the warmest temperature is predicted to rise by 5.1℃.

Scientists predict summers in Europe will get warmer by an average of 3.5℃ and European winters will see temperature rises of 4.7℃. London’s climate will be more similar lo Barcelona, and Madrid’s to Marrakech.

The Crowther Lab hopes the analysis will motivate decision-makers to take necessary steps to prevent or address some of the climate effects due to the threat of climate change. The report also found that cities in tropical regions will experience smaller changes in average temperature but will be controlled by shifts in rainfall regimes. This may lead to a noticeable increase in unexpected events, and severe droughts.

“Across all scientific fields, the greatest challenge in climate science is no longer the precise measurement of climate change impacts, but inspiring people to picture is actual effects in order to motivate action,” said Tom Crowther, senior scientist und founder of the Crowther Lab.

23. According to the research, among the 520 cities by 2050, about ________ cities will experience the climate conditions that no major cities currently have experienced.

A.400. B.114. C.260. D.104.

24. How did the scientists prove their result?

A. By listing figures.  B. By making comparisons.

C. By doing experiments. D. By explaining theory.

25. What is the Crowther Lab intended for?

A. To compare the climate change of the major cities of the world.

B. To inspire people to picture its actual effects in order to motivate action.

C. To inspire decision-makers to take necessary steps to prevent some climate effects.

D. To show most word’s cities will experience a striking change in climate conditions.

26. What is the best title of the passage?

A. World Temperature.  B. Current Climate Change.

C. Big Titles in the World. D. Future Climate Change in Most Big Cities.

D

Have you ever lined up? How do you feel? Most of us line up a large number of times during our lives. Waiting lines are such a thorn (刺) in our sides at popular destinations—Disney World, the Empire State Building—that many of us are willing to pay to avoid lines.

Culture has much to do with how we handle waiting lines. The British are the best people in the world at waiting in lines. I’ve never seen a people less concerned with lines than the British.

If you’ve been to Wimbledon you know what I mean. There are no online ticket sales for this fortnight of tennis. You queue up for hours, often a half day or more with 8,0000 others on a golf course near the stadium, suffering whatever rain, wind or sun.

It is an unwritten but ever present rule at Wimbledon that you never talk about or even admit that the queue exists. You’ll hear and participate in every conversation imaginable while waiting. It’s not really possible to jump or break-in a queue at Wimbledon because of the stewards and the time-dated stamps they hand out, and it’s considered bad behavior anywhere by the British.

Some places such as restaurants in Canada and in the States are getting wise. The host or hostess greets you, and says politely. “Sorry, but it will be about 45 minutes!” Almost always you’ll be seated in just 20 to 30 minutes. It’s called managing expectations. But, now you’re very happy as if you had something to do with getting a table earlier.

Finally, technology promises to save some queuing time. In the years ahead , stores will adopt Apple’s methods, with every salesperson capable of taking payments. Then the lines will disappear.

With age, perhaps, comes wisdom. I do whatever I can to avoid activities where queues are quite common. But you can’t always avoid lines, so I make the best of them. I usually start conversations with total strangers in a queue... at the very least you open yourself up to an opportunity for an engaging conversation. Queues, like life, have a lot to do with attitudes.

27. Why does the author say that waiting lines are a thorn in our sides?

A. Lining up makes us hurt. B. We have to pay to avoid lines.

C. We spend most of our life queuing. D. Waiting lines are unavoidable in our life.

28. While queuing in Wimbledon ________.

A. you will be fined if you break in

B. everybody is used to waiting long

C. people prove the existence of queues

D. the waiting time depends on the weather

29. What does the underlined part “managing expectations” in Paragraph 5 refer to?

A. Reducing waiting times at queue lines.

B. Haring high expectation for customers.

C Tying lo live up to customers’ expectations.

D. Letting customers wait shorter than they expected.

30. What is the author’s attitude towards line?

A. Positive. B. Unclear. C. Annoyed. D. Indifferent.

第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。

Self Confidence

Self confidence is the answer to success, or we can say the most important step to success.   31   Instead, a person who is learned but lacking confidence might fail in making you agree with the same. So it’s time to start believing in yourself, and you will start constructing self confidence in your life. Building up self confidence would need certain steps to be followed.

Make a record of your strong points.   32   Think of praise and respects that you have received or things that come effortlessly to you. It doesn’t matter what it is, if it’s good, just write it down. This will make you feel good about yourself.

Choose some of those things that you want to cheer yourself up. It’s also very important to concentrate on the areas you are previously good at so you will have an improved chance of becoming even more positive of yourself.   33 

Display your confidence even if you don’t feel like it. Talk to yourself in a hopeful way.   34   Encircle yourself with optimistic, positive and successful people.

  35   Before you even know it, you will become one of them.

A. Success will automatically enter your life.

B. Always remember that success builds upon success.

C. Write down all the encouraging things about yourself.

D. Try stay away from unpleasant thoughts and people.

E. They talk so confidently that they make you believe they are correct.

F. Regard yourself as the self confident person that you always wanted to be.

C. A confident person seems to be more educated even if he knows a little about the subject.

第三部分  语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）

第一节  完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）

阅读下面的短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

About one year ago, the idea came to me of being grateful for the small god things that happen to us every day. So I decided to start   36   it, and started noticing things that I hadn’t before. And one day, something like this really   37  .

I used to live in an area where the public transportation was not very   38  . If you came back home after 7 pm, you would have to   39   in line for about an hour before you were able to get public transport of   40  . Because the line would be   41  , there were many non-official “taxis” that would   42   and offer to take people home without waiting so long.   43   for a bit higher price, a price high enough that not everyone could   44   every day. Personally, I would take them only when I was really   45   and I just wanted to be back home as soon as possible.

One day, I   46   a non-official “taxi” without waiting too long. I said to myself “Great. I’m lucky today” and felt   47  . But that was just the beginning! When we arrived, the   48   said that he would not   49   anyone, and that he was just doing it as an act of   50  , because his mother had done it before and he found it such a nice thing to do that he decided to   51   it himself.

I felt so   52  . There were no words for me to   53   how grateful I was for having the   54   of being one of the people he took. He made my day and I felt so good during the following days because of that   55   ride home.

36. A. ignoring B. disliking C. practicing D. forecasting

37. A. knocked B. happened C. recceived D. confirmed

38. A. good B. official C. busy D. necessary

39.A. sit B. suffer C. recover D. wait

40. A. buses B. bikes C. taxis D. trains

41. A. reliable B. long C. active D. useless

42. A. fall down B, set off C. break down D. come by

43. A. and B. so C. but D. or

44. A. afford B. enjoy C. see D. appreciate

45. A. troubled B. delighted C. frightened D. tired

46. A. took B. refused C. failed D. heard

47. A. uncomfortable B. grateful C. embarrassed D. regretful

48. A. passenger B. driver C. stringer D. customer

49. A. drive B. consult C. charge D. bother

50. A. kindness B. happiness C. mercy D. assistance

51. A. desert B. purchase C. continue D. change

52. A. amused B. confused C. worried D. touched

53. A. control B. doubt C. write D. express

54. A. luck B. courage C. incident D. fact

55. A. easy B. free  C. cheap D. quick

第二节  语法填空（共 10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Ten years ago, I moved to Chicago.   56   (be) new to the area, I had few friends and   57   (rare) went out to parties. But a month later, I was invited to a party at which I met an elderly couple.

The wife told me   58   worried she was about her husband, who was waiting for a heart operation. At that time I   59   (work) as a researcher in   60   same hospital where the husband would be going for his operation, so I told her to set down my phone number and call me   61   (let) me know when he was there. She phoned a few weeks later as expected and told me that her husband   62   (admit) to the hospital and he was still waiting. I told her that I would go and check on him every day when I was at work. Weeks turned into   63   (month) and it just became my habit to see them and keep track of how things were going before, during and after the heart operation.

As time went by, it seemed like I became part of the family. Even after the husband returned from the hospital, we still often visited each other on holidays. Now, ten years later, I had a happy   64   (marry) and I had my own family.

Since our parents don’t live close by, this couple has become my son’s “local” grandparents. My wife and I ofen feel very thankful to have this couple   65   our “local” parents!

第四部分  写作（共三节，满分25分）

第一节  单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

根据所给单词首字母或汉语解释，填入适当单词，使句子意思表达完整（每空一词）。

66. In s__________, this was an exciting performance.

67. Do you know how to __________ (操作) the heating system?

68. What puzzles them is that it is difficult to a __________ themselves to the senior school life.

69. Many high school students are __________ (热切的) to go to college, but anxious about failing the entrance examination.

70. The organization educates people on the importance of protecting the Yangtze River and stops the i__________ hunting of animals, which has put the wild animal population in danger.

第二节  短文改错（共10小题；每小题0.5分，满分5分）

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、刪除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。

修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11I处起）不计分。

I took part in a one-day walking tour organize by our class yesterday. We set off at 8:00 am from school and spent two hours going to the National Forest Park, when we saw various kind of animals. After that, we visited a farm near park and helped the farmers harvest our crops. The last stop was along the river. We have a picnic by the river, during which we told stories but sung songs.

From this experience I’ve learned that the animals can live happy thanks to the workers’ hand work. And it is the farmers that provide us for adequate food and clothing. We can’t be so thankful enough to them.

第三节  书面表达（满分15分）

假定你是李华，你校将举办高中英语舞台剧表演比赛活动。请写封邮件给你校的外箱教师Miss Green，邀请她担任评委。内容包括：

1.比赛的日的；

2.比赛的时间和地点；

3.表示期待。

注意：词数100左右：可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

Dear Miss Green,

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Yours sincerely,

Li Hua

2020—2021学年度第一学期芜湖市中小学校教育教学质量监控

高二年级英语参考答案

第一部分  听力（共15小题，满分15分）

1-5. BBAAC 6-10. CABAC 11-15. BCBCA

第二部分  阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）

16-18. CBC 19-22. DCBA 23-26. BACD 27-30. ABDA  31-35. GCBDF

第三部分  语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）

第一节  完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）

36 40. CBADC  41-45. BDCAD 46-50. ABBCA 51-55. CDDAB

第二节  语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

56. Being    57. rarely    58. how    59. was working    60. the    61. to let

62. was admitted/had been admitted    63. months    64. marriage    65. as

第四部分  写作（共三节，满分25分）

第一节  单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

66. summary/ short    67. operate    68. adapt/ adjust accustom    69. eager    70. illegal

第二节  短文改错（共10小题；每小题0.5分，满分5分）

I took part in a one-day walking tour organize by our class yesterday. We set off at 8 :00 am from school

                                 organized

and spent two hours going to the National Forest Park, when we saw various kind of animals. After that, we visited

                                            where             kinds

a farm near ∧ park and helped the farmers harvest our crops. The last stop was along the river. We have a picnic

          the                             their                                    had

by the river , during which we told stories but sang songs.

                                  and

From this experience I’ve learned that the animals can live happy thanks to the workers’ hard work. And it is

                                                   happily

the farmers that provide us for adequate food and clothing. We can’t be so thankful enough to them.

                  with

第三节  书面表达（满分15分）

Dear Miss Green,

How’s everything going? An excellent English Stage Play Performances Competition is approaching in our school, and I’m writing to invite you to be a judge.

In order to improve students’ enthusiasm for learning English, provide them with a platform to show themselves and broaden their cultural horizons, the competition, which is scheduled to fall on next Friday from4  pm to 6 pm, will be held in our school hall.

The experienced judges like you are the key to the success of the competition. What’s more, I believe your gentle character, the impressive comments and your guidance will definitely add color to this activity.

I truly hope that you can join us. Looking forward to your arrival!

Yours sincerely,

Li Hua