浙江省杭州市淳安县等七县市2020-2021学年八年级下学期期末学业水平测试英语试题（word版 含答案）

2020学年第二学期期末学业水平测试

八年级英语

考生须知：

1. 本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。

2. 答题前，请在答题纸上写学校和姓名等信息。

3. 必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。1至50小题在答题纸上涂黑作答，答题方式详见答题纸上的说明。

4. 做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。

5. 考试结束后，试卷和答题纸一并上交。

第I卷

第一部分  听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What does the boy need to do first?

A. Clean the house. B. Visit his grandpa. C. Do his homework.

2. What was the boy doing yesterday at the time of the rainstorm?

A. Going home. B. Reading. C. Playing basketball.

3. Where are the two speakers probably?

A. In a flower shop. B. At a concert. C. In a restaurant.

4. Who is the woman?

A. The boy’s teacher.  B. The boy’s sister. C. The boy’s mother.

5. How did the woman speaker know about the fire?

A. By reading the newspaper. B. By seeing it herself. C. By watching TV.

第二节（共10小题，每小题2分，满分20分）

听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听下面一段对话，回答第6至第8三个小题。

6. What is the girl going to do this evening?

A. Watch a movie. B. Watch a TV show. C. Watch a game.

7. How long has Jim watched the show?

A. For seven years. B. For nine years. C. For twelve years.

8. What’s the main purpose (目的) of the show?

A. To encourage people to learn science.

B. To encourage people to make money.

C. To encourage people to invent something.

听下面一段对话，回答第9至第11三个小题。

9. How many national parks outside the U.S. has James been to?

A. One. B. Two. C. Three.

10. In which national park can people see elephants?

A. Yellowstone National Park.

B. Kruger National Park.

C. Lake District National Park.

11. Where is the Lake District National Park?

A. In England. B. In the U.S. C. In South Africa.

听下面一段独白，回答第12至第15四个小题。

12. Who can become a member of the group?

A. Kids aged 8 to 12. B. Adults aged 20 to 70. C. People aged 12 to 60.

13. When do kids need help in the hospital?

A. While their parents are working.

B. While their parents are seeing a doctor.

C. While their parents are visiting sick friends.

14. What kind of volunteer work does Susan help to do?

A. Take care of the animals. B. Care for the old people. C. Look after the kids.

15. How can you join the group if you want to be a volunteer?

A. Call them or visit them.

B. Call them or visit their website (网站).

C. Visit their website or write to them.

第二部分  阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中选出最佳选项。

A

16. The writer writes this text for ______ to read.

A. teachers B. parents C. students  D. policemen

17. Kids can’t learn ______ by taking the class.

A. how to give themselves first aid

B. how to have a good time at home alone

C. how to make a decision when in danger

D. how to find something interesting on the Internet

18. Which of the following is TRUE?

A. The class lasts for an hour.  B. Only American students can take the class.

C. Kids need to take snacks to the class. D. Kids can take the class online now.

B

The Palace Museum, one of the greatest ancient wonders of China, is using modern technology.

Back in December 2015, a digital gallery (数字馆) at Duanmen opened in the Palace Museum. A film on the screen helps visitors learn about the museum in a short time. Then visitors can walk into a palace, seeing and touching many treasures through VR. They can even talk with ancient people with the help of AI.

In fact, digitalization of the museum started 20 years ago. In 2001, the museum first opened websites in Chinese and English. Visitors from all over the world can see the introduction and new notices online. In February 2015, the museum offered an app (应用软件) to show its collection. The app introduces one treasure every day. In 2018, the museum developed a program on WeChat. The program advises visitors on the best visiting way through the museum.

During the outbreak of the COVID-19 virus, the Palace Museum also turned to the Internet. As a result, on April 5 and 6, it provided three live-streamed (直播的) tours. The three tours took different ways around the Palace Museum. Two researchers from the museum became tour guides, telling people stories about the place.

What’s more, the Palace Museum has worked with Huawei to build a smart network of 5G throughout the museum. Huawei will also use AI to help with the protection of art works.

19. Which of the following can’t tourists do according to Paragraph 2?

A. Walk into a palace.   B. Touch treasures.

C. Make a film.   D. Talk with ancient people.

20. In which order did the digitalization (数字化) of the museum develop?

a. Developed a program on WeChat. b. Offered an app to show its collection.

c. Opened websites in Chinese and English. d. Provided live-streamed tours.

A. b - c - a – d B. b - c - d - a C. c - b - d - a  D. c - b - a - d

21. What do we know about the three tours in Paragraph 4?

A. There were three tour guides.

B. People watched them on the Internet.

C. The museum provided them on January 25.

D. Few people showed interest in them because of COVID-19.

22. What does the passage mainly talk about?

A. The Palace Museum will use the network of 5G soon.

B. People can see more treasures in the Palace Museum.

C. The Palace Museum is a great place.

D. The Palace Museum goes digital.

C

Young people these days have to take part in more and more after-school classes. They are much busier than they have ever been before. How much is too much? Should there be a limit (限定) to the number of after-school classes that a young person takes part in? Personally, I think there should be a limit. I am an overtired and worried parent of three. We have been working to cut out as many unnecessary after-school activities as we can. There are many reasons for my worry.

One of the reasons is that we just don’t have enough time as a family. We often sat around the table and discussed something at the dinner table in the past. We are lucky now if we even get dinner, let alone eat it as a family.

Another reason for the worry is that my kids’ grades are falling. These kids who used to be ‘A’ and ‘B’ students are now trying very hard to keep a ‘C’ in most classes. There just isn’t enough time for homework. School education should be the most important—not the after-school classes.

The final reason I feel worried is that we are all so tired. Everyone is running three different places to take different classes. The kids are so tired that they are even falling asleep in class. Kids need time to rest, play, imagine, and create (创造). After-school classes claim (声称) to create well- round kids, but as a result, they actually take away the happiness and free time of the kids.

23. Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage? (①＝Paragraph 1)

 A  B  C   D

24. According to Paragraph 3, having too many after-school activities makes the writer’s kids ______.

A. have no time to play   B. fall asleep in the class

C. not get good grades   D. have a dinner alone

25. The underlined word “they” in Paragraph 4 means ______.

A. happiness and free time  B. after-school classes

C. well-round kids   D. three different places

26. The purpose of this passage is to ______.

A. explain why more and more kids need after-school classes

B. show it’s necessary to control the number of after-school classes

C. encourage kids to take part in more after-school classes

D. show people’s different opinions about after-school classes

D

In the southern part of the Africa, just north of South Africa, there is a country called Botswana. And in the northwest corner of Botswana is a very unusual area: the Okavango Delta. Delta is usually in the place where a river goes into a large body of water — a lake or sea — and slows down. Over many years, the slowing river drops so much silt (泥沙) at its mouth. As the silt builds up, a fan-shaped area of new land, the delta, appears. An example of such a delta is the great Nile Delta in Egypt.

What makes the Okavango Delta so unusual is that the Okavango River doesn’t go into a larger body of water. After fanning out into many different small waterways and wetlands across the delta, the river simply disappears, either straightly into air or through the leaves (叶子) of the plants growing there. If the Okavango River didn’t end in a delta, this area would simply be a very dry part of the Kalahari Desert. But the river fans out, watering thousands of square kilometers. Much of the Okavango Delta is under good protection and is home to a lot of plant and animal life.

Few people live in the delta, and tourism is in good careful control. Visitors come only by air in small groups and stay in tents or small wooden houses. Some different safari companies have rights to operate (经营) in certain areas in the delta. With the help of these companies the delta goes better and better.

27. Which of the following shows the right location of the two countries?

A.  B.  C.  D.

28. What do we know about a delta according to this passage?

A. Delta usually appears at the mouth of a river.

B. Delta is usually a large square area.

C. Delta is usually a very dry part of a desert.

D. Delta is not a good place for wildlife to live in.

29. What does the underlined word “disappeared” mean in the 2nd paragraph?

A. Came out. B. Went away. C. Got off.   D. Picked up.

30. Why do some safari companies have rights to operate in the Okavango Delta!

A. Because they can make more people live in the delta.

B. Because they can help visitors go there not only by air.

C. Because they can develop these areas by building factories.

D. Because they can protect the delta better by proper developing.

第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）

下面文章中有五处（第31—35题）需要添加标题。请从以下选项（A、B、C、D、E和F）中选出符合意思的标题。选项中有一项是多余选项。

   31  

Everyone wants to succeed in their life, don’t they? Even as a teenager, you can achieve success in your life; it isn’t really that hard. Here are some important points that you may find helpful.

   32  

No matter how boring it is now, education will help you be an active member in society. Try your best for being excellent in school; listen to the teachers, do your homework, study, and get good grades. Doing so will help you get into a better university, which will make you have a bright future.

   33  

Volunteering in your neighborhood can make you happier. Studies show that people who volunteer are less likely to develop depression (抑郁) than people who don’t. Find chances to do volunteer work that interests you. When you help others, it will make you feel better about yourself.

   34  

Remember, they’re there to help you be the best that you can be. Keep in mind that they do these things because they care about you. You don’t get to choose your teachers or your family, but you still have to get on well with them.

   35  

Start thinking about dream jobs you would like to do, but make a good choice according to your interests. Challenge yourself and you’ll be surprised what you can do after a hard job!

第三部分  英语知识运用（共两节，满分25分）

第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）

通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出一个最佳选项。

“Where were you, Noah?” Daniel asked his younger brother. “It seemed like you were a million    36    away. You didn’t even hear me calling you.”

Noah raised his head and looked at Daniel, “Daniel, have you    37    had stage fright (怯场)?”

“Sure,” said Daniel. “Several times. Do you remember I was in a    38    a few years ago? I knew my lines,   39    I was too nervous to say them aloud in front of an audience (观众).”

“I just can’t stop thinking about the spelling bee next week.” said Noah.

“I didn’t know you made it to the finals (决赛),” said Daniel. “Good    40   !”

“It’s not good at all,” said Noah. “I’m worried I’ll get nervous and freeze on stage. I might forget how to spell    41    — even my own name!” Noah looked    42    at his brother.

Daniel comforted his brother. “I’ll help you    43    this. Here’s what you need to do. You have to practice as much as you can before the day of the competition. I’ll go to the school hall with you to practice,   44    you want. That way you’ll feel    45    there.”

Noah began to look a little less worried. “Then, I’ll teach you this skill my teacher taught me,”   46    Daniel. “You close your eyes and picture    47    doing the thing that you’re worried about. You go through the whole situation in your    48    so you can see what it feels like to do it and do it well. It might sound strange, but believe me, it    49   .”

Daniel smiled. “Take it easy. I’m a terrible speller. But you have a natural aptitude for spelling. Quick,   50    aptitude! Let’s start to practice now!” he joked.

36. A. years B. times  C. miles  D. dollars

37. A. just B. already C. even  D. ever

38. A. play B. story  C. class  D. game

39. A. and B. but  C. so  D. or

40. A. result B. try  C. job  D. condition

41. A. everything B. something C. everybody  D. somebody

42. A. happily B. excitedly C. peacefully  D. sadly

43. A. look through B. get through C. take down  D. give out

44. A. while B. unless C. if  D. although

45. A. sick B. fair  C. nervous  D. comfortable

46. A. argued B. continued C. cheated  D. encouraged

47. A. herself B. himself C. myself  D. yourself

48. A. mind B. hands C. opinion  D. memory

49. A. does B. works C. changes  D. depends

50. A. read B. spell  C. introduce  D. write

第Ⅱ卷

注意：将答案写在答题纸上。写在本试卷上无效。

第三部分  英语知识运用（共两节，满分25分）

第二节：（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）

阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。将答 案填写在答题纸的相应位置。

Mother Teresa was a symbol of hope and love to many dying and sick people around the world. She was    51    (young) of three children and became a nun (修女) in a church later. One of    52    (she) first tasks was to run the schools in India. A year later, Sister Teresa arrived in Calcutta (加尔各答)    53    (teach) at St. Mary’s High School.

She    54    (final) moved to the poor area of Calcutta to live and set up a school. She almost gave every cent she ever owned to    55    hungry and poor. She opened an orphanage (孤儿院) for the homeless children to live in. She won many prizes    56    her great work, and each time she would use the money from the prizes to help other people. In 1979, she won the Noble Peace Prize for    57    she did.

Through the years, her name changed to Mother Teresa. She was truly a mother to many. But life was not easy for her. She had heart problems and other    58    (illness), but she never stopped helping those in need    59    the day she died.

“We    60    (learn) a lot from her and done something like her,” said some volunteers. “Mother Teresa’s examples and words continue to encourage us.”

第四部分  写作（共两节，满分25分）

第一节：单词拼写（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）

根据下列句子及所给的首字母，在答题纸上按题号写出各单词的正确、完全形式（每空限填一词）。

61. Whenever I’m feeling sad, my friends will c______ me up.

62. Many people don’t realize the i______ of doing exercise until they become ill.

63. Sam didn’t drive to work this morning. I______, he walked to school.

64. In hospital, doctors and nurses are trying their best to fight bravely a______ Covid-19 virus.

65. Thousands of tourists come here to watch the special birds, e______ during the summer holidays.

66. Please c______ your homework several times before handing it in.

67. It’s amazing that our hometown has developed in such a r______ way.

68. Achievement b______ to those who stick to their dreams. So never give up!

69. John, please keep your v______ down and don’t wake up the children.

70. It’s not right to allow children to do w______ they like.

第二节：书面表达（共1小题，满分15分）

假设你是李华，收到美国好友Mike的一份电子邮件。请根据电子邮件内容回复。

要求：1. 词数80词左右；

2. 文章不得出现你所在的学校及你的真实信息；

3. 邮件需要提及2-3条吸引你的方面。

2020学年第二学期期末学业水平测试

八年级英语听力

这是2020学年第二学期期末学业水平测试八年级英语听力部分考试。

听力考试正式开始。该部分分为第一、第二两节。注意，听力部分答题时请先将答案标 在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题纸上。请看听力部分第 一节。

第一节，听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

（停顿5秒；停顿时间打点）

1. W: Mike, we need to clean the house. Your grandpa is visiting us today.

M: Sure, but I need to do my homework first.

W: OK.

（停顿10秒；停顿时间打点）

2. W: Were you going home yesterday at the time of the rainstorm?

M: No, I was reading at the library after school. Luckily, I didn’t decide to play basketball.

（停顿10秒；停顿时间打点）

3. M: The music and flowers are so lovely here.

W: Yes, but the most important thing of all is that the food is delicious.

M: That’s right. It’s great to have a meal here.

（停顿10秒；停顿时间打点）

4. M: Madam, would it be possible for me to hand in the paper by next Monday?

W: I’m afraid not, Mike.

M: Actually, I have been sick in bed for two days.

W: If that’s true, I’ll let you do that.

（停顿10秒；停顿时间打点）

5. W: Have you heard there was a big fire in the shopping center?

M: Are you sure? I haven’t read today’s newspaper yet.

W: I was there last night. Go and watch TV. There might be something about it.

（停顿10秒；停顿时间打点）

第一节到此结束。第二节，听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听下面一段对话，回答第6至第8三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。

（停15秒）

W: We’re going to see a movie at 7 this evening. Would you like to join us, Jim?

M: I’d love to, but my favorite TV show I Love Invention will be on at that time.

W: Oh, you have watched the TV show for many years, right?

M: Yes, I began to watch it in 2009. There are always interesting and amazing inventions in the show.

W: No wonder you love it so much.

M: Yeah, the main purpose of the show is to encourage common people to invent something and change their life. It’s fantastic.

W: I’m kind of interested in it now. I’ll watch it tomorrow evening.

（停2秒，然后重复，后再停15秒）

听下面一段对话，回答第9至第11三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。（停15秒）

W: Hey, James. What are you reading?

M: I’m reading about the best national parks in the world.

W: It’s impossible to choose the best national parks. There are too many wonderful parks.

M: I’ve been to several national parks in the US. My favorite might be Yellowstone.

W: What other parks have you been to?

M: I’ve visited two parks outside the U.S.

W: Which ones?

M: One is Kruger National Park in South Africa. It is home to 12, 000 elephants.

W: What about the other one?

M: I visited Lake District National Park in England. Its lakes and mountains are amazing to see.

（停2秒，然后重复，后再停15秒）

听下面一段独白，回答第12至第15四个小题。现在，你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。（停20秒）

Are you looking for anything fun and would you like to help other people in your free time? Then join us.

We have jobs for people of all ages. Anyone, from 12-year-old kids to 60-year-old people, can become one of us.

You can help people in many ways. Old people’s homes need help with caring for the old. Hospitals need us to look after kids while their parents are seeing a doctor. Animal lovers can help take care of those homeless dogs and cats. There is something to do for everyone.

Susan, an old woman of 60, said, “As a member of this group, I don’t want to get anything. I just get such a strong feeling of satisfaction when I see the animals get better.”

If everyone helps out a bit, we’ll have a better world to live in. If you are interested, call us at 555-3397 or visit our website: www.action.com.

（停2秒，然后重复，停20秒）

现在你有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。

听力部分到此结束。

2020学年第二学期期末学业水平测试

八年级英语参考答案及评分标准

第一部分

第一节（共5小题，计10分）

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B

第二节（共10小题，计20分）

6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. B

第二部分

第一节（共15小题，计30分）

16. B 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. D

第二节（共5小题，计10分）

31. D 32. F 33. B 34. A 35. C

第三部分

第一节（共15小题，计15分）

36. C 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. D

46. B 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. B

第二节（共10小题，计10分）

51. the youngest 52. her 53. to teach 54. finally 55. the

56. for/ through 57. what 58. illnesses 59. until  60. have learned (learnt)

第四部分

第一节（共10小题，计10分）

61. cheer 62. importance 63. Instead 64. against 65. especially

66. check 67. rapid 68. belongs 69. voice  70. whatever

第二节（共1小题，计15分）

One possible version:

Dear Mike,

I’m glad to hear from you. I should say the most wonderful place I’ve ever been to is Hangzhou.

One great thing about Hangzhou is that it’s a very friendly city. My foreign teacher has been to Hangzhou many times. He never has any problem moving around the city, as people there are always ready to offer help. And Hangzhou is also a city with a long history. You can enjoy the rich Chinese culture by visiting different museums.

If you plan to go there, I’ll be happy to be your guide. Hope to meet you soon!

Li Hua

评分标准

一、第1小题至第5小题，每题2分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。

二、第6小题至第15小题，每题2分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。

三、第16小题至第30小题，每题2分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。

四、第31小题至第35小题，每题2分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。

五、第36小题至第50小题，每题1分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。

六、第51小题至第60小题，每题1分，凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。

七、第61小题至第70小题，每题1分，凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。

八、书面表达共1题，共计15分。

评分原则：

1. 按5个档次给分。中档属第三档（9分—7分）。

2. 按学生所写内容和所用语言确定档次（内容分和语言分各占一半）。

3. 总词数不足40个可在本题总得分中扣去3分；超过120个可在本题总得分中扣去2分。

4. 评分要点：

（1）邮件开头（2分）。

（2）去过最好的地方（3分），2-3个吸引点（9分）。

（3）结尾（1分）。

5. 各档次的给分范围和要求：

第五档（很好）：（15分—13分）完全完成试题规定的任务。

①信息全。②语言可读性强，语言结构基本正确，有少量错误。

第四档（好）：（12分—10分）完全完成试题规定的任务。

①有主要信息。②语言基本正确，有一些错误。

第三档（还好）：（9分—7分）基本完成试题规定的任务。

①有主要信息。②语言尚可读，有一些错误，但尚能达意。

第二档（较差）：（6分—4分）未能恰当完成试题规定的任务。

①信息不全。②只有个别句子可读，语言错误较多，且不能达意。

第一档（差）：（3分—1分）未能完成试题规定的任务。

①不能表达有关信息。②只有几个相关单词，语言错误很多，不能达意。

注意：凡不写任何内容、抄袭其它内容、所写内容无法看清者一律给0分。