2024年安徽省阜阳市临泉县部分学校中考模拟英语试题

这是一份2024年安徽省阜阳市临泉县部分学校中考模拟英语试题，共11页。试卷主要包含了 全卷包括“试题卷”两部分， B等内容，欢迎下载使用。

注意事项：
1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。
2. 全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。
3. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。听力录音
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
I. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
白卷你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. Which fd des the man like best?
A. B. C.
2. What des Mary’s sister d?
A. B. C.
3. Hw des Tm g t schl?
A. On ft. B. By bike. C. By bus.
4. What des the wman think f the by?
A. Careful. B. Kind. C. Thankful.
5. What will the wman prbably d next?
A. Sell sme fruit. B. Mve t a new place. C. Ask the pliceman fr help.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。
6. Hw many paintings are there in the museum?
A. Abut 2,000. B. Abut 2,300. C. Abut 3,000.
7. What’s the relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Father and daughter. C. Guide and visitr.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。
8. What des the wman wrk fr?
A. The teen website. B. The schl newspaper. C. The radi statin.
9. What did Bb bring t the Fd Festival?
A. Sandwiches. B. Cakes. C. Ckies.
10. Hw des Bb feel abut the Fd Festival?
A. Nice. B. Exciting. C. Relaxing.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. In which seasn is the Festival f Clrs?
A. Spring. B. Winter. C. Summer.
12. Wh celebrate the Festival f Clrs?
A. Chinese. B. Indians. C. Canadians.
13. What d peple d t celebrate the Festival f Clrs?
A. Sing and ck. B. Jump and dance. C. Sing and dance.
14. What can clrful water bring?
A. Great wealth. B. Gd luck. C. Great pwer.
15. Hw des everybdy like this festival?
A. Bring. B. Jyful. C. Meaningful.
Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分）
V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. In rder t ________ Chinese stries well, we shuld learn mre abut traditinal Chinese culture.
A. tell B. check C. cpy D. review
22. —What a heavy rain! Hw can we g hme nw?
—Take it easy. I brught an umbrella and we can share ________.
A. ne B. this C. it D. that
23. Yan Fengying frm Anhui is a famus ________. She is knwn t the lvers f Huangmei Opera.
A. painter B. artist C. farmer D. pilt
24. It’s ________ t see students cllect litter in the schl, and they have develped this gd habit.
A. cmmn B. secret C. bring D. awful
25. May ________ her mther’s help, because she wants t ck fr her parents herself.
A. gives up B. pays fr C. puts ff D. turns dwn
26. —Everything went mre ________ than we thught.
—That’s because we all made the best preparatins.
A. suddenly B. quietly C. smthly D. exactly
27. It’s difficult t learn a new language ________, but if yu practice mre, yu will finally speak it well.
A. at first B. in ttal C. at nce D. in case
28. —We all wnder ________ Gina made such great prgress this term.
—Thrugh her wn hard wrk.
A. when B. hw C. where D. which
29. Lk! Tny ________ flwers in the garden. He has learned planting skills frm the labr curse.
A. grws B. will grw C. is grwing D. has grwn
30. —Thank yu fr sharing the way yu learn English.
—________. Yu can ask me at any time.
A. My pleasure B. Help yurself C. It all depends D. N prblem
Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Sammie is a 17-year-ld girl frm America. Her parents 31 beans and crn n their farm every year, s she knew farming very well frm a yung age.
In 2020, Sammie wrked as a vlunteer（志愿者）at a 32 bank. She fund that there were very few 33 vegetables in the fd given away by thers. “Can I start a garden n part f ur 34 ?” she asked her parents. “I want t prvide newly-picked vegetables fr peple in need.” Her parents 35 her request （请求）.
Sammie decided t plant 15 different vegetables n abut 2,000 square meters f land. These vegetables included carrts, tmates, green beans and thers. It was nt 36 t grw them. During the ht summer, she had t 37 her vegetables by hand fr tw hurs a day r they might dry. She als checked wild plants daily.
Sammie has been grwing vegetables in her garden 38 she had her first harvest（收获）（weighing abut 18 kilgrams）in 2022. S far, she has given away mre than 3,000 kilgrams f 39 . She plans t make her garden bigger in2025. “I want t help 40 mre peple,” said the girl. “Helping thers makes me feel the happiest!”
31. A. serve B. burn C. plant D. wash
32. A. phne B. fd C. ty D. mdel
33. A. fresh B. cheap C. salty D. green
34. A. frest B. garden C. huse D. farm
35. A. asked fr B. heard frm C. agreed t D. thught f
36. A. creative B. prper C. simple D. useful
37. A. lift B. water C. pick D. dig
38. A. r B. but C. and D. s
39. A. meatB. fruit C. vegetables D. clthes
40. A. praise B. accept C. train D. feed
B
There have always been differences between ne generatin（一代人）and the next, and we call this the generatin gap（代沟）. In the past, these differences were mainly abut clthes r music. Nwadays, hwever, differences in the 41 f technlgy are als creating a new gap. Fr example, many grandparents smetimes dn’t understand the emjis（表情符号）f the 42 generatin.
Well, yung peple tday learn the new 43 f cmputers and the Internet. Hwever, ld peple grew up withut 44 technlgy and nw have t learn this new language. Scientists think that when a language is learned later in life, it ges int a 45 part f the brain. This means that yung and ld peple think abut infrmatin in their wn ways, because different parts f the brain d nt 46 in the same way.
Accrding t a survey f 500 yung peple n hw t 47 the new gap, 56% f them wuld be silent abut the generatin gap; 23% disagree with their 48 ; 12% f them cmmunicate with their parents patiently; and nly 9% wuld 49 their parents t use the new technlgy.
As children, yu shuld learn frm ld peple, and 50 explain and teach them hw t use the new technlgy. In this way, all family members can really enjy themselves n the Internet.
41. A. use B. pint C. secret D. spread
42. A. thinner B. yunger C. strnger D. braver
43. A. infrmatin B. language C. situatin D. instructin
44. A. nrmal B. traditinal C. imprtant D. mdern
45. A. interesting B. slw C. different D. strange
46. A. wrk B. listen C. find D. ask
47. A. care abut B. believe in C. deal with D. pint ut
48. A. parents B. classmates C. relatives D. neighbrs
49. A. advise B. chse C. allw D. teach
50. A. ludly B. patiently C. quickly D. nervusly
Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题 ；每小题1分 ，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
Sarah: The May Day hliday is cming. Have yu gt any plans?
Lily: 51 Hw abut visiting Munt Huangshan?
Sarah: It’s wnderful. 52
Lily: Yes, yu’re right.
Sarah: What’s mre, it’s quite far frm us.
Lily: 53 We can climb the muntain s there and see the whle lake.
Sarah: 54 We can get clse t nature and enjy the fresh air.
Lily: Yes. It’s a gd way t relax.
Sarah: 55 Let’s meet n May 1st in frnt f the schl gate.
Lily: See yu then.
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分）
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Welcme t the Texas Science & Natural Histry Museum
56. Which flr des the suggested tur start frm?
A. The first flr. B. The secnd flr.
C. The third flr. D. The furth flr.
57. What can we see n the third flr?
A. The latest technlgy. B. Phts f great peple.
C. Drawings and paintings. D. The gegraphy f a place.
58. What is the text trying t d?
A. T welcme us t visit the museum.
B. T shw visitrs hw t tur the museum.
C. T teach us hw t draw a museum map.
D. T help us knw mre histry abut the museum.
B
If yu are a freign turist and get lst in Beijing’s Sanlitun area, Zhang Jianna may be yur helpful “guide”.
Zhang, frm Hebei Prvince, is 50 years ld nw. She nce wrked as a restaurant waiter and a stre seller in Beijing. Since 2012, she has been a cleaner in Sanlitun.
There are many embassies（大使馆）in the area. One day in 2014, a freigner walked up t Zhang wh was utside an embassy. He asked her sme questins, but she culdn’t understand him. After high schl, Zhang had frgtten mst f her English knwledge. That day, she decided t relearn the language.
Zhang began t study her children’s English bks. She remembered the wrds at night and repeated them the next mrning. In her free time, she watched English vides n her smart phne t learn English. She als practiced English cnversatins with her children.
Zhang’s hard wrk has paid ff. Nw, she can talk t English-speaking turists easily. She can help them with directins and give infrmatin abut the city. Zhang has learned the English names f all these embassies as well.
“English is like a bridge,” said Zhang. “It helps me intrduce Beijing t the wrld.” The cleaner even plans t study a new language in the future. “I’ve heard that French is beautiful, and I’d like t learn it!”
59. What is Zhang’s jb nw?
A. A cleaner. B. A restaurant waiter.
C. A stre seller. D. A guide.
60. What made Zhang learn English again?
A. Her visit t her high schl.
B. An experience f talking with a freigner.
C. Her interest in English.
D. A stry frm her children’s English bk.
61. Hw did Zhang learn English?
①By studying her children’s English bks.
②By remembering and repeating wrds.
③By practicing English cnversatins with freigners.
④By watching English vides.
A. ①②③ B. ②③④
C. ①②④ D. ①②③④
62. Which f the fllwing wrds can best describe Zhang?
A. Easy-ging. B. Gd-lking.
C. Hard-wrking. D. Sft-spken.
C
Every year, a large number f birds hit the glass. Birds fly twards the glass as it reflects（反射）the sky and nearby trees during the day.
These accidents（事故）can be avided if we use prper ways. A German bird research grup learned a skill frm spiders. When insects hit spider webs（网）, spiders ften catch them, while birds d nt hit spider web s and can always avid them in time. After the research, it was discvered that the silk given by spiders can reflect UV rays（紫外线）, which birds can see.
Scientists think that if glass windws are cvered with UV catings, birds think they are “huge spider webs hanging in the sky”, and they will cleverly avid them. The research shws that 66% f birds cnsider the special glass as a wall and dn’t hit it. Scientists say, “Althugh this number may nt be as high as ur expected 100% r 95%, it can still save a lt f birds.”
In fact, when we deal with accidents f birds by using ways frm spider webs, we are trying t use nature t prtect animals. Nature is s clever and it seems t have the ability t slve everything.
63. Why d birds hit the glass during the day?
A. Because the glass reflects the sky and trees.
B. Because there are bright lights during the day.
C. Because there are mre and mre high buildings.
D. Because birds cannt see the light the glass reflects.
64. Accrding t scientists, what can be dne t slve the prblem?
A. Make the glass lk like a big tree. B. Cver the glass with UV catings.
C. Hang a huge spider web in the sky. D. Cut dwn the number f high buildings.
65. Which picture culd best match the research results? （□Gd results Bad results）
A. B. C. D.
D
Have yu ever thught abut planting trees n the cliffs（悬崖）? D yu think this can be dne? Wang Ynghng, the head f a lcal tree-planting team, had successfully planted trees in many places with his teammates, but he wasn’t sure whether his team culd make it n the cliffs.
Nw, 11 years have passed. Wang and his team have successfully planted mre than 10, 000 mu f trees n thse cliffs, making the impssible pssible.
It was hard t achieve success. There was t little sil（土壤）n the cliffs t supprt the lives f the trees. Wang fund that each hle needed at least 1 m³f sil t fill, s the team needed t transprt mre than 20 runds f sil fr just ne hle.
That day, Wang planted six trees n the cliff. Hwever, ne culd usually plant 60 trees a day n the plains（平原）. Wang said that their planting n the cliffs tk a lt f time with a little reward（回报）. “But it has a great meaning and we will keep ding it,” he said.
Thanks t the effrts f peple like Wang, China nw has the wrld’s largest land area f planted frests.
66. Hw des the writer begin the text?
A. By telling a stry. B. By giving examples.
C. By making a survey. D. By asking questins.
67. Why is it hard t achieve success?
A. Because the sil n the cliffs is t hard.
B. Because the sil n the cliffs is t little.
C. Because the sil under the rcks is t dry.
D. Because the sil in the village is t expensive.
68. What can we infer（推断）frm the underlined sentence in Paragraph 4?
A. Wang and his team planted trees quickly.
B. There are plenty f trees n the plains.
C. It’s difficult t plant trees n the cliffs.
D. Planting trees n the plains is mre meaningful.
69. What is the best title（标题）fr the text?
A. Planting Trees n the Cliffs
B. Finding the Key t Success
C. Develping the Area f Frests
D. Hlding the Team fr Planting
E
One day in 2011, the weather was fine. Jerme Michaud-Lariviere, a French engineer, was sitting in a square. Then he fund the leaves n the trees mving. Suddenly an idea came t his mind: “That’s energy. Why nt make use f it?”
After three years f hard wrk, Jerme and his team finally develped a nearly eight-meter-tall Wind Tree. It is like a real tree. Its plastic leaves can turn and prduce electricity even when there is a little wind. Each year, ne Wind Tree can prduce nearly 18,000 kWh, which is enugh t supprt a family f fur. This culd cut the family’s yearly carbn emissins（碳排放）by ver 12 tns. Even better, the trees make little nise while they are wrking. This isn’t detrimental t humans r animals, and it’s gd fr the envirnment.
Hwever, the Wind Tree is nt perfect. It is expensive t build and maintain（维护）. It als requires sme wind t prduce electricity, s it may nt be suitable fr areas with lw wind speeds.
Althugh there are sme shrtcmings（不足）, the Wind Tree is still a great inventin that prvides clean energy and helps prtect the envirnment. Jerme said, “We hpe that the Wind Tree can be cnnected with ther ways such as gethermal pwer（地热发电）and energy-saving buildings. In the future, we will develp a perfect Wind Tree.”
70. What encuraged Jerme t have an idea abut energy?
A. The green trees. B. The blwing wind.
C. The mving leaves. D. The beautiful square.
71. What des the underlined wrd “detrimental” in Paragraph 2 prbably mean?
A. Useful. B. Harmful.
C. Careful. D. Thankful.
72. What is Paragraph 3 mainly abut?
A. The histry f the Wind Tree.
B. The high price f the Wind Tree.
C. The intrductin f the Wind Tree.
D. The disadvantages f the Wind Tree.
第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。
F
Pac shut the dr hard after schl. “Dad, I’m s angry.” Pac’s father stpped his wrk and patiently listened t his sn. “Jack made me lse face tday, and I even hpe smething bad will happen t him,” Pac added.
His father went t the crner, fund a bag f charcal（木炭）and said, “Sn, take the white shirt hanging n the rpe as Jack, and the charcal in this bag as smething bad. Hit the shirt with charcal, and every time yu hit a piece f charcal, it means Jack has experienced a bad thing. Let’s see what will happen after using up all the charcal.” Pac didn’t understand why, but he did it anyway.
“Hw d yu feel nw?” his father asked. “I feel relaxed, but I have left several black marks n my jacket,” Pac said. Father asked Pac t lk in the mirrr. Pac fund himself cvered in black charcal.
“Yu see, the white shirt hasn’t becme very dirty, but yu’ve becme a ‘black’ yurself.”
S treating peple with an pen mind is a kind f spirit. Nt everything can g as well as what we hpe. If we can learn t tlerate（忍耐） bad things, life will be much better. But if we can’t, everything desn’t g well.
73. Why was Pac angry?（不超过10个词）
_________________________________________________________________________________________
74. What happened t Pac after using up all the charcal?（不超过10个词）
_________________________________________________________________________________________
75. What lessn did Pac prbably learn frm his father?（不超过10个词）
_________________________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. These a________（古老的）buildings shw peple’s excellent building skills in the past.
77. Success is nt hw high yu can r________（到达）, but hw yu make a difference t the wrld.
78. Althugh we are very t________（疲倦的）, we feel happy t have such a wnderful experience.
79. The classes frm the space are cnsidered as the beginning f sme students’ d________（梦想）f being scientists r astrnauts.
80. When Jim rushed t the finish line, the students in the stands c________（欢呼）fr him excitedly.
X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
假如你是李辉，你所在的班级将要举行一次毕业研学旅行。请结合下面图示信息用英语给你们班的交换生Mike写一封邮件，邀请他参加。
注意：
1. 邮件须包含图示所有信息，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名和地名；
3. 词数80~100（邮件的开头和结尾已为你写好，不计入总词数）。
Dear Mike,
Hw’s everything ging? ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I lk frward t yur early reply.
Yurs,
Li Hui
参考答案
I. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1~5 BAABC
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
6~10BABBC
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
11~15ABCBB
Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
16.clear 17. wash 18. sleep 19. yurself 20. peace
V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
21~25 ACBAD 26~30 CABCA
Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
31~35 CBADC 36~40 CBCCD 41~45 ABBDC46~50 ACADB
Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
51~55BFECG
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
56~58 BCB 59~62 ABCC 63~65 ABB 66~69DBCA 70~72 CBD
73. Because Jack made him lse face.
74. He was cvered in black charcal.
75. Treating/T treat peple with an pen mind.
IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
76. ancient 77. reach 78. tired 79. dreams 80. cheered
X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
【高分范文】
Dear Mike,
Hw’s everything ging? I am writing this letter t invite yu t take part in the schl graduates’ study trip. With ur graduatin cming clser and clser, ur class plans a study trip fr schl graduates next weekend. Our class is ging t take a tw-day trip t Tianzhu Muntain. During the trip, we will get t the Tianzhu Peak where we can take phts and have a picnic. T enjy the beauty f the sunrise, we need t get up early. What’s mre, the sea f cluds is really wrth seeing frm the tp f the muntain. I believe we will have a wnderful time. I hpe yu will jin us.
I lk frward t yur early reply.
Yurs,
Li HuiWays t Deal with Being Nervus
D exercise
Help yu make yur mind 16. ________
Take a shwer
Yu can 17. ________ away all the trubles
Have sme warm milk
Be gd fr yur 18. ________
Listen t light music
Make yu relax 19. ________ better
Read bks fr a while
Help yu stay in 20. ________
A. Sure.
B. Nt yet.
C. Nice advice.
D. What can yu d there?
E. Well, what abut Chahu?
F. But I’m afraid it will be crwded there.
G. I believe we will have a great time.