2024年中考第一次模拟考试题：英语（武汉专用）（考试版A3）

这是一份2024年中考第一次模拟考试题：英语（武汉专用）（考试版A3），共6页。
（考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答第Ⅰ卷时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
3．回答第Ⅱ卷时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题，共85分）
听力测试（共25分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1．A．In China. B．They are cl. C．3 meters.
2．A．A Bing Dwen Dwen. B．Tmrrw. C．Exciting.
3．A．At 4:00 p.m. B．Since last night. C．Fr tw hurs.
4．A．Yes, I d. B．Yes, I did. C．Yes, I have.
5．A．Fr tw weeks. B．With his parents. C．In Beijing.
第二节（共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分）
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6．Wh was the tallest in the past?
A．Sam.B．Grace.C．Lily.
7．Hw is the man feeling nw?
A．Thirsty.B．Hungry.C．Sleepy.
8． Wh sent Lily the schlbag as a gift?
A．Her cusin.B．Her mther.C．Her grandmther.
9．Hw many hurs is the bank pen n weekdays?
A．Five hurs.B．Five and a half hurs.C．Six and a half hurs.
10．Wh sent Lily the schlbag as a gift?
A．Her cusin.B．Her mther.C．Her grandmther.
11．What’s Julia’s future dream?
A．T enter a gd schl.B．T wrk in space.C．T wrk in a hspital.
12．When will the girl have the math exam?
A．On the 25th.B．On the 26th.C．On the 27th.
第三节（共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分）
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答下列13-15小题。
13．When did Jake finish his hmewrk?
A．Yesterday afternn.B．Yesterday evening.C．This afternn.
14．What des Jake want t put in the ndles?
A．He wanted t put sme ptates int the ndles.
B．He wanted t put sme tmates int the ndles.
C．He wanted t put sme meat int the ndles.
15．Where did the tw peple have this cnversatin?
A．At hme.B．In a restaurant.C．At the dining hall.
听下面一段对话，回答下列16-18小题。
16．Where are the speakers ging in the end?
A．T the Fashin Center.B．T Clthes fr Less.C．T the Twn Center.
17．What can we learn frm the cnversatin?
A．The man’s mther desn’t allw him t drive the car.
B．The clthes in the Fashin Center are nt cheap but f gd quality.
C．They will take a bus t Dave’s.
18．What will Tim have fr lunch?
A．Dumplings and a sandwich. B．Sandwiches and sup. C．Sandwiches and salad.
听下面一段对话，回答下列19-22小题。
19．Wh are the tw speakers?
A．A pliceman and a runner. B．A salesman and a custmer.C．A reprter and a desk clerk.
20．What des Susan d every day in a htel?
A．She prvides service. B．She manages the htel. C．She cleans the frnt desk.
21．When des the cnversatin take place?
A．A day befre the race. B．Just while the race. C．Right after the race.
22．Which is true abut Susan?
A．She wn the bicycle race and made much mney.
B．She wrked fr extra time t buy a racing bicycle.
C．She preferred riding a bicycle t wrking in a htel.
听下面一段独白，回答下列23-25小题。
23．Where is the captain speaking?
A．On a plane.B．On a train.C．On a ship.
24．What can passengers NOT d?
A．Have snacks.B．Enjy the view f the city.C．Phne their family r friends.
25．What can we knw frm the passage?
A．They will arrive in Lndn a little later than planned.
B．The speed f the plane is 430 miles per hur.
C．They can enjy mvies befre they arrive in Lndn.
二、选择填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26．—Mm, may I play cmputer games fr a while?
—________. Dad is writing his paper.
A．Help yurselfB．Behave yurselfC．It’s up t yuD．With pleasure
27．—D yu knw what I mean?
—_________. I’m a bit lst.
A．Nt reallyB．Yu are rightC．Let it beD．It’s nthing
28．— I am really nervus abut the cming exam.
— ________! Yu surely will pass it.
A．Well dneB．Nt at all
C．Cme nD．What a pity
29．—The car will nt start. What can I d?
—Dn’t wrry. Jim and I ________ it a push.
A．gaveB．giveC．will giveD．have given
30．—Amy, yu must be hungry after waiting fr us fr such a lng time.
—Dn’t wrry. I ________ sme ckies already.
A．am eatingB．will eatC．was eatingD．have eaten
31．—Excuse me! I dn’t think yu can take phts here.
—I’m srry. I ________ the sign.
A．dn’t nticeB．will nticeC．haven’t nticedD．didn’t ntice
32．—Why didn’t still yu finish yur reprt?
—I culdn’t d anything ________ Wi- Fi.
A．frmB．nC．thrughD．withut
33．—Culd yu ffer me a jb, Madam?
—I’m afraid I’m nt in a(an) _______ t help yu. I’m just a salesman here.
A．cnditinB．envirnmentC．situatinD．psitin
34．—Mm, please fetch me a bx f ygurt.
—There’s _______ in the fridge. What abut range juice instead?
A．nneB．nthingC．neitherD．anything
35．—It’s really hard fr me t make a chice!
—Yu can turn t Marie fr help. She’s always a ________ thinker.
A．freshB．clearC．straightD．typical
36．—Shawn is _______ t be ne f the finest dctrs f his generatin（同代人）.
—He was brn t study medicine and has saved many peple’s lives.
A．wishedB．cnsideredC．taughtD．chsen
37．—I want t keep a pet, but I dn’t have much time.
—Hw abut raising a parrt? Yu ________ walk it, and it can feed itself.
A．can’tB．mustn’tC．shuldn’tD．needn’t
38．—Have yu watched the mvie the Wandering Earth?
—Yes, I read the nvel first. The writer Liu Cixin has ________ the wrld with his wrks.
A．savedB．crrectedC．influencedD．entered
39．—Did yu hear that the well-knwn fd vlgger had been arrested just recently?
—Sure. It ______ that he had abused and killed many cats.
A．turned utB．fund utC．came utD．gt ut
40．—D yu knw what happened last time?
—Srry, I dn’t knw ________.
A．that made him angryB．what made him angry
C．what the matter was with himD．when he was angry
三、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Have yu ever rushed t sme very imprtant places nly t find yu’re n the wrng bus and yu’ll never make it in time? One wman in New Zealand 41 this last year, but the bus driver went 42 his duty t help her ut.
One Sunday, Masn was n her way t see her 70-year-ld mm wh lives in a nursing hme. Because f its recent rules, 43 are limited (限制) t an half-hur perid scheduled ahead (提前预约安排). When Masn 44 she hadn’t gt n the right bus and her 30-minute windw was fast clsing, Masn started crying, tearfully 45 t the bus driver, 57-year-ld Alex Bailey, what had happened.
Rather than keep t his schedule, Bailey decided t 46 . With nds frm the ther 47 , Bailey tk anther lnger rute (路线) and 48 Masn t the nursing hme, drpped her ff, and then calmly went back t his regular rute.
By 49 , as Masn arrived at the nursing huse, a news reprter was there. Masn tld the reprter her 50 , expressing praise fr the bus driver. The stry 51 the evening news, and it hit scial media. Bailey was “Internet 52 ”.
Actually, Bailey is nly ne f the serving members during the pandemic (流行病), wh has been 53 arund the clck t make sure that key wrkers, educatin and cmmunities stay cnnected and keep the city running 54 . Later, he said that it was just a nice, magical mment, and it was just the 55 thing t d.
41．A．sharedB．annuncedC．celebratedD．experienced
42．A．intB．dwnC．beyndD．fr
43．A．visitsB．prgramsC．cursesD．presents
44．A．remindedB．dreamedC．realizedD．dubted
45．A．leadingB．explainingC．shutingD．applying
46．A．mve rundB．run ffC．calm dwnD．take actin
47．A．visitrsB．patientsC．passengersD．friends
48．A．drveB．ranC．flewD．spread
49．A．heartB．handC．accidentD．mistake
50．A．trubleB．planC．nameD．stry
51．A．receivedB．madeC．brkeD．reprted
52．A．redB．hnestC．famusD．imprtant
53．A．wrkingB．waitingC．changingD．saving
54．A．difficultlyB．earlyC．quicklyD．smthly
55．A．wrngB．rightC．usualD．daily
四、阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
56．In which sectin f the newspaper can we read the news?
A．ANIMALSB．SAFE KIDSC．LATESTD．JUST FOR FUN
57．The masct f the 2026 Cmmnwealth Games ________.
A．is Perry the bullB．will cme ut in 2026
C．might cme frm a certain classrmD．is a symbl fr lve and peace
58．What wuld be the best heading fr the secnd f news?
A．Shrt Stry CmpetitinB．Design fr stries
C．The kids newsD．Win fr a prize
59．Accrding t the third news, we can NOT learn ________.
A．Barbie dlls are released by Mattel
B．Dwn Syndrme might be a cmmn disease
C．The dll cmpany tries t enrich its prduct series t attract the custmers
D．It’s the first time that Barbie dlls lk like real peple
60．It’s clear that ________.
A．A patient with Dwn Syndrme ften has a runder face and bigger ears
B．The 2026 Cmmnwealth Games will be held in Birmingham
C．Cmmnwealth Games might take place every fur years
D．Jeren Weimar is the judge f the stry cmpetitin
B
As 16-year-ld Trriell Nrwd drve thrugh Flrida, last February, the laughter and chatter frm the fur teenage girls inside her car quickly gave way t screams. As they came near t a crssing, anther car crashed them, sending their car sailing int the yard f a nearby hme, cming t a stp nly when it hit a tree.
As smke rse frm the car, a bystander shuted, "It’s abut t blw up! Get ut.” Shaken but OK, Nrwd crawled ut thrugh the windw ★ . Alng with tw f her friends, wh’d als managed t free themselves, she ran fr her life. But halfway dwn the street, she realized that her best friend, Simmns, wasn’t with them. Nrwd ran back and fund Simmns senseless in the back seat. She threw pen the back dr and pulled her friend ut. She dragged Simmns a few feet t safety and laid her n the grund. After checking her pulse and fund there was n sign f life, she started CPR（心肺复苏术）.
Had the accident happened a few weeks earlier, she might nt have knwn what t d. But just the day befre, Nrwd, wh wanted t lk fr a career in medicine, had earned her CPR certificate by learning n her wn. Kneeling n the lawn and lking dwn at her dying friend, Nrwd knew she had precius little time t practice what she’d learned.
She started pumping Simmns’s chest with her interlcked fingers and breathing int her friend’s muth in the hpe f filling her lungs with the kiss f life. After quite a while, Simmns began cughing and taking quick deep breaths fr air. The CPR had wrked! Sn, the ambulance arrived and rushed Simmns t the hspital. And then she heard hw her best friend had saved her life. “I am nt shcked,” Simmns tld thers, “She will always help any way she can.”
61．Accrding t the passage, the car crash was because ________.
A．anther car hit Nrwd’s car near the crssing B．Nrwd drve the car t quickly that day
C．Nrwd’s car crashed int a tree in a yard D．the girls were t excited t ntice anther car
62．Which f the fllwing can be put in ____★____?
A．then she tried t save her friend at nceB．and Simmn fllwed her ftsteps
C．since the driver’s side dr culdn’t be penedD．but Nrwd culdn’t make it
63．Why did Nrwd knw hw t perfrm CPR?
A．She had learned CPR in schl classes. B．She fund a career in medicine.
C．The bystander tld her hw t d it. D．She just earned her CPR certificate.
64．Which wrd is clsest in meaning t the underlined wrd “pumping” in Paragraph 4?
A．Hitting.B．Pressing.C．Hlding.D．Pulling.
65．What’s the best title f the passage?
A．The Breath f Life. B．A Frightening Night. C．Pwer f Knwledge. D．A True Friendship.
C
They hang frm trees. They flat in rivers and ceans. They are piled up in landfills(垃圾填埋场). Our frequent use f plastic prducts has, fr many years, been a leading cause f serius envirnmental prblems in the wrld. Last mnth, China drew up new guidelines(指导方针) aiming t bring plastic pllutin under cntrl acrss the cuntry in five years’ time.
Accrding t the new guidelines, the ban(禁令) n the use f nn-bidegradable(不可生物降解的) plastic bags will have been applied t cities including Beijing and Shanghai by the end f this year. Other surces f plastic garbage will have been banned in these cities by the end f 2022. And that rule will have extended natinwide by late 2025.
Frtunately, China will nt start frm zer. Late last year, the cuntry annunced a natinal standard fr bidegradable plastic shpping bags. It is technlgically prepared fr their prductin. Sme regins have gained valuable experience that thers can learn frm. Fr example, Jilin prvince is leading the way by prviding ec-friendly(环保的) shpping bags in sme lcal supermarkets.
Given the size f China’s cnsumer market, ne main bstacle(障碍) is the large number f plastic items that are being used by restaurants and e-cmmerce(电子商务) platfrms. It’s estimated that nearly 25 billin plastic bags were used fr deliveries in 2018. Mst f them were rarely reused.
Hwever, mst Chinese peple welcmed the gvernment’s effrt t reduce the use f plastics. “Beijing is thinking abut the prblem seriusly,” said Tang Damin, a member f Greenpeace East Asia in Beijing. He added that the plicy culd be far mre effective(有效) by using incentives(激励) such as a depsit(押金) return prgram n plastic prducts.
66．What des the writer want t tell us?
A．China has invented bidegradable plastic shpping bags.
B．Plastic pllutin becmes mre and mre serius in China.
C．Greenpeace East Asia in Beijing wrries abut the plastic pllutin.
D．China has drawn up new guidelines t reduce plastic pllutin in five years.
67．Accrding t the time line f the new guidelines, .
A．the rules will have extended natinwide by late 2025
B．plastic garbage will have been banned in Shanghai by the end f 2020
C．plastic bags wn’t be allwed t be used in Beijing by the end f 2022
D．a depsit return prgram n plastic prducts will be put int practicing in 2023
68．What is the biggest challenge t fllw the guidelines?
A．Mst Chinese peple aren’t used t using paper bags.
B．It’s hard t make effective plicy t slve the prblem.
C．Many supermarkets are still prviding custmers with plastic bags.
D．Restaurants and e-cmmerce platfrms need large number f plastic items.
69．What des Tang Damin think f the new plicy?
A．The new guidelines are nt much useful.
B．Peple shuld be encuraged t fllw the plicy.
C．The new plicy can help a lt t develp Greenpeace.
D．Beijing is thinking abut the plastic pllutin seriusly.
70．After reading the passage, we can infer that .
A．peple will rder mre take-ut fd
B．plastic bags will be widely reused in the wrld
C．bidegradable plastic shpping bags will becme ppular
D．there will be mre peple using paper prducts in the future
第II卷 （非选择题 共35分）
五、词与短语填空（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
仔细阅读下面五个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。（提示：选项中有一个是多余的）
71．The change is meant t help them set up a t make a living.
72．Students clsed the windw hurriedly t their bks frm the rain.
73．Julia gt such a feeling f relief when she saw her pet cat get better.
74．Universities are the places that all my best memries.
75．In Asian cuntries, yu shuld yur shes befre entering a huse.
六、阅读理解填词（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处写出各单词的正确形式，单词的第一个字母已给出。
Orin Jean, a little by in the United States, has a big gal. He wants t s 76 kindness t as many peple as he can.
It all started in August 2020. Jean r 77 $500 in prize mney after winning the U. S. Natinal Kindness Speech Cntest. He culd have spent the mney n Legs, but he quickly realized that it was nt e 78 t just speak abut kindness. The by set up the “Race t Kindness” prject.
Jean started ff by helping children in hspital. Because f the COVID-19 pandemic, these children were nt able t see their family members very ften. Jean wanted t put a s 79 n their faces. He used his mney t buy as many tys as he culd while calling n peple t d the same. In nly a mnth, he had c 80 619 tys. The by sent them t a lcal children’s hspital. “It is ne f the best e 81 f my life,” he said at the time.
Nt lng after, in Octber 2020, Jean s 82 the ambitius gal f dnating 100, 000 free Thanksgiving meals t pr families. With the help f a lcal charity, he was nt nly able t reach his gal but t g beynd it. As a bk lver, Jean knws hw r 83 can change a persn’s life. Last May, after discvered the f 84 that tw ut f three kids frm pr family had n bks f their wn, they by decided t cllect 500, 000 bk fr them.
Will he t 85 a break after this? “Wh knws? Maybe smething even bigger will cme,” Jean says. “Maybe we’ll d a ’race’ t a millin.”
七、书面表达（共1大题，满分15分）
假定你是李华，一名英国交换生Chris 向你咨询中国人日常生活中的基本社交礼仪，如待人接物、餐桌礼仪、参加聚会等。请你根据以下内容提示给Chris写一封邮件，介绍你所知道的相关礼仪。
内容提示：
What d yu usually d when yu meet peple fr the first time?
Hw d yu behave prperly at table?
What are we suppsed t d when yu g t a party?
Smething mre abut the Chinese custms.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息；词数60—80；开头结尾已给出；不计入总词数。
Hi Chris!
I’m lking frward t yur exchange visit._____________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I hpe the abve is helpful and see yu sn!
Lve,
Li Hua
Help design 2026 Cmmnwealth Games masct(吉祥物)Schlchildren will be asked t help design a masct t represent Victria, Australia fr the 2026 Cmmnwealth Games(英联邦运动会). The Victria 2026 Cmmnwealth Games masct, t be annunced late next year, will replace the 2022 Birmingham Game’s Perry the bull. The directr, Jeren Weimar stressed the prcess wuld include sending staff int classrms t ask kids what they want as a symbl f the Games.
_________________
The Kids News Shrt Stry Cmpetitin runs frm May 1 t 26 and is free t enter. The cmpetitin has fur age grups: Kindergarten t Year 2; Years 3-4; Years 5-6 and Years 7-9. Stries must be between 250 and 750 wrds fr students in Kindergarten t Year 4; and between 500 and 1000 wrds fr students in Years 5 t 9. The judges, will chse the winning entries, with the first prize winner in each age grup scring 10 cpies f their shrt stry published int a printed bk with a persnally designed cver. There are als prizes fr ne runner-up and three highly cmmended entries in each age grup.
First Barbie dll with Dwn syndrme(唐氏综合征)It’s the best-knwn dll brand in the wrld, and nw in a wrld first, Mattel has released a Barbie wh has Dwn syndrme. The dll will be ne f the cmpany’s 2023 Barbie Fashin cllectin, part f Mattel’s bid in recent years t increase the differences f its dlls. T create the dll with Dwn syndrme, the ty cmpany wrked with the US Natinal Dwn Syndrme Sciety (NDSS). The Barbie dlls have features what a persn with Dwn syndrme has, including the face, which has a runder shape, smaller ears, and a flat nse.
prtect/take ff /hld/strng /use up /strange /business