2022-2023学年河南省部分重点中学高一下学期5月质量检测英语试题含答案

这是一份2022-2023学年河南省部分重点中学高一下学期5月质量检测英语试题含答案，共23页。试卷主要包含了15等内容，欢迎下载使用。
 2023年5月份质量检测
高一年级英语试题
(考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分)
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、考场号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9. 18. C. £9. 15.
答案是C。
1. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Food. B. Weather. C. Pets.
2. How does the man feel right now?
A. Sorry. B. Angry. C. Delighted.
3. Why is the woman in a hurry?
A. She will miss her flight.
B. She has to attend a meeting.
C. She has to keep an appointment.
4. What does the woman probably do?
A. A doctor. B. A student. C. A secretary.
5. What can we know about Professor Smith?
A. She is very busy. B. She has retired. C. She will be free tomorrow.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6~7题。
6. What probably happened to the man?
A. He got a headache.
B. He had his feet injured.
C. He had a broken arm.
7. What's the doctor 's suggestion for the man?
A. Taking medicine regularly.
B. Staying for another day.
C. Having a checkup.
听第7段材料，回答第8~9题。
8. What's the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Teacher and student.
B. Husband and wife.
C. Manager and clerk.
9. What do we know about the man?
A. He is often late for work.
B. He always repairs the alarm clock by himself.
C. His car often breaks down on the way to work.
听第8段材料，回答第10~12题。
10. What's the woman doing now?
A. Making an apology.
B. Doing repairs.
C. Making a complaint.
11. When did the woman call room service?
A. Before 8 pm. B. At noon. C. Around 9 pm,
12. What do we know about the woman's room?
A. It has a broken light.
B. It has no bathroom.
C. It is beautifully decorated.
听第9段材料，回答第13~16题。
13. Where is Mr. Smith from?
A. Canada. B. The UK. C. The USA.
14. Why a festival called Boxing Day was added?
A. People liked boxing.
B. People wanted a longer holiday.
C. People needed a day to collect boxes.
15. When did Mr. Smith come to China?
A. Two years ago. B. Last year. C. Last month.
16. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Shopping. B. Festivals. C. The man's experience.
听第10段材料，回答第17~20题。
17. How many Antarctic trips has Xuelong-2 completed?
A.18. B.29. C.38.
18. When are the scientists expected to return to China?
A. In June 2023. B. In March 2023. C. In April 2023,
19. Which field is included in the crew's Antarctic research plan?
A. Water environment. B. Ocean currents. C. Polar animals.
20. Which stations will get supplies from the two icebreakers?
A. The Zhongshan and Kunlun stations.
B. The Taishan and Great Wall stations.
C. The Great Wall and Zhongshan stations.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Become a Frog-watcher
Frogs are disappearing at an alarming rate across the globe due to a number of factors such as habitat loss, pollution, and disease. As a citizen scientist with Frog Watch USA, you can help save our frogs!
Trainings:
2023 training coming soon!
Price: $ 10/ household (includes up to 2 adults and children of that household)
Frog Watch trainings cover the importance of amphibians (两栖动物)in the environment.' The instruction focuses on how to:
●monitor our local frog population to protect the species
●determine factors when choosing a site to monitor
●tell frog species apart by their calls
●report findings to Frog Watch USA
The training will take approximately 2 hours to complete but will be entirely self-paced and permit the registrants to take breaks as needed throughout. And it covers all of the Frog Watch essentials to prepare you for your first monitoring session!
After passing a test on identifying frog calls at the end. of the training, certified volunteers then commit to monitoring a local amphibian habitat (such as a pond or lake) approximately once a week for about 15 minutes and collecting/ submitting data on what they hear. Data collected will be added to a national Frog Watch USA database.
Please note: Frog Watch trainings will cover a lot of information and protocols(规程). While frog-watching is a great after-dark family activity for all ages, the trainings are designed for interested older children and adults.
21. What training will a participant receive?
A. Choosing a monitor for a website,
B. Keeping track of the local frog population.
C. Recording the troubles for Frog Watch USA.
D. Identifying different frog species by their shapes.
22. How will a participant end the training?
A. By submitting data to Frog Watch USA.
B. By finding a suitable local frog habitat.
C. By having a test of recognizing frog calls.
D. By collecting frog data 15 minutes a week.
23. What can we know about the frog- watching activity?
A. It is usually done at night. B. It is carried out by parents.
C. It will last about hours a day. D. It offers rewards for new species.
B
Growing up, Springfield teacher Katie Baker didn't immediately know that she was good at math, She recalled seeing patterns and solving equations(方程式), but she often struggled to complete math tests in a timely manner. “I just felt that I couldn't keep up,” said Baker. “I understood it. I just wasn't fast.”
Baker uses her own experiences and early self-doubt to help young students who have math anxiety or believe, for whatever reason, that they hate math.
In Baker's first-grade classroom, math isn't a separated block of time. As a subject, it is interwoven(交织) into nearly every activity, starting with calendar time in the morning. She favors hands-on lessons and those with “real life” application. “We do math throughout the day,” she said. “Math is everywhere.”
Third-grader Henry VanBibber, who plans to compete in a math contest, said Baker's love of numbers rubbed off. She has increased his confidence in math, “I didn't think I was bad, but I didn't think I was great. Math is a way. to explain the world. She is very enthusiastic and makes learning fun,” said VanBibber.
One summer, while working at a day care in Detroit, she spent time with a girl who had special needs. She was worried that too few of the staff members were arranged to help special students like the girl find their potentials.
“After working with her，that changed my attitude,” she said. “I believe that it's just ordered that I should be here.” By “here”, she means Holland, where her class of 20 students includes those with various challenges. Four are deaf or hearing impaired(受损的).
Baker is learning sign language but isn't yet fluent, so she has an interpreter in her room, which has urged her to find new ways to reach students. “We do many discussions about math,” she said. “We talk about being able to stand up for your answer and prove what you know.”
Baker said someday she hoped to become a math coach. “For now, I love where I'm at,” she said.
24. What can we learn about Baker from paragraph 1?
A. She was slow in learning math.
B. She showed love for math at school.
C. She had a gift for solving math problems.
D. She could hardly understand math problems.
25. How does Baker deal with math in her class?
A. She holds various activities.
B. She applies math to students' daily life.
C. She spares some special time to teach math.
D. She asks students to use hands in math classes.
26. What does the underlined phrase “rubbed off” in Paragraph 4 mean?
A. Added up. B. Got away. C. Took effect. D. Became clear.
27. What encouraged Baker to become a math teacher?
A. Her failing in math tests.
B. Her seeing others treat children badly.
C. Her learning sign language.
D. Her working with a girl with special needs.
C
Experts often tell students to center their efforts on a narrow field to get a job after school. But recent research into Nobel Prize winners suggests that wider interests are important.
One of the winners of 2022's Nobel Prize in Chemistry was Danish scientist Morten Meldal. He received the award with two other chemists for their work on “click chemistry”. Click chemistry describes when scientists create materials that join molecules together even in living things. Meldal said he started out as an engineer but changed to chemistry because he “wanted to understand the world”. He talked about his co-winner, Carolyn Bertozzi. He said, “She has such a broad knowledge of both chemistry and biology and she knows how to use her knowledge in a very skillful way.
Researchers Michele Root Bernstein and Robert Root- Bernstein said that a large number of Nobel Prize winners can be described as “polymaths”, who have many different interests in both their work and personal lives. Sometimes they are called “Renaissance” men or women.
One winner in medicine, Christiane Nusslein-Volhard, said that during some parts of her life, she made games, drew pictures and wrote a cookbook. She told young scientists to avoid following the “mainstream” and move out of their study areas in order to be independent and original.
Most professionals are not like the prize winners. They are special in that they regularly look for chances to learn new things, even outside of their jobs. Nobel winners are nine times more likely to have experience in working with wood, metal or in the arts than most scientists.
The researchers say that the Nobel Prize winners have an open mind about their life experiences, unlike many people who spend long hours at work and give up some of their outside interests.
Dario Fo won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1997. He talked about drawing and painting as a way to solve problems that came up in his writing. “When I'm having difficulty with a play, I stop writing so I can draw out the action in pictures,” he said.
28. Why does the author mention Meldal and Carolyn?
A. To stress their wider range of knowledge.
B. To explain the meaning of “click chemistry”.
C. To introduce the significance of their research.
D. To congratulate them on winning the Nobel Prize.
29. What do the words “‘Renaissance’ men or women” in Paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Those who explore their interests in their work.
B. Those who know a lot about many different fields.
C. Those who have the potential to win the Nobel Prize.
D. Those who live a life like that of Renaissance people.
30. What do Nobel Prize winners tend to do?
A. Live a life with a variety of interests.
B. Follow the popular current of thought.
C. Focus on their special work to be successful.
D. Find chances to seek for new things regularly.
31. What does the example of Dario Fo prove?
A. Hobbies are unique to everyone.
B. Hobbies are important to inspiration.
C. Hobbies are the first step to knowledge.
D. Hobbies bring you energy and excitement.
D
Indoor plants are a beautiful way to brighten up your home, especially in the gray months of winter. But there can be a dark side to houseplants if you have children or if children visit your home. I's important that you know which plants are poisonous to them.
Gardening expert Jessica Damiano often points out houseplants in friends' homes should be kept out of children's mouths. “I don't mind ruining friends' hopes of a beautiful indoor jungle if it means preventing harm,” Damiano said.
America's Poison Centers in Arlington, Virginia get an average of 33,000 calls a year from people whose kids put different plants in their mouths. The cases usually involve children under 3 because they would explore their environment and put everything in their mouths. Most accidental exposures aren't serious. But in some cases a child's breathing, skin and eyes can be badly harmed.
Damiano recently visited her cousin's home and saw a dieffenbachia plant in the kitchen. Her cousin told her that her young son, who had just begun crawling(爬), had shown interest in the leaves. Damiano had to explain to her cousin that eating a small amount of the plant's stem(茎) can cause temporary but severe pain. The plant parts can cause throat and mouth swelling. The plant's sap(树液) can cause nose, skin and eye pain. Other plants that can cause similar reactions include: caladium, flamingo flower, Swiss cheese plant, peace lily and pothos.
Damiano said that parents should teach their young children not to put non-food plant parts into their mouths. Besides, she urges parents to research whether the plants in their homes are safe to grow around children. She also suggests learning the official botanical names of houseplants so that they're able to provide that information quickly to a poison control expert, if needed.
Not all houseplants are problematic, of course. Spider plants are nontoxic(无毒的) and are also among the easiest indoor plants to grow. African violets, Boston ferns and Christmas cactus are other safe choices.
32. Why are children under 3 more likely to become victims of houseplants?
A. They have easier access to houseplants.
B. They enjoy tasting anything out of curiosity.
C. They tend to mistake houseplants for candies.
D. They are more sensitive to poison of any kind.
33. What can we learn about the dieffenbachia plant according to the text?
A. Its sap can lead to pain in the skin.
B. Its stem can cause long lasting pain,
C. It harms health only when eaten a lot.
D. It looks like the peace lily in appearance.
34. What is Damiano's suggestion for parents with young children?
A. They should avoid growing houseplants.
B. They should ask their children not to touch plants.
C. They should teach themselves knowledge about houseplants.
D. They should keep in close touch with poison control experts.
35. What is the best title for the text?
A. How to Choose Safe Houseplants'
B. How to Decorate Houses with Plants
C. Keep Young Children Away from Houseplants
D. Watch Young Children around Some Houseplants
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Learning To Run
At middle school, I felt that it was boring to run around the playing ground. Then, last year, my classmate asked me if I'd like to run a 15-kilometer event with him. 36
I thought about the question all the weekend. I thought, “Why do I dislike running? I haven't tried it since I was 7!” Eventually, I decided to give running one more chance before saying I hated it. 37 He was glad to hear that I would join him, and advised me to look on the Internet for a running program to help me learn how to run.
38 I chose a 14-week running program which would teach me how to run for 30 minutes non-stop. The program was very easy to follow, with precise instructions on what to do each week.
I liked following the running program as I could see improvements in my running each week. 39 My younger self wouldn't have believed it. I went from hating running to loving it!
On the day of the 15-kilometer event, I was both excited and nervous. Finally, it was time to put my new skills into practice. My friends and families came to support me. It was lovely to have them there. With their support and my training, I managed to finish the 15-kilometer event in 105 minutes. 40
From this experience I learned it's a good idea to try something before saying “No way!”
A. Running is often tiring and lots of hard work.
B. It was tough but I felt very proud for having tried it.
C. My instant reaction was “No way! I dislike running.”
D. There were various running programs on the Internet.
E. I told my classmate that I wanted to enter the event with him.
F. I went from running for 30 seconds to running for over 30 minutes!
G. Running is a good way to exercise because it makes my heart strong.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Sam, the four-legged superhero, works to keep a park in Santiago clean. The dog's superpower? Collecting garbage as a 41 for visitors.
Sam, who takes regular 42 in Santiago's park with his owner, has become 43 , wearing a green cape(披风) in a comic(连环画) to work as an educational guide.
It 44 when Sam and Gonzalo Chiang had to stop again and again in the city's largest green area to 45 plastic bottles, cans and food packages. “On Sam's walks, we began to find a lot of 46 ,” Chiang said. “From there, the 47 to take away the garbage that we found on each visit became apparent. The walk is a good opportunity to 48 , rather than litter,” Chiang said.
Park officials were impressed and decided to use Sam's 49 in its park care campaign. They turned Sam into a cartoon in Sam: The Parquemet Superhero, 50 visitors to take their waste with them or use 51 points found along the path. “This became much more 52 than expected,” Aravena said. “It reached different schools and has spread very well on social media.”
The 53 launched anti-litter campaigns last year urging drink vendors(摊主) to switch from plastic cups to glass ones and started 54 garbage into separate bins.
Sam and Gonzalo “have 55 us to accelerate (加快) this education process and structure this garbage classification,” said Eduardo Villalobos, the park's acting director.
41. A. cultural icon B. role model C. helper D. worker
42. A. breaks B. hikes C. walks D. vacations
43. A. brave B. famous C. busy D. kind
44. A. failed B. started C. appeared D. continued
45. A. set aside B. pay for C. put away D. pick up
46. A. grass B. people C. garbage D. equipment
47. A. challenge B. need C. chance D. doubt
48. A. think B. relax C. clean D. explore
49. A. image B. ability C. identity D. popularity
50. A. helping B. telling C. permitting D. inviting
51. A. washing B. parking C. recycling D. observing
52. A. interesting B. important C. beneficial D. widespread
53. A. park B. school C. government D. market
54. A. turning B. breaking C. delivering D. sorting
55. A. inspired B. required C. reminded D. persuaded
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In ancient times, the drum was 56 (wide) used in China such as in hunting and agricultural activities. The drum as a musical instrument 57 (begin) in the Zhou Dynasty. The cultural meaning of the drum is broad and profound, 58 the loud and great drum sound closely accompanies human beings.
From the original pottery (陶器) drums, earthen drums, leather drums, and metal drums, 59 a wide range of modern drums, the drum is one of the 60 (popular) musical instruments. It 61 (believe) that the earliest drums should be used by the ancient ancestors. And unearthed pottery drums proved that 62 (date) back to seven thousand years ago in the early Neolithic, pottery drums had already begun. Pottery drums are made of pottery clay into a drum frame(框架) and then covered with animal leather. In our country, the tradition of making pottery drums with tiles(瓦) as the frame had been followed for 63 long time. Then people used wood and other materials 64 (make) drums.
Nowadays, dozens of types of Chinese drums exist, including waist drums. The popularity of drum culture reflects the stability and 65 (develop). of Chinese society.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
假定你是李华，你校英语社团拟创办一份中学生英文报刊，正在就报刊栏目征集同学们的意见。请你用英语给社团负责人Mr Wilson写一封信，内容包括：
1.你对该活动的看法；
2.提出你喜欢的栏目并简要说明理由。
注意：
1.词数80左右；
2.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
参考词汇：栏目column
Dear Mr. Wilson,



Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
True Friendship Between Two Strangers
Many organ transplants (器官移植) come from those who are blood relatives or close friends. It's rare for a person to make a living organ donation to a stranger. Not surprising when you consider the surgical risks and other potential problems.
That's what Paul Wagner thought until he read an article about Matchingdonors. org, a website that connects people who need transplants with those willing to be donors (捐赠者). Paul grew up in a poor family and admits to making many mistakes in his youth, including using drugs. “But I always got another chance,” he said, Paul said help came when he needed it most, and because of that, “I wanted to give someone else a chance.”
That someone turned out to be former opera singer Gail Tomas，who was suffering from kidney (肾) failure and badly needed a new kidney. But her hopes for a donor were so slim because of her O＋blood type. Paul, also type O＋, emailed Gail, offering to donate his kidney to her. He said, “It would have been wrong for me not to help.” That attitude, however, was not shared by most surgeons, who refused to participate. The surgeon who agreed only did so after long interviews with Paul to be certain about his motivation. The transplant finally took place on National Donor Day.
Afraid that Gail and her family would feel tied to him merely out of appreciation, Paul made it clear to Gail that he didn't want to get to know her. But Gail insisted on making friends with him and was trying to find an opportunity to break down the barriers to their friendship.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1:
Then Gail's first birthday after the transplant was drawing near and she got an idea.


Paragraph 2:
Their friendship started after the birthday party.









2023年5月份质量检测
高一英语参考答案
一、听力部分
1-5 BACBA 6-10 BBCAC 11-15 AABBA 16-20 BCCAC
二、阅读理解
A篇21-23 BCA B篇24-27 ABCD C篇28-31 ABAB D篇32-35 BACD
七选五36-40 CEDFB
三、完形填空
41-45 BCBBD 46-50 CBCAB 51-55 CDADA
四、语法填空
56. Widely 57. Began 58. And 59. To 60. most popular
61. is believed 62. Dating 63. A 64. to make 65. development
五、写作
第一节：应用文写作
Dear Mr. Wilson,
I am very excited to learn that our English learning club is going to start an English newspaper. It is indeed a wonderful idea and I’m sure it will make a success.
I think it would be best if the English newspaper would have these three columns, School News, Teachers’ Advice and Students’ Voice. From the School News column, we can learn about what is going on in our school. In Teachers’ Advice, our teachers can give us advice on how we can learn English more efficiently. Students’ Voice will offer us a platform to freely express our thoughts and feelings about our lives and studies.
I believe this newspaper will surely benefit us, and I am looking forward to reading it.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节:书面表达
Then Gail's first birthday after the transplant was drawing near and she got an idea. She called Paul and invited him to her birthday party. When he refused, she got mad. “You’ve given me a second life. How can you refuse to come to my birthday party? It would be meaningless without you,” she yelled at Paul. Amazingly, Gail’s words worked! Paul knew she was talking to him from the bottom of her heart. So he accepted the invitation and they finally met at Gail’s birthday party.
Their friendship started after the birthday party. Now they meet every few weeks, sharing each other’s concerns, feelings and experiences. And they spare no effort to offer help whenever one of them is in trouble. “I found someone I didn’t know who was willing to give the precious gift. How could I not be his friend?” said Gail. “I lost a kidney, but I gain a true friend. It’s worth it,” said Paul. No doubt, it is love and great kindness that create the true friendship between the two strangers.
【答案解析】
阅读理解
A
【语篇导读】本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了一个培训家庭参与保护青蛙物种的活动的相关情况，包括培训的内容、培训的形式等。
21. B 细节理解题。根据Trainings部分的monitor our local frog population to protect the species 可知，参与者将学习监控当地青蛙数量的情况。
22. C 细节理解题。根据倒数第二段的After passing a test on identifying frog calls at the end of the training可知，参与者通过一次辨别青蛙叫声的测验后就可结束培训。
23. A 推理判断题。根据最后一段的frog-watching is a great after-dark family activity for all ages可知，这个活动是在夜间进行的。
B
【语篇导读】本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了一位帮助学生克服对数学恐惧的老师的事迹。
24. A 细节理解题。根据第一段可知，在学校时，Baker学习数学反应慢。故选A。
25. B 细节理解题。根据第三段“She favors hands-on lessons and those with ‘real life’ application. ‘We do math throughout the day,’ she said. ‘Math is everywhere.’”可知，Baker将数学知识应用于学生的日常生活中。故选B。
26. C 词义猜测题。根据第四段画线短语后“She has increased his confidence in math. ‘I didn’t think I was bad, but I didn’t think I was great.’”可知，Baker提高了Henry VanBibber对于数学的信心，激励着他去参加数学竞赛，说明Baker对数学的爱产生了效果。故选C。
27. D 细节理解题。根据第五段和第六段可知，Baker在和一个残疾女孩相处后改变了自己的态度，促使她成为了一名数学老师。故选D。
C
【语篇导读】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了一项研究发现，获得诺贝尔奖的人们往往是具有多种兴趣，在不同的领域具备广博知识的博学者，而不是专业者的情况。
28. A 推理判断题。作者在第二段中提到了2022年获得诺贝尔化学奖的Morten Meldal和Carolyn Bertozzi及他们各自在化学之外的兴趣和知识等，是为了强调他们的广博的知识范畴。
29. B 推理判断题。根据第三段的“as ‘polymaths’, who have many different interests in both their work and personal lives. Sometimes they are called ‘Renaissance’ men or women.”可知，这里的Renaissance men or women指的是那些懂得不同领域知识的人们。
30. A 细节理解题。根据文章中列举的获得诺贝尔奖的科学家们的例子以及第六段可知，这些获奖的人们往往倾向于具备不同的兴趣和爱好。
31. B 推理判断题。根据最后一段的“He talked about drawing and painting as a way to solve problems that came up in his writing. ‘When I’m having difficulty with a play, I stop writing so I can draw out the action in pictures,’ he said.”可知，Dario Fo的例子证明了业余爱好对于创作灵感的促进作用。
D
【语篇导读】本文是一篇说明文。许多人喜欢在家中摆放绿植，殊不知有些绿植是有毒的，家里有小孩子的尤其要注意。
32. B 细节理解题。根据文章第三段中的“The cases usually involve children under 3 because they would explore their environment and put everything in their mouths.”可知，三岁以下的儿童更容易成为室内植物的受害者是因为出于好奇，他们常常喜欢把任何东西都放进嘴巴里，故选B。
33. A 细节理解题。根据文章第四段中的“The plant’s sap(树液) can cause nose, skin and eye pain.”可知，该植物的树液会导致鼻子、皮肤和眼睛疼痛，故选A。
34. C 推理判断题。根据文章第五段中的“she urges parents to research whether the plants in their homes are safe to grow around children. She also suggests learning the official botanical names of houseplants so that they're able to provide that information quickly to a poison control expert, if needed.”可知，Damiano敦促家长们研究一下他们家中的植物种在孩子们的身边是否安全，她还建议学习室内植物的官方植物学名称，以便在需要时能迅速向毒物控制专家提供相关信息。由此可以推断，Damiano建议家长应该自学室内植物的相关知识，故选C。
35. D 标题归纳题。通读全文尤其是根据文章第一段中的“But there can be a dark side to houseplants if you have children or if children visit your home. It's important that you know which plants are poisonous to them.”可知，本文主要介绍有些室内植物是有毒的，家里有小孩子的要特别注意，故选D。
七选五
【语篇导读】本文是一篇记叙文。作者一开始不喜欢跑步，对于同学邀请一起跑步，刚开始是一口否定，但经过思考之后决定试一下，没想到爱上了跑步。由此作者得出结论：在说讨厌一件事之前要先试一下。
36. C 选项C中的“reaction”刚好照应上文“Then, last year, my classmate asked me if I’d like to run a 15 kilometer event with him”。故选C。
37. E 根据上文可知，作者决定要试一下；再由下文同学很高兴作者要和他一起跑步可知，这里应该是作者告诉同学愿意和他一起参加这个运动。故选E。
38. D 根据上文“and advised me to look on the Internet for a running program to help me learn how to run”和下文“I chose a 14-week running program which would teach me how to run for 30 minutes non-stop.”可知，网上有各种各样的跑步项目。故选D。
39. F 根据上文“I could see improvements in my running each wee”和下文“My younger self wouldn’t have believed it.”可知，空格内应填写作者的进步和让作者完全出乎料且难以置信的事情。故选F。
40. B 空前讲述作者参加比赛的情况，最后一段讲述作者爱上了跑步。由此可推知，虽然这是一场艰难的比赛，但作者对自己所做的尝试感到很自豪。故选B。
完形填空
【语篇导读】本文讲述一只狗作为公园里的垃圾处理“宣传大使”的故事。
41. B 由上文的“the four-legged superhero”以及下文的“as an educational guide”，可知Sam是为游客树立榜样（role model），故选B。
42. C 由后文的“On Sam’s walks”，可知Sam是在公园散步（walks），故选C。
43. B 由“wearing a green cape in comic to work as an educational guide它在宣传册漫画中身穿绿色的斗篷”，可知Sam的形象被印在了宣传册里，已经小有名气(famous)，故选B。
44. B 从后文had to stop again and again”“On Sam’s walks we began to find”以及“From there”可知本段介绍的是事情的起因（started），故选B。
45. D 由“plastic bottles, cans and food packages”这些垃圾可知搭配的应该是“捡（pick up）”，故选D。
46. C 由上文多次提到Sam捡垃圾，可知此处是Sam在散步过程中，我们发现了很多垃圾（garbage），故选C。
47. B 由于提到“we began to find a lot of garbage”，所以从那以后，我们需要（need）带走每次来时发现的垃圾，故选B。
48. C 由于“rather than”表转折，因此这里应该选“litter”词义相反的词，即散步是一个清理（clean）的好机会，而不是乱扔垃圾的机会，故选C。
49. A 由上文中“Sam wearing a green cape in a comic to work as an educational guide”可知，公园管理员决定在保护公园活动中使用Sam的形象（image），故选A。
50. B 公园管理员把山姆变成了卡通人物，是为了告诉（telling）游客们带走自己的垃圾或使用回收点，故选B。
51. C 该漫画目的是为了告诉游客们处理垃圾的方式，上文是带走垃圾，与之并列的应该是另一种处理垃圾的方式，即使用回收（recycling）点，故选C。
52. D 由“It reached different schools and has spread very well on social media”可知比预期的更为广泛传播（widespread），故选D。
53. A 由后文的“urging drink vendors(摊主) to switch from plastic to glass cups”可知此处是公园发起的反垃圾活动，故选A。
54. D 由“into separate bins”可知是进行垃圾分类（sorting），故选D。
55. A 由于“Sam and Gonzalo”是榜样，因此他们激励（inspired）我们加快教育进程，构建垃圾分类体系，故选A。
语法填空
【语篇导读】本文为说明文。文章介绍了我国悠久的鼓文化。
56. widely 考查副词。该词修饰动词used，应使用副词形式，故答案为widely。
57. began 考查动词时态。该句的时间状语为周朝，为过去的时间，则谓语动词应使用一般过去时，故答案为began。
58. and 考查连词。根据句意，可知该词前后两句句意为：鼓的文化意义是广泛而深刻的，响亮而巨大的鼓声紧密陪伴着人类，两句之间为并列关系，故答案为and。
59. to 考查介词。该句中出现介词短语“from ... to...”表示“从……到……”，故答案为to。
60. most popular 考查形容词最高级。该空修饰名词“乐器”，应为形容词，且该空前为定冠词the，应使用形容词的最高级形式，故答案为most popular。
61. is believed 考查被动语态。根据句意可知，最早的鼓应该是远祖使用的，这是人们所坚信的，该句使用作形式主语，用被动形式表示主动含义，故答案为is believed.
62. dating 考查非谓语动词。该句为复合句，在其宾语从句中，date引导伴随状语，而date没有被动形式，应使用主动形式，故答案为dating。
63. a 考查冠词。短语“for a long time”为固定搭配，表示“很长一段时间”，故答案为a。
64. to make 考查非谓语动词。根据句意，可知制作鼓是人们使用木头和其他材料的目的，而动词不定式表示目的，符合逻辑，故答案为to make。
65. development 考查词性转换。该词和stability并列，应为名词，故答案为development。
听力原文
Text 1
W: It seems to be clearing up. It’s such a nice change.
M: Let’s just hope it doesn’t get cold again.
Text 2
M: I feel terrible, but I’ve just broken your cup.
W: It’s nothing to get upset about.
M: I don’t know what to say. I’d like to replace it.
Text 3
W: Hello, Steven. Can you do me a favor?
M: Sure. What is it?
W: I have an urgent appointment to keep. Could you drive me to the subway station?
M: With pleasure. Get in.
Text 4
M: What do you plan to do this summer?
W: Well, I don't know what I’m going to do with my free time yet.
M: Are you planning to take any summer classes?
W: No. I think I'll just relax. I really need a break. A long break.
Text 5
W: I’d like to make an appointment with Professor Smith. Would 9:00 tomorrow be all right?
M: I’m afraid not. She doesn’t have any openings in the morning.
W: Could I possibly make it early in the afternoon?
M: No. That’s not good either. But give me your number and I’ll call you if somebody cancels.
Text 6
W: Steven, have you got better now?
M: Yeah, I no longer feel the pain in my feet now. And I really miss home.
W: I guess you miss your wife and children very much.
M: Yeah, you are right. But the doctor said I have to stay for another day for observation.
Text 7
M: Sorry, I overslept. My clock didn’t go off this morning.
W: Again?
M: That’s right, even though I did set the alarm last night.
W: Your clock never works. Perhaps you should buy a new one.
M: Well, if it breaks down again tomorrow, I’ll definitely buy a new one.
W: Maybe by then it will be too late.
M: What do you mean by “too late”?
W: By that time you will be fired.
Text 8
W: I have a complaint.
M: What’s your problem, Madam?
W: I called room service last night to tell them about the broken bathroom light and asked them to come over and fix it. No one has come to fix it till now. Your service attitude annoys me too much.
M: I apologize to you on behalf of our hotel. What time did you call room service last night?
W: Before eight o’clock. It’s not late right?
M: This is our error. Please tell me more details. Please let me know your room number and your name.
W: I’m Joe. My room number is 1203. A woman answered when I called yesterday.
M: Alright, I see. I’ll check with the room service department at once. I promise this won’t happen again. To make up for our mistakes, I decide to let you stay in our hotel for another day for free.
Text 9
W: Mr. Smith, what important festivals do you have in your country except Christmas?
M: New Year’s Day, Easter Monday, Early May bank holiday, Spring bank holiday, Summer bank holiday, Boxing Day, etc. These are all public holidays celebrated throughout the UK.
W: Why are there so many days called bank holidays?
M: An 1871 act named these specific public holidays. Most businesses and non-essential services like banks close down.
W: What about Boxing Day?
M: Many people thought it’s not enough to have only Christmas Day celebrations. They wanted a longer holiday, so a festival called Boxing Day was added.
W: So it falls on December 26th, right?
M: You are clever!
W: How do people celebrate the day?
M: Well, some people will get up very early and rush to shops. Some won’t wake up until around 11 o’clock. In England, it’s traditional to hold a football match on Boxing Day. But it’s a pity that I have not got a chance to go back and watch it ever since I came to China two years ago.
Text 10
W: China’s ice-breaking ship Xuelong-2 left Shanghai for the 39th Antarctic trip on Wednesday. The other ice-breaking ship, Xuelong-1, is to join Xuelong-2 on October 31.
A crew of 255 Chinese scientists is divided into two teams aboard the two icebreakers. The crew are expected to return to China in early April 2023.
The scientists will conduct research into major scientific issues such as how key areas of the Antarctic Ocean will respond to climate change. It will carry out investigation and research in fields such as air quality, water environment and ecosystems on the Antarctic continent.
Snow and ice monitoring as well as astronomical observation will also take place as part of the research work along with China’s Antarctic stations including the Great Wall, Zhongshan, Taishan and Kunlun stations. The team will study the land below the ice in the area of Princess Elizabeth Land by using the polar fixed-wing aircraft Xueying 601. The crew will also provide supplies for the Zhongshan and Great Wall stations.