2022-2023学年吉林省吉林市高二上学期期中调研测试英语含答案
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吉林市普通高中2022-2023学年度高二年级上学期期中调研测试
英 语
注意事项:
1. 本次考试由四部分组成,考试时间120分钟,满分150分。
2. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的学校、班级、姓名、考生号填写在答题卡指定位置。
3. 请按题号顺序在答题纸上各题目的答题区域内整洁作答,超出区域答题无效。
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the boy doing now?
A. Preparing for a test. B. Playing a game. C. Watching TV.
2. What’s the weather like this afternoon?
A. Windy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
3. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a station. B. In a shop. C. In a hotel.
4. When can the man meet the woman tomorrow?
A. At 2:00 pm. B. At 3:00 pm. C. At 4:00 pm.
5. Where does pollution come from now?
A. Chemicals. B. Factories. C. Cars.
第二节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. How much will the woman probably pay for a dictionary?
A. $30. B. $20. C. $24.
7. How can the woman become a member?
A. By ordering some dictionaries.
B. By filling in an application form.
C. By calling the store owner later.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. Why did the man go to San Francisco?
A. To buy a sweater. B. To visit his sister. C. To go on a business trip.
9. What do we know about the woman?
A. She went nowhere on her vacation.
B. She didn’t enjoy her vacation.
C. She went to her friend’s college.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. What did Paul eat at the new restaurant last night?
A. Salad. B. Fish. C. Burger.
11. What did Pete think of the steak?
A. It was really oily. B. It was too salty. C. It was very tasty.
12. Who was not satisfied with the salad?
A. Ellie. B. Jenny. C. Tim.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What is the most probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Strangers. C. Colleagues.
14. How does the woman exercise?
A. By dancing. B. By running. C. By bicycling.
15. Why does the man want to be good at soccer this year?
A. To win a soccer match.
B. To join the soccer team.
C. To develop his patience.
16. What will the speakers do next?
A. Get down to studying. B. Go to the gym. C. Teach each other moves.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. What do the traditional Chinese art forms try to show?
A. The important things in life.
B. The valuable lessons about life.
C. Some interesting history stories.
18. What were sky lanterns used for in ancient times?
A. Lighting in the dark night.
B. Seeking help when in trouble.
C. Increasing the festival atmosphere.
19. Why do people put on paper cutting during the Spring Festival?
A. To honor their ancestors.
B. To express good wishes.
C. To show their art talent.
20. Why is Chinese clay(黏土)art famous?
A. Because it has a very long history.
B. Because its characters are lovely.
C. Because clay works look very real.
第二部分:阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 (共 11 小题;每小题2.5分,满分 27.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Now add in countless opportunities for fun, and it’s easy to see why visiting Walt Disney World is the perfect family holiday.
•Expedition Everest
Wander into a Tibetan village at the base of Mount Everest and board a train to the “top of the world”. When your train picks up speed and races into the darkness, without warning, a broken track appears in front of you. Inside the cave, the mythical tale comes true as you see the shadow of a huge, roaring monster! Race to escape before the monster catches you.
Located in Animal Kingdom Theme Park
•Disney and Pixar Short Film Festival
With a pair of 3D glasses, settle in for the 18-minute festival, featuring three short films. Before entering the main theater, be sure to take a look at the exhibits showing the creative process behind these beloved stories and characters.
Located in Disney’s Future World Park
•Peter Pan’s Journey
Follow Peter Pan and some children on a gentle ship journey over London, where Big Ben and Tower Bridge light up the night sky. As you go into Pirate’s Bay, there’s danger ahead! Can Peter Pan defeat Captain Hook and return his young companions safely to London?
Located in Fantasyland at Magic Kingdom Park
21. What would you experience in Animal Kingdom Theme Park?
A. A series of exciting adventures. B. Beautiful scenery of Mount Everest.
C. A very comfortable train trip. D. Traditional culture of a Tibetan village.
22. What is the exhibition in Disney and Pixar Short Film Festival about?
A. The description of the future. B. The history of Disney World.
C. The creation of the films. D. The activities to be held.
23. What happens to Peter Pan and his companions in Pirate’s Bay?
A. Their ship breaks down halfway.
B. They get lost and can’t return.
C. They fight against Captain Hook.
D. Some of them fall into the river.
B
China has seen significant achievements in improving the environment and green development over the past 70 years, especially in fighting against desertification (沙漠化).
Desertification was a serious problem in the 1990s. It caused deadly sandstorms, which arrived like big black walls reaching up into the sky. As President Xi Jinping has said, clear waters and lush (繁茂的) mountains are invaluable assets (资产). Efforts to create “green” areas have played a crucial role in the country’s fight against desertification.
A series of campaigns have been conducted by the central government to improve the environment. For example, in 1998, China launched the Natural Forest Protection Program. Thanks to the program, forest coverage in China increased greatly from 12 percent in the 1980s to nearly 23 percent last year.
Another example of the campaign is the Elion Resources Group, which has been recognized by the UN for the development of a desert eco-industry that has slowed desertification.
In Kubuqi, a desert in the Inner Mongolia autonomous region, Elion has greened 600,000 hectares of land and helped lift more than 102,000 people out of poverty through the development of solar energy and tourism, as well as planting herbs for traditional Chinese medicine.
In addition, the group’s techniques have also been used in many important ecological programs, including Yangtze River Ecological Park and Qilian Mountain National Park.
“We will develop new ways to improve our ability to control the sand with the help of modern technologies, such as drones (无人机), AI, big data and the internet of things,” said Ao Baoping, chief executive officer of Elion Green Land Technology.
24. What is the key measure to fight against desertification?
A. Building walls to block sands. B. Increasing green plants.
C. Turning to the UN for help. D. Keeping mountains natural.
25. What is the effect of the Natural Forest Protection Program?
A. The environment in China has become satisfactory.
B. Similar new campaigns will be carried out by China.
C. No more trees need to be planted in our country.
D. More areas in China are covered with forest.
26. What do we know about Elion Resources Group according to the passage?
A. Its main aim was to lift local people out of poverty.
B. It made Kubuqi become a center for planting herbs.
C. It got inspiration from many ecological programs.
D. It will apply modern technologies to fight desertification.
27. What is a suitable title for the passage?
A. Desert Clothed With Green Through China’s Efforts
B. Environmental Problems Solved by Planting More Trees
C. Great Contributions Made by Elion to The Environment
D. Advanced Science And Technology Applied in China
C
How would human beings react if we found out we’re not alone in the universe? What if we knew an alien civilization was to invade(入侵)Earth? What would we do?
These are the questions asked in The Three-Body Problem. When a secret military project sends signals into space to get in touch with aliens, an alien civilization in face of destruction receives the signals and plans to invade Earth. Meanwhile, on Earth, people begin to separate into different groups: those who welcome aliens and those who want to fight against them.
The novel was written by Chinese author Liu Cixin and published in 2008. Translated into English in 2014 and almost 20 languages since, it was called an absolute “must-read in any language” by Booklist magazine. Liu has won several awards for it and in 2015, he became the first Asian to win the Hugo Award for Best Novel, the highest award in science fiction.
Just from the title, one could imagine that the text might be heavy with physics terms(术语). But as US writer Jason Heller said: “Indeed, this science fiction is full of lengthy passages explaining technical terms. But Liu Cixin supports all of that burning-brain theory with empathetic(感同身受的)characters and thrilling story plots.”
At the very heart of science fiction — and what makes it truly appealing to readers — is the concept of an uncertain future. This allows the author to push the boundaries of readers’ imaginations. Liu fully uses this approach to keep readers anxiously turning the page. While reading, they ask themselves, “What would I do?”
In an interview with The New York Times, Liu said, “China is on the path of rapid modernization and progress, kind of like the US during the golden age of science fiction in the 1930s to the 1960s. The future in the people’s eyes is full of attractions and hope, but also threats and challenges. That makes for very fertile soil.”
28. Why does the author ask the 3 questions in Paragraph 1?
A. To warn us of the crisis Earth is faced with.
B. To introduce the novel The Three-Body Problem.
C. To show the author’s worries about Earth.
D. To remind us to watch out for alien civilizations.
29. What can we know about the novel according to the passage?
A. It is about a fight between aliens and an army on Earth.
B. It was translated into many languages once published.
C. It has gained worldwide recognition and great success.
D. It targets the readers with a good knowledge of physics.
30. What does the underlined part in Paragraph 5 refer to?
A. Explaining very difficult physics terms.
B. Exploring the boundaries of readers’ imaginations.
C. Applying the concept of an uncertain future.
D. Encouraging readers to ask themselves questions.
31. What does Liu mean in the last paragraph?
A. China is now in the golden age of science fiction.
B. The USA authors can’t create science fiction now.
C. Now Chinese people are confused about the future.
D. China’s progress mainly depends on fertile soil.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
We all know that most communication is nonverbal, but did you know that the same body language can mean something totally different based on culture? 32 .
Eye contact
Long eye contact is a sign of confidence and attentiveness (用心) in most Western countries. However, in many African, Asian and Latin American countries, unbroken eye contact can be seen as aggressive. In the Middle East, eye contact is only between people of the same sex. 33 .
34
“Rules” on physical contact are very complex and usually differ. But in general, people from high contact cultures such as Southern Europe tend to stand close when speaking. 35 . Those from medium contact cultures stand quite close when speaking and will occasionally make physical touch, while those from low contact cultures stand farther apart and generally avoid physical touch.
Hand gestures
36 . Using the “OK” sign is not OK in Brazil, Greece, Spain or Turkey. And if you want to tell someone they did a good job in Greece or the Middle East, do not use the thumbs-up sign. And in most of Asia, curling (弯曲) your index finger to signal someone over is fine for dogs, but not for people — especially in the Philippines, where you could be punished under the law.
A. They also tend to touch often
B. Physical contact and distance
C. Complex and different cultures
D. Let’s take a look at some examples
E. Otherwise, it’s completely inappropriate
F. Hand gestures are necessary in communication
G. A usual hand gesture in one country could be inappropriate in another
第三部分:语言运用 (共三节,满分40分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
When we’re young, we don’t always know what interests us. We often learn skills or
37 hobbies to please our parents. As an adult, I wanted to develop one I 38 , so I went to trade school.
I entered a cabinetmaking (家具制造) 39 . I didn’t think I would be good at building furniture. I had great teachers, but making furniture is 40 . There are so many steps and something can go wrong at each one. I was not even a(n) 41 person. My toolbox always looked like a hurricane had gone through it.
I didn’t fully know what I was 42 to at the beginning, but I kept going to class. Doing 43 work and giving it 100 percent of my effort had huge benefits for my mental health. I 44 my fear of embarrassment and asked for help at every opportunity.
I spent that year truly learning. True learning is a humbling (使人谦逊的) experience. I could understand exactly what was wrong with the 45 I made, but I couldn’t 46 my mistakes. And yet, I kept trying. And failing. And 47 again. Until I learned to fail better.
I finished the program — with honors, no less! My 48 were helped by my good wooden work. I also learned how to use tools. Having to 49 push beyond my comfort zone has made me a more 50 person. Maybe most importantly, trade school gave me a more realistic idea of my 51 and limitations. I’m stronger than I thought!
37. A. set out B. take up C. break down D. lead to
38. A. operated B. applied C. enjoyed D. resisted
39. A. program B. activity C. club D. trial
40. A. boring B. incredible C. serious D. hard
41. A. talented B. determined C. adorable D. organized
42. A. used B. committed C. related D. addicted
43. A. secure B. physical C. spiritual D. abstract
44. A. added B. respected C. overcame D. clarified
45. A. plan B. homework C. furniture D. tool
46. A. ignore B. realize C. assess D. fix
47. A. excusing B. failing C. pretending D. judging
48. A. classmates B. approaches C. grades D. challenges
49. A. constantly B. ultimately C. curiously D. obviously
50. A. well-rounded B. kind-hearted C. absent-minded D. cold-blooded
51. A. functions B. surroundings C. dreams D. strengths
第二节 单词填空 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
根据语境及括号中单词的提示,在横线上填写出正确的单词形式,注意每个空只填一个词。
52. Inappropriate gestures can be ____________ (embarrass) when you are interacting with others, especially in some formal situation.
53. The young man managed to hold back his ___________ (angry) and avoided a serious conflict.
54. These days, there is a growing _________ (tend) for people to shop online, and most people more or less have the experience of shopping online.
55. It is _________ (estimate) that more than 50% of the population does not have access to basic health care.
56. After retirement, she devoted most of her time to _____________ (accompany) her family.
57. I have been convinced that the print media are more accurate and more ___________ (rely) than television.
58. “My ___________ (assist), Hahim, will demonstrate the machine in action for you,” said Kalan to the crowd.
59. My suggestion is that any kind of research in this field should be ___________ (prohibit) .
60. Anyone who breaks the law will be ____________ (severe) punished and nobody is exceptional.
61. In the next three or four days, five ____________ (witness) to the terrible accident will be called to testify(作证).
第三节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Farming started early in many places around the world.
The ancient farmers of Sumer in the Middle East used oxen(牛)for ploughing and had special methods to water their fields. These farming methods made it possible for
62 country to have large armies in 63 (defend) of it, which helped spread their culture.
Culture in Egypt developed for similar reasons. The Egyptians developed an
64 (amaze) system of watering fields from the Nile. The ability 65 (feed) many people from very little land around the Nile helped Egypt build a large and strong country. The Egyptians’ water systems were copied and developed by farmers around the world.
Crops like 66 (tomato), beans and several other plants were developed in the West. The native people in North America used a farming method 67 (call) “the three sisters”. These three vegetables — beans, corn and squash(瓜)— are grown together,
68 helps the soil stay healthy. The method is still 69 (wide) used today.
In Central America, the farmers of the Aztec culture cut large steps into the sides of their hills to get more farmland. Aztecs were most famous, however, 70 creating “floating gardens”. Wet areas around lakes couldn’t 71 (use) for farming, so Aztec farmers created islands on the edges of the lakes to grow crops on.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 书面表达(满分15分)
在你读了关于“共和国勋章”获得者袁隆平的事迹后,想在班级的英语角写一篇短文向同学们介绍这位“杂交水稻之父”,内容包括:
1. 袁隆平的贡献;
2. 对你的启发。
注意:1. 写作词数应为80左右;
2. 开头已给出,不计入总词数。
参考词汇:共和国勋章奖:the Medal of the Republic
Known as “Father of hybrid rice”,_________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Lily loved school. However, there was one class Lily worried about more than any other — art. She didn’t know why she just wasn’t good at drawing or painting.
Ms. Clay, the art teacher, stood in the front of the room. “Boys and girls, an art competition will be held in our school,” she announced. Ms. Clay was a great teacher, and Lily liked her a lot. But this announcement made Lily nervous. “Every one of the 210 students in the school is required to create a piece of artwork. Any type of artwork is welcomed. Next Friday you will have to hand in your artworks.” Ms. Clay was quite excited when she spoke while Lily found herself sinking lower in her chair.
Lily had the whole weekend to work on her artwork, but she could not think of anything to do. On Monday, Lily felt discouraged, so after school Lily went to Ms. Clay and asked if there was any possibility that she wouldn’t enter the competition.
“I understand it may worry and upset you, Lily,” Ms. Clay said. “But just remember: art isn’t always painting or drawing. It can be something else. I am sure you can think of something very creative, and I can’t wait to see it.”
When Lily arrived home, she sat at the table and was lost in thought. She thought of Ms. Clay’s words. “Art isn’t always painting or drawing. It can be something else.” Staring at her table, suddenly she was attracted to a pair of scissors(剪刀)and some paper.
注意:1. 续写词数应为150左右。
2. 续写部分分为两段,每段的开头语已为你写好。
At that moment, a good idea struck her.______________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
On Friday, Lily went to school early with her artwork._________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
吉林市普通高中2022-2023学年度高二年级上学期期中调研测试
英 语 参 考 答 案
第一部分 听力(共两节,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
第一节 (共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
1-5 AABCC
第二节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 22.5 分)
6-10 CBBAB 11-15 BCAAB 16-20 AABBC
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,每小题2.5分,满分40分)
第一节 (共11 小题;每小题2.5分,满分 27.5分)
21-23 ACC 24-27 BDDA 28-31 BCCA
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
32-36 DEBAG
第三部分 英语知识运用(共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
37-41 BCADD 42-46 BBCCD 47-51 BCAAD
第二节 单词填空 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
52.embarrassing 53. anger 54. tendency 55. estimated
56. accompanying 57. reliable 58. assistant 59. prohibited
60. severely 61. witnesses
第三节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
62. the 63.defense/defence 64. amazing 65. to feed 66.tomatoes
67. called 68. which 69. widely 70.for 71.be used
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 40 分)
第一节 (满分15分)
参考范文:
Known as “Father of hybrid rice”, Yuan Longping was awarded the Medal of the Republic for his outstanding contributions to agriculture.
Since his young age, Yuan had devoted himself to boosting rice yields, which became his life goal. Through many years’ research, his efforts paid off. His super hybrid rice has a high output and helps feed people at home and abroad.
Inspired by Dr. Yuan, I’m determined to study hard now and can help Chinese people live a better life some day.
第三节 (满分25分)
参考范文:
At that moment, a good idea struck her. Why not make a paper-cutting? She remembered Grandma Li next door could make some lifelike paper-cuttings. Lily jumped with joy at the thought. “I can ask Grandma Li to teach me to make paper-cuttings!” She grabbed the scissors and ran out. For the next few days, the moment Lily went back from school, she went to learn paper-cuttings from Grandma Li. She was very excited when her artwork was finally completed.
On Friday, Lily went to school early with her artwork. The bell rang and Ms. Clay stepped in. “Are your artworks ready?” Lily and her classmates answered loudly “Yes!”. Seeing Lily sitting in her chair confidently, Ms. Clay went to her and gently picked up her paper-cutting—several children playing in the garden. “How creative your artwork is!” Ms. Clay said and gave Lily a thumbs-up. Lily felt very proud and thought, “Maybe I can make an artist in the future.”
参考答案详解
听力原文
(Text 1)
W: John, why don’t you watch NBA games on TV?
M: Oh, I’m studying for a Chinese test tomorrow.
(Text 2)
W: What a nice day it is!
M: Yeah, it is. But the weather report said it would get cloudy and windy again this afternoon.
(Text 3)
W: What can I do for you?
M: May I see some of your best T-shirts?
(Text 4)
M: Professor Miners, could I talk to you about my paper now?
W: Sorry. Come to my office at 3: 00 pm tomorrow. Oh, no, one hour after that please.
(Text 5)
M: Most people didn’t use to go to work by car, so we used to get pollution from factories. Now it comes from cars!
W: Yeah, it’s too bad. I do think everyone should do something about it.
(Text 6)
W: Do you have Oxford English Dictionary?
M: It’s not available now, but we can order it for you.
W: That’s great.
M: How many do you want?
W: Twenty. How much are they?
M: (6) 30 dollars per copy.
W: Are these dictionaries on sale?
M: (6) There’s a 20% discount for members only.
W: How can I get the membership?
M: That’s very easy. (7) Just fill in an application form.
W: OK. Give me one and I’ll fill in it.
M: When we have the dictionary, I’ll call you.
(Text 7)
W: Where did you go on vacation?
M: I went to San Francisco. It’s a really pretty city.
W: Why San Francisco?
M: (8) Oh, my sister works there. I stayed with her. She loves shopping, so we went shopping every day. Look, I got this sweater.
W: Nice! (9) I didn’t go anywhere on my last vacation. I didn’t have enough money to go anywhere.
M: Oh, that’s too bad.
W: Oh, not really. I actually enjoyed my vacation a lot. A friend from college stayed with me for a week. We just talked and watched a lot of old movies.
M: That sounds fun.
(Text 8)
W: Hi, Mick! Did I see you at the restaurant last night?
M: What, that new one on Elm Street? Were you there too?
W: Yes, I was at the table near the corner with my friends.
M: Did you like the food? I thought it was not very good.
W: Well, I had a salad and that was good, (10) but Paul had the fish and he didn’t like it.
M: I had a veggie burger.
W: So did Mina! She said it was awful.
M: Yes, it was really oily.
W: I think they make good Italian dishes.
M: Yes, the spaghetti looked good.
W: Yes, Ellie had that, (11) and Pete had the steak, but he thought it was too salty.
M: My friend Jenny had a burger and salad. She said it was tasty.
W: (12) So did Tim, but he said the salad wasn’t fresh and it had an unpleasant smell.
M: Well, I for one won’t be going there again!
(Text 9)
M: Michelle, why are you dancing? (13) I thought we had to study for our math test!
W: Oh, hi, Drake! (14)I was just doing some exercise. I thought you wouldn’t get here until later. Let me turn the music off.
M: (14)You exercise by dancing? I thought activities like running and bicycling were considered as exercise.
W: Well, those are other good ways to work out, but I like to dance. It’s fun to move around to music, and you can definitely work up a sweat. Do you like to dance?
M: I sometimes dance at parties, but I’m not a very good dancer. For exercise, I prefer playing soccer. (15) I want to get really good this year. I hope to make the soccer team in the fall.
W: Cool! I know you like to go to the park to play soccer on the weekend. Maybe you should try dancing, and I will try playing soccer.
M: Do you know how to play soccer? It is really very easy once you try, but it does need some practice.
W: I can’t play soccer very well, even though I used to play a lot when I was a kid. If you teach me some of your soccer moves, I’ll teach you some dance moves! How does that sound?
M: It’s a deal. If there weren’t the math test tomorrow, we could definitely go to the gym right now.
W: Right. (16) No more fun and games. Let me get my notebook.
(Text 10)
Each different part of China has its own special forms of traditional art. (17)These usually try to show the things that are important in life, such as love, beauty and family. The most common things, from paper to clay to bamboo, are turned into objects of beauty.
(18)Sky lanterns were first used by Zhuge Kongming. He sent them out to ask for help when in trouble. Today, sky lanterns are used at festivals and other celebrations. They are made of bamboo and covered with paper.
Paper cutting has been around for over 1, 500 years. The paper, usually red, is folded before it is cut with scissors. The most common pictures are flowers, animals, and things about Chinese history. (19) During the Spring Festival, they are put on windows, doors and walls as symbols of wishes for good luck and a happy new year.
(20) Chinese clay art is famous because the clay pieces are so small but they look very real. The pieces are usually cute children or lovely characters from a Chinese fairy tale or historical story. These small pieces of clay art show the love that Chinese people have for life and beauty.
第二部分:阅读理解
第一节
A
本文为应用文,主要介绍了迪士尼乐园的三个适合家庭游玩的项目:珠穆朗玛峰探险、阿拉丁魔毯、迪士尼及皮克斯短片电影节。
21. A 细节理解题。根据题干中的“ in Animal Kingdom Theme Park”信息可以定位到 “Expedition Everest”部分,根据文中“picks up speed and races into the darkness”、“without warning, a broken track”、“the shadow of a huge, roaring monster”、“Race to escape”等信息,可以看出游客在该项目中会有一系列刺激的历险经历。故选A项。
22. C 细节理解题。根据Disney and Pixar Short Film Festival的第二句中的 “be sure to take a look at the exhibits showing the creative process behind these beloved stories and characters.”,可知展品是关于这些故事和角色背后的创作过程,故选C项。
23.C 推理判断题。根据Peter Pan’s Journey的最后两句“As you go into Pirate’s Bay, there’s danger ahead! Can Peter Pan defeat Captain Hook and return his young companions safely to London? (进入海盗湾后,前方就会有危险!不知道彼得潘能否打败Hook船长并把小伙伴们安全地带回来)”可以推断出:前方的危险就是Hook船长,双方将会有场打斗。故选C 项。
B
本文为说明文。介绍了中国在过去的几十年间积极采取措施防治沙漠化取得了显著的成就,例如:天然林保护计划、亿利资源集团库布其生态治沙项目取得了令人瞩目的成果。
24. B 细节理解题。根据第二段最后一句“Efforts to create “green” areas have played a crucial role in the country’s fight against desertification.”可知,努力创建“绿色”区域在国家防治沙漠化的斗争中发挥了关键作用。故选B项。
25. D 细节理解题。根据第三段最后一句“Thanks to the program, forest coverage in China increased greatly from 12 percent in the 1980s to nearly 23 percent last year.”可知,得益于该计划,中国的森林覆盖率从20世纪80年代的12%增加到去年的近23%,即:更多的地方被森林覆盖。故选D项。
26. D 细节理解题。根据第四、五段可知,该项目是中国政府改善环境的又一个例子,主要目标在于减缓沙漠化,并不是为了脱贫,脱贫只是在该项目实施的过程中取得的成效之一,但并不是主要目标,故A项错误。根据第五段可知,亿利资源集团在绿化土地的同时,通过多种方式帮助当地人脱贫,其中一个是种植草药,但并不是说把库布齐变成草药种植中心,故B项错误。根据第六段可知,该集团的方法被许多大型生态项目采用,而不是亿利资源集团从其他生态项目中获得启发,故C项错误。根据最后一段的内容可知,该集团将会利用现代技术开发新的方法来提高治沙能力,如借助无人机、人工智能、大数据、物联网等。故选D项。
27. A 主旨大意题。文章主要介绍了中国在治理沙漠化方面成绩斐然。故选A项。
C
本文是一篇书评,主要介绍了刘慈溪的作品《三体》的故事梗概、取得的成就及写作特点等。
28. B推理判断题。作者在开篇提出三个问题是为了引入文章的话题 ——《三体》这本小说。故选B项。
29. C 细节理解题。根据第三段的二、三句可知,该小说被翻译成20多种语言、被称为“任何语言的必读书”,刘慈欣也因此获得了多个奖项,并成为首位获得雨果奖最佳小说奖的亚洲人。故选C项。根据第二段内容可知A错误;根据第三段“Translated into English in 2014 and almost 20 languages since”可知B错误;根据第四段内容可知D错误。
30. C词义猜测题。根据第五段首句 “At the very heart of science fiction – and what makes it truly appealing to readers – is the concept of an uncertain future. (科幻小说的核心—也是它真正吸引读者的地方—是不确定的未来这一概念。)”第二句“This allows the author to push the boundaries of readers’ imaginations.”中的this和第三句 “Liu fully uses this approach to keep readers anxiously turning the page.”中的this approach 都同指这一概念。故选C项。
31. A推理判断题。根据文中“China is on the path of rapid modernization and progress, kind of like the US during the golden age of science fiction in the 1930s to the 1960s.”可知,作者用了类比的方式说明中国现在和三、四十年代的美国一样,处于科幻小说发展的黄金时代。故选A项。
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
本文为说明文。介绍了肢体语言基于不同的文化而产生地域性。文章介绍了三种不同的肢体语言:眼神交流、身体碰触及相距距离、手势在不同文化中的社交规则。
32. D 考查上下文的承接及逻辑关系。该选项承接前一句中的“the same body language can mean something totally different based on culture”,同时又引起下文。故选D项。
33. E 考查与上文的承接及逻辑关系。前一句提到:在中东,只有同性之间才会有眼神
交流。该选项中的otherwise承接上文,构成转折的逻辑关系,该句的意思为“否
则,(异性之间眼神交流)就非常不合适了。”故选E项。
34. B 考查小标题。该段第一句中的“physical contact”、第二句中“high contact cultures”
和“stand close”、最后一句话中“medium contact cultures stand quite close”、
“occasionally make physical contact”、“low contact cultures stand farther apart and
generally avoid physical contact”可以看出,该段主要介绍了关于身体碰触及相距距离
的肢体语言。故选B项。
35. A 考查上下文的承接与逻辑关系。上句中提到了“people from high contact cultures”,
下句中提到了“Those from medium contact cultures”和“those from low contact
cultures ”,因此本段介绍了三种不同的关于身体碰触方面的文化。关于相距距离三种
文化的表现分别为“stand close”、“stand quite close”、“stand farther apart”。横
线后提到了其中的两种文化在交流时“occasionally make physical touch”和“generally
avoid physical touch”。因此,横线处也会提到身体碰触的问题。故选A项。A项中的
also也与上一句构成承接关系。
36. G 考查主题句及与下文的逻辑关系。本段提到的手势有:“OK”、“the thumbs-up
sign”、“curling (弯曲) your index finger to signal someone over”,这几种常见的手势
在一些国家并不是通常所表示的含义,甚至有时候会“be punished under the law”。因
此,答案为G选项,句意为“在一个国家常见的手势在另一个国家可能是不适合的”。
第三部分:语言运用 第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
本文为叙议结合的文章。作者在长大后想培养一个爱好,于是进入到职业学校学习制
作家具。作者从最初对制作家具一无所知到课程结束时成绩优异,中间经历了很多努力
与失败。在学会技能并成为更全面的人的同时,作者也更清楚地认识了自己。
37. B 考查动词短语的含义。take up在本句中的含义为“从事”,该句表示的意思为:我们经常学习某些技能或从事某些爱好来取悦父母。
38. C 句意为:长大后,我想培养一个自己喜欢的爱好,言外之意,不再为了取悦父母而去学习技能或培养爱好,与上句中的please呼应。
39. A 根据最后一段第一句中的“I finished the program”可知,作者参加了一个家具学习的课程。program在此处的含义为“(美语)课程”。
40. D 由下句“There are so many steps and something can go wrong at each one.”可知,尽管老师教的很好,但作者觉得做家具很难。
41. D 由下句“My toolbox always looked like a hurricane had gone through it. 我的工具箱总是看起来像一场飓风刚刚刮过”可知,作者不是一个有条理的、井然有序的人。organized有条理的。
42. B 句意为:一开始我并不完全清楚自己所投入的事情是什么,但我还是继续去上课。committed:致力于。
43. B 句意为:干体力活并且投入百分百的努力,有益于我的心理健康。此处的physical与本句中的mental相对应。
44. C 句意为:我克服了对尴尬的恐惧,一有机会就寻求帮助。说明作者并不是一个很外向的人,但该课程让他发生了改变。overcome:克服、战胜。
45. C 句意为:我能清楚地知道我做的家具出了什么问题,但我无法修正我的错误。作者学习的课程是家具制造,因此,他制造的东西是家具。
46. D 见上题。fix:校正、修理。
47. B 句意为:然而,我不断地尝试,不断地失败,一次又一次地失败,直到我在失败中变得更好。again是对正确答案的提示。本句作者借用了爱尔兰作家塞缪尔·贝克特的一句广为流传的名言:Try again. Fail again. Fail better. 根据上文内容作者对这门课程投入了百分百的努力,使自己身心受益,不仅克服了对尴尬的恐惧,同时也变得谦逊了,并在尝试与失败的过程中不断地进步。
48. C 句意为:我的成绩得益于我出色的木制作品。作者完成了课程并得到了较好的成绩。grade:成绩。
49. A 句意为:不断突破自己的舒适区让我成为了一个更全面的人。这句话是作者对此次经历的总结,作者从对做家具一无所知到以优异的成绩完成课程,经历了无数次的尝试与失败,整个过程也是一次次地突破自己的舒适区的过程。故选A项。
50. A 见上题。well-rounded:全面的。
51. D 句意为:也许最重要的是,职业学校让我对自己的长处和局限有了更实际的认识。strengths与limitations相对,同时下句中的stronger也是对该答案的提示。
第三节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
本文为说明文,介绍了世界上较早开始农业的一些文明的农耕方法,包括:苏尔美、埃及、北美洲和中美洲。
62. the 考查冠词。the country特指Sumer in the Middle East,古代中东地区的苏尔美。
63.defense/defence 考查名词。have large armies in defense/defence of it 拥有庞大的防卫国家安全的军队。
64. amazing 考查非谓语动词。amazing:令人惊叹的、了不起的,该词已形容词化。
65. to feed 考查非谓语动词。 动词不定式作后置定语修饰ability。
66. tomatoes 考查名词复数。
67. called 考查非谓语动词作定语。 a farming method called“the three sisters”一种叫做“三姐妹”的耕作方法。
68. which 考查非限制性定语从句的关系代词。which指代前面的句子。
69. widely 考查词形变化。widely修饰动词used。
70.for 考查介词。be famous for:因……而著名。
71.be used 考查谓语动词。此处为情态动词的被动语态。
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