湖南省怀化市鹤城区2021-2022学年七年级第二学期期末教学质量检测英语试题（含答案）

这是一份湖南省怀化市鹤城区2021-2022学年七年级第二学期期末教学质量检测英语试题（含答案），共10页。试卷主要包含了 What can Bb d?， What des Ms等内容，欢迎下载使用。
怀化市鹤城区2022年上学期期末教学质量检测卷

温 馨 提 示

1. 本试卷分试题卷和答题卡两部分。试题卷中听力材料将以中速朗读两遍。
2. 全部答案必须按要求写在答题卡上。
3. 选择题符合题意的答案只有1个。不选、多选、错选的，均不给分。
4. 本试卷共76小题，满分120分；全部试卷共8页，其中试题卷6页，答题卡2页。100分钟完卷。完卷后，试题卷和答题卡分别交回。
七年级英语




I．听力技能（两个部分，共20小题，满分20分）
第一节 对话理解。听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分)
1. What can Bob do?
A. B. C.
2. How can the man get to the hotel?
A. B. C.
3. When does Lisa always play the violin？
A. At 4：30． B. At 4：45． C. At 5：00．
4. Where is the girl’s father?
A. At school. B. In the supermarket. C. At home.
5. What does Ms. Smith ask Bill to do?
A. Keep quiet． B. Talk． C. Eat food．
第二节 听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟，听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。(共15小题，每小题1分, 满分15分）
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. What are Tina's favorite animals？
A. Koalas． B. Elephants． C. Giraffes．
7. What does Bob think of elephants？
A. Cute． B. Smart． C. Friendly．
听第7段材料, 回答第8至9题。
8. What is Carol doing？
A. Cleaning her room． B. Listening to music． C. Doing her homework．
9. What is difficult for Carol？
A. Singing． B. Speaking English． C. Playing the piano．
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Where did Laura go this vacation?
A. London. B. Boston. C. Beijing.
11. Who did Laura visit this vacation?
A. Her uncle. B. Her parents. C. Her grandma.
12. What did Laura do during her vacation?
A. Visited her friends. B. Climbed the mountains. C. Went shopping.
听第9段材料, 回答第13至16题。
13. What size bowl of noodles would the boy's father like?
A. A large one.　　　 B. A medium one.　　　　 C. A small one.
14. What kind of noodles would the boy's mother like?
A. Carrot and mutton noodles. B. Tomato and beef noodles. C. Mutton and potato noodles.
15. What does the boy want to have?
A. Some dumplings. B. Some hamburgers. C. Rice and fish.
16. How much does the boy have to pay?
A. ￥29. B. ￥39. C. ￥49.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. How far is it from Amy's home to the library？
A. 12 kilometers. B. 20 kilometers. C. 30 kilometers.
18. What does Amy like doing on the bus?
A. Having breakfast. B. Reading books. C. Talking with Lisa.
19. How long does it take her to go to the library by bus?
A. Forty minutes. B. Fifty minutes. C. One hour.
20. How does Amy go to the library today?
A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By bike.
II. 知识运用 ( 两个部分，共20小题，满分20分)
第一节 单项填空 从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的答案填空。（共10小题，每小题1分,满分10分）
21. —Let’s play ______ chess now.
—That’s boring. How about playing ____ piano.
A. /; / B. the; / C. /; the
22. —When is Jay’s concert?
—It’s ______three o’clock _______ the afternoon of May 4th.
A. at; on B. at; in C. in; in
23. —How is the weather in your city now?
—It’s snowing and it’s very______.
A. hot B. cold C. warm
24. —Hey, Tom. ______ listen to music in the hallways.
— __________,Mr. Smith.
A. Don’t; Sorry B. Can’t; Thank you C. No; Sorry
25. —May I use your computer?
—Sorry. I ________ on it.
A. working B. am working C. works
26. — ______are you still here, Tony？It’s half past seven!
—It’s Saturday today. We don’t have to go to school, mum.
A. How B. When C. Why
27. There ______ a dictionary and some books on her desk.
A. is B. are C. have
28. —What does his sister look like?
—___________.
A. She is a little shy B. She likes reading C. She is of medium height
29. Ten years ago, Wang Ming ______in Tongdao, but now he _______in Zhijiang.
A. lived; lived B. lived; lives C. lived; living
30. —___________
—Yes. I’d like a large bowl of beef noodles.
A. May I take your order? B. What would you like? C .Would you like a small bowl?
第二节 完形填空 通读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。（共10小题，每小题1分, 满分10分）
Murray Fang is 9 years old. He and his family live in the United States. Both of their parents 31 at a university(大学). They are teachers. Murray and his 7-year-old sister go to the same 32 school. He can speak Chinese well. His family likes to 33 him by his Chinese name Maodou. His parents ask him and his sister to speak 34 at home.“I can’t read the Chinese characters(汉字)well. 35 I can read books with pinyin.”
Murray’s 36 find different ways to teach him about China. In 2022, they took him and his sister back to China 37 Spring Festival.“I remember setting off the firecrackers（放鞭炮）. My dad told me he did 38 when he was a kid. We also enjoy the lanterns(灯笼). My sister liked 39 a bike round the wall best. Those were so 40 !”
31. A. study B. visit C. work
32. A. primary B. middle C. high
33. A. call B. ask C. teach
34. A. English B. Chinese C. Japanese
35. A. So B. Because C. But
36. A. friends B. parents C. teachers
37. A. with B. to C. for
38. A. it B. them C. these
39. A. watching B. riding C. drawing
40. A. boring B. exciting C. terrible
III.阅读技能 （两个部分，共20小题，满分40分）
第一节 阅读选择 阅读短文或图表，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项回答问题或完成句子。（共15小题，每小题2分,满分30分）
A
Dear students ,
This Sunday we want to help the old people at Sun Old People’s Home.
Students Wanted for Sun Old People ’ s Home
Place : Sun Old People’ s Home
Time : 9:00 a . m.-1:00 p . m. on Sunday
The number of students in every group : Twelve
Work to do :
Group 1: Clean their rooms and wash their clothes.
Group 2: Play Chinese chess with the old people.
Group 3: Sing and dance to make the old people happy.
Group 4: Tell them stories and take a walk with them.
If you’ re free , please join us and click(点击) here.
41. Which group can you join, if you are good at doing chores（家务）?
A. Group 1. B. Group 3. C. Group 4.
42. They need _____ students to work at Sun Old People’s Home in total（总共）.
A. 12 B. 24 C. 48
43. Where can you find this passage?
A. In a book. B. In a magazine. C. On the Internet.
B
If someone says to you “give me five ”, do not look for five yuan for him in your wallet(钱包) ! The person is not asking for your money, but your hand .In America, “give me five” or “give me the high five” is very popular. You can often see it in films and on TV. It means clapping（拍击） of each other’s right hands together .
People sometimes do it when they celebrate(庆祝) something good . For example, the football players will give the high fives to everyone around to celebrate when their team wins a game.
“give me five” may come from the old Roman gesture of raising the right arm for the emperor （皇帝）. It shows that the person does not keep any sharp（锋利的）things in his hand. It is not dangerous for the emperor to meet this person.
Well, what are you waiting for ? Try “give me five” with your friends .
44. When will you give your friends high fives?
A . Make people happy B. Celebrate a good thing. C. Ask for money
45. Which country does “ give me five ” come from according to the passage ?
A . England. B. Rome. C. America.
46. What does the underlined word “ gesture ” means "?
A．手势 B．坐姿 C. 站姿
47. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. People give high fives to say “Hello” to others now.
B. People give high fives to show they are not dangerous people in old days.
C. You can only see people give high fives in films and on TV.
C
What do you think of “double reduction”(双减)? Our readers from Teens have different ideas. Here are four of them.
★Shen Yuzhe, 13, Beijing
The “double reduction” really helps me. Our homework is less（更少）than before . I can finish it at school. I’m also happy to find that there are fewer(更少) exams.
★Zhang Hangming, 13, Tianjin
The best thing about the “double reduction” is that we have lots of time to do after-school activities like dancing, reading, volleyball and cooking. I can also learn a lot of things.
★Yu Zhiyue, 14, Jiangsu
With the “double reduction”, I have really got less homework to do. But I need to take an online class on the computer at home after I come back from school. I often feel tired. But I can still have happy weekends.
★Cui Ruqi, 12, Liaoning
I get lots of time to read books and play sports. The art subjects are very important now. So I need to learn music well. And I have enough time to relax.
48. Shen Yuzhe has____________________ with the “double reduction”.
A. less homework and fewer exams now
B. more homework and exams now
C. no homework and exams now
49. Zhang Hangming does a lot of after-school activities except(除了)_________________.
A. Reading his favorite books
B. Helping his mother make dinner
C. Playing basketball with his friends
50. Why does Cui Ruqi need to learn music well?
A. Because she is good at art.
B. Because art is her favorite subject.
C. Because art is very important now.
51. What’s the passage about?
A. Changes (变化) in students’ life after the “double reduction”.
B. Students’ different kinds of after-school activities.
C. Different students have different homework.
D
Do you know the two lovely mascots （吉祥物）? You may know the five “Fuwa” dolls from the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games. On September 17 of this year, the two lovely mascots first showed on TV. Now, let’s see who they are.
Look at the panda! It looks like an astronaut （宇航员）. It wears an ice shell （冰売） and looks fat , so we call it “Bing Dwen Dwen”. White is the color of ice and snow. “Bing Dwen Dwen”likes ice sports very much and is good at them. That’s why it is the mascot of 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games.
Do you think the red mascot looks like a lantern? The lantern’s name is “Shuey Rhon Rhon”. When the Chinese New Year comes, people always make or buy red lanterns. Red is the color of hope and good luck. “Shuey Rhon Rhon” can give players hope and help them do well in the 2022 Beijing Winter Paralympic Games（残奥会）. Many people in different countries like the two mascots very much, and they show their love for them on the Internet.
52.Which one is the mascot of 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games ?
A . “Fuwa”. B. “Bing Dwen Dwen”. C. “ Shuey Rhon Rhon”.
53.“ Shuey Rhon Rhon” look like a red lantern because_______________ .
A. red lanterns are beautiful B. Chinese people like the red color a lot
C. it is the symbol of good luck and hope
54. From the passage, what can we learn?
A. “Bing Dwen Dwen” can skate very well.
B. “Shuey Rhon Rhon” likes ice sports and is good at them.
C. Everybody likes the two mascots and shows his love on the Internet.
55. What will the writer talk about next?
A. How people show their love on the Internet. B. Why people love the two mascots.
C. What the two mascots look like.
第二节 阅读表达 阅读下面的材料，然后根据材料内容回答所提的问题（共5小题，每小题2分,满分10分）
E
Elsa comes from Canada. She usually wakes up between 6 a.m. and 7 a.m. Then she gets dressed and has breakfast.
School days start at 8:30 a.m. and finish at 3:30 p.m. Children in Canada must wear school uniforms to school. So does Elsa. Elsa usually goes to school at 7:50 a.m. It only takes her about 15 minutes to walk to school, so she is never late for school. In Canada, every student must learn French and English. But Elsa doesn’t like French, because it is not easy for her to learn well.
After school, Elsa goes to the Art Club on Wednesday and Friday. On Thursday, she goes to the park. She practices soccer with other members of the soccer team there. In summer, Elsa enjoys swimming and riding a bike. In winter, she likes to go skating. It’s her favorite sport.
56. When does Elsa usually wake up?
57. Does Elsa have to wear school uniforms to school?
58. How does Elsa get to school?
59. What language(语言)does Elsa must learn at school?
60. What do you think of Elsa’s life in Canada?
IV. 写作技能 （五个部分，满分40分）
第一节 综合填空。阅读下面材料, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式（共5个小题，每小题1分, 满分5分）
We can’t live without food. We Chinese are good at 61 (make) food and eating food. In China, people eat rice and 62 (noodle) very often. Do you know what food do people in other countries like? Every country 63 (have) its favorite food. 64 (Japan) eat a lot of fish. In the US, people like hamburgers a lot. In Canada , people eat bread 65 butter（黄油）on it.
第二节 补全对话 根据下面的对话情境，在每个空白处填入一个1个适当句子，使对话意思连贯、完整。（共4个小题，每小题2分, 满分8分）
A: Hello, Linda. 66 ?
B: It was great. I went to Huaihua last week.
A: Wow! 67 ?
B: I visited many places of interest and enjoyed the fresh air in Zhongpo Mountain.
A: How was the food?
B: 68 . I really love it.
A: Was the weather good？
B: 69 . It was sunny and warm.
A: You really had a good time.
第三节 英汉互译 阅读下面的短文，将划线部分的句子译成汉语或英语。（共5个小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
Hello, I’m your friend, koala! I am from Australia. I like sleeping. 70.你每天睡多久? Maybe10 hours? I need more! 71.许多人认为我很懒. But it's not true! 72. I sleep so much because of my food.
I only eat leaves, because I don't like eating meat. 73.But there is one big problem: Leaves are not delicious.74.I get very little energy(能量) from them. So I sleep about 18 hours a day.
第四节 规范书写 照抄下列短文，注意书写规范，字迹漂亮，卷面整洁。（满分2分）
Never give up, go ahead! Yes to life, no to drugs!
第五节 情景作文（满分15分）
俗话说的好“没有规矩，不成方圆。”日常生活中我们有家规，有班规。请你从健康、学习、生活等方面用英语写一篇60词左右的班规小短文，内容需包括以下要点：
1. What are the rules？
2. Why do you make these rules？
Rules are everywhere.


2022年上期七年级英语期末教学质量检测卷
听力材料及参考答案
听力材料
第一节
1.W:Tom can play chess and Linda can dance.What about you, Bob?
M:I can play the piano.
2. M: Excuse me .Is there a hotel around here?
W:Yes,there is.Just go along the street.
3. M：When do you always play the violin，Lisa？
W：At a quarter to five in the afternoon．
4.W:Dad,are you in the supermarket or at school?
M:I’m watching TV at home.
5.W：Don’t talk in the class，Bill？You must be quiet．
M：Sorry，Miss Smith．
第二节
听第六段对话，回答第6、7小题。
W：Bob,let’s play volleyball this afternoon．
M：No，Tina．I think it’s boring．How about going to the zoo？
W：Great．I want to see giraffes．They are my favorite animals．
M：Oh，I like elephants best．
W：Why do you like elephants best？
M：Because they’re smart．
听第七段对话，回答第8、9小题。
M：Carol，what are you doing now？
W：I’m cleaning my room．
M：Do you want to play volleyball with Jeff and me after you finish it．He is an English speaking student．
W：Sounds great．
M：OK．Please call me after you finish it．
W：Can you speak English？
M：Yes，I can．It’s easy for me．
W：Wow．But it’s difficult for me．
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
M：Hi, Laura. Where did you go this vacation?
W：Hi, Steve. I went to Boston to visit my grandma.
M：What did you do there?
W：I visited some interesting places.
M：What else did you do there?
W：I climbed the mountains, and sometimes I went swimming.
M：Wow, you had fun.
W: Yeah. It was a great vacation.
听第9段材料, 回答第13至16题。
W: Good afternoon. What can I do for you?
M: We'd like two bowls of noodles.
W: What kind of noodles would you like?
M: My father wants a large bowl of carrot and mutton noodles. My mother would like a medium one.
W: What would she like in it?
M: She'd like some tomatoes and beef in it.
W: What about you?
M:A small bowl of rice and some fish,please. How much are they ?
W: Er,thirty-nine yuan.
M: Here you are .
W: Thank you.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
Amy works in a library．The library is far from her home．It is about 20 kilometers from her 
home.She usually goes there by bus with her friend Lisa．She likes taking the bus,because she can talk with Lisa on the bus．But sometimes she goes there by bike．It takes her forty minutes to get there by bus or one hour by bike．Today it is sunny．She wants to ride her bike to the library．Now she is 
having breakfast．She leaves home at ten to seven ．Her work finishes at five twenty in the afternoon．
参考答案
I．听力技能
1-5 ACBCA 6-10CBABB
11-15CBABC 16-20 BBCAC
II. 知识运用
第一节 单项填空（共10小题，每小题1分,满分10分）
21-25CABAB 26-30CACBA
第二节 完形填空 （共10小题，每小题1分, 满分10分）
31-35 CAABC 36-40 BCABB
III.阅读技能
第一节 阅读选择（共15小题，每小题2分,满分30分）
41-45 ACCBB 46-50 ABACC 51-55 ABCAA
第二节阅读表达（共5小题，每小题2分,满分10分）
56. She wakes up between 6a.m. to 7a.m.
57. Yes ,she does.
58.She walks to school./She gets to school on foot.
59. She must learn French and English.
60. It’s wonderful/colorful……(答案表述合理都可以)
IV. 写作技能
第一节 综合填空。（共5个小题，每小题1分, 满分5分）
61.making 62.noodles 63. has 64.Japanese 65.with
第二节 补全对话 （共4个小题，每小题2分, 满分8分）
66.How was your trip last week?
67.What did you do?
68.It was very delicious.
69.Yes,it was.
第三节 英汉互译 （共5个小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
70.How long do you sleep every day?
71.Many people think I'm lazy. 
72.我每天睡那么多是因为我的食物。
73.但是有一个大问题。
74.我从它们那获得很少的能量。
作文范文：
School Rules
Rules are everywhere. There are many rules in my school. We must wear school uniforms to school . We must go to school on time. In class, We can’t talk or eat , so we have to be quiet and listen to the teachers carefully. After class, we can’t run in the hallway or fight with classmates, we should get on well with others . Also, we have to take exercise every day to keep healthy.
School rules are good for our study .We must follow the rules.
二、评分标准
1、第1-40小题，每小题1分；
41-60每小题2分；
61-65每小题1分；
66-74每小题2分
规范书写2分
情景作文15分。
2、56-60、66--74时态错误、大小写错误、单复数错误、冠词用错和只有一个字母的拼写错误且不影响识辨的均不扣分，关键词错误每处扣0.5分；61-65大小写错误不扣分，其它错误均不给分；56-60, 66-74 与所给答案相符的计满分，只要达意均应酌情给分。
4.规范书写
给 分 档 次
评 分 标 准
A档（2分）
书写完整、规范，整洁，字迹清晰漂亮。
B档 （1-2分）
书写完整，规范，整洁无圈涂。
C档 （0.5-1）
书写不完整，欠规范、整洁、清晰。
D档（0）
书写内容与要求不相符和不书写者。
5、情景作文
评阅此题时应坚持表意优先和宁松勿紧的原则。请参照以下标准按档记分：

给 分 档 次
评 分 标 准
A档（15-13分）
能够围绕话题进行表述，完成所有内容要点，语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。
B档（12-10分）
能够围绕话题进行表述，完成所有内容要点，语言有少量错误，表达基本连贯、清楚。
C档（7-9分）
能够基本围绕话题进行表述，要点欠完整，语言表达有些错误，行文很不连贯，但不影响句意理解。
D档（6-4分）
尚能围绕话题进行表述，要点欠完整，语言错误较多，影响意思表达。
E档（3-0分）
只能写出与话题相关的一些单词或一两个句子，只有个别句子可懂。
说明： 1、如书写较差，以致影响交际的，扣2分。
2、单词拼写错误每个扣0.25分，同一错误不重复扣分。不影响表意的拼写错误可不扣分。