安徽省2018年中考英语试题（word版，含解析）

这是一份安徽省2018年中考英语试题（word版，含解析），共26页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

第一部分 听力(共五大题，满分30分)
Ⅰ.关键词语选择(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到五个句子。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个你所听到的单词或短语。每个句子读两遍。
1. A. lkB. knckC. ck
2. A. dreamB. creamC. team
3. A. ticketB. pcketC. jacket
4. A. teachB. catchC. search
5.A. put upB. turn upC. pick up
Ⅱ.短对话理解(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
你将听到十段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
6. Which animal des the wman want t see?
A. B. C.
7. What will the wman prbably use t eat ndles?
A. B. C.
8. What place des the wman want t find?
A. B. C.
9. Hw will the man g t Beijing?
A. B. C.
10. What des Peter usually d after schl?
A. B. C.
11. What des Dad want Julie t d?
A. Frget the test.
B. G t sleep.
C. Study math.
12. Why is Mary wrried these days?
A. Because she has much wrk.
B. Because she has lst sme mney.
C. Because she is putting n weight.
13.What des Jessica think f the Chinese sng?
A. The music is nice.
B. The wrds are great.
C. The sng is shrt.
14.Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In a bank.
B. In a htel.
C. In a hspital.
15.Hw sn will the cncert begin?
A. In 10 minutes.
B. In 20 minutes.
C. In 30 minutes.
Ⅲ. 长对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第16至17小题。
16. What will Lisa d fr her father?
A. Make a cake.
B. But a T-shirt.
C. Order sme flwers.
17. What is the relatinship between the speakers?
A. Teacher and student.
B. Brther and sister.
C. Bss and secretary.
听下面一段对话，回答第18至20小题。
18. When did Lucy g t the ld peple’s hme?
A. Last weekend.
B. Last mnth.
C. Last year.
19. What did Lucy and Laura take there?
A. Milk and bks.
B. Milk and clthes.
C. Bks and clthes.
20. Wh played erhu then?
A. Lucy.
B. Laura.
C. Grandpa Li.
Ⅳ. 短文理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
21. Wh is Tny living with?
A. His classmates.
B. His uncle.
C. His parents.
22. What is Tny ding in Paris?
A. Learning the pian.
B. Wrking in a cmpany.
C. Traveling with friends.
23. Hw lng has Tny studied there?
A. Fr three mnths.
B. Fr tw mnths.
C. Fr ne mnth.
24. Why is Tny’s family ging t the twn?
A. T visit his teachers.
B. T see his grandparents.
C. T find his relatives.
25. What will Tny d fr his relatives?
A. Ck a big dinner.
B. Take sme phts.
C. Play a piece f music.
Ⅴ. 信息转换(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题，满分45分)
Ⅵ. 单项填空(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31. －May I use yur cmputer, Mr. Blace?
－______. I will use my iPad instead.
A. G aheadB. Thank yuC. Srry, yu can’tD. I’m afraid nt
32. －What is the ______ f yur excellent spken English?
－Practice makes perfect!
A. resultB. influenceC. dutyD. secret
33. －The fridges are n sale in the supermarket tday.
－Really? Let’s g and buy ______ fr ur new kitchen.
A. neB. itC. thatD. them
34. －I’m afraid I might frget t buy the bread after wrk.
－Dn’t wrry. I will ______ yu then.
A. nticeB. allwC. remindD. prmise
35.Befre the sun ______, we need t get t the tp f the muntain.
A. setB. setsC. is settingD. will set
36.Our class are much sure t win the basketball game ______ Class Three.
A. fB. inC. againstD. frm
37.Sme animals can ______ the clr arund t prtect themselves.
A. take nB. give upC. put awayD. see ff
38.－May I watch TV, Dad?
－When yur hmewrk is finished, yu ______.
A. shuldB. canC. mustD. need
39.－I wnder ______ Jane gets n s well with her classmates.
－Because she always cares much abut thers.
A. whetherB. hwC. whenD. why
40.The speaker shwed sme ______ examples t make the science reprt easy t understand.
A. awfulB. stupidC. prperD. thick
41. －Will yu g t the picnic this Saturday?
－I’d like t, ______ I’ll have t help lk after my baby sister.
A. butB. rC. andD. s
42. Little Jack has learned t d lts f things n his wn, ______ he is nly fur years ld.
A. ifB. thughC. frD. since
43. Yuan Lngping is ______ regarded as the greatest scientist in rice planting.
A. suddenlyB. patientlyC. hardlyD. generally
44. The weatherman says a rain shwer ______ this afternn in the suth.
A. expectsB. expectedC. is expectedD. was expected
45. －It’s said that shpping nline is safe.
－______. Yu’d better be careful.
A. I agreeB. That dependsC. I think sD. N prblem
Ⅶ. 完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
When the Spring Festival falls, red flwers blm(盛开) n the windws f my hme. Of curse, these are nt 46 flwers. But in the cld f 47 , these wnderful flwers bring warmth t us. They are made f paper by my 48 , wh is nw aged 70. with a few cuts, she 49 a piece f paper int a beautiful wrk f art.
When my grandma was cnsidered clumsy(笨拙的) in the 50 . But n a cld winter night, she saw sme beautiful red paper 51 n her new neighbr’s windws. She was s interested in it and decided t 52 frm her neighbr. Tns f paper was wasted, and her fingers were cut many times. But she 53 practicing. It tk 10 years 54 my grandma culd make paper art skillfully(娴熟地). The red flwers, blming like hurning fire, light up her wrld. Nw, everyne in the village 55 her.
My grandma’s stry has shwn me what it takes t realize ne’s dream.
46.A. niceB. realC. fullD. sweet
47.A. springB. summerC. autumnD. winter
48.A. sisterB. auntC. mtherD. grandma
49.A. changesB. spreadsC. placesD. burns
50.A. cityB. twnC. villageD. blck
51.A. artB. mneyC. wallsD. bks
52.A. buyB. stealC. learnD. brrw
53.A. ended upB. kept nC. put ffD. thught abut
54.A. befreB. afterC. whileD. since
55.A. servesB. pardnsC. respectsD. warns
B
As a freigner, it’s hard fr me t tell what Chinese peple are like. But my 56 in Beijing said smething.
A cuple f weeks ag, I went t buy fur big suitcases(行李箱) fr travel. 57 I was ging dwn the street, it suddenly thanked him and rushed t a 60 nearby t buy my suitcases.
If yu’ve ever tried t push fur big suitcases by yurself, yu may understand my 61 . I lked silly, fr the suitcases were dancing wildly acrss the flr. Then I gt a 62 n the shulder. It was the seller. He signed that I shuld wait. A few minutes later, he 63 in a car, and put the suitcases inside. Then we went driving 64 alng the rad t my hme. I ffered him sme mney, but he 65 . In brken English he said, “Feel gnd ... help yu.”
Nw, yu can see Chinese peple are always ready t help yu.
56.A. friendB. teacherC. inventinD. experience
57.A. IfB. AsC. AlthughD. Because
58.A. fundB. bughtC. madeD. ffered
59.A. harderB. lighterC. thickerD. faster
60.A. streB. hallC. labD. schl
61.A. languageB. sentenceC. situatinD. advantage
62.A. wingB. cinC. searfD. tuch
63.A. lay dwnB. drve upC. fell behindD. went away
64.A. happilyB. lazilyC. bravelyD. prly
65.A. missedB. nddedC. refusedD. failed
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题，满分45分)
Ⅷ. 补全对话(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hi, Alice. 66
B: Yeah, I’d like t d sme traveling.
A: 67
B: Nt yet.
A: D yu want t travel in big cities?
B: 68
A: Hw abut Huangshan Muntain?
B: 69
A: Sure!
A: Right. Yu can see In China, it’s cnsidered t be the king f all the muntains.
B: 70 special pines(松树), rckes and cluds. Yu can enjy ht springs as well.
B: Great! Thank yu.
Ⅸ. 阅读理解(共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Children’s Games in Ancient China
During ancient times, children didn’t have much t enjy themselves. Hwever, they came up with interesting games t play in their childhd.
71. Accrding t the text, the game f kicking a stne ball was ______.
A. played in summer
B. like flying kites
C. invented in Beijing
D. ppular in Nrth China
72. Hw is hide-and-seek usually played?
A. One plays and thers watch.
B. Others laugh and ne must cry.
C. Others hide and ne tries t find.
D. One runs and thers try t catch.
73. What des the underlined wrd “feature” mean in the text?
A. 特征
B. 地貌
C. 五官
D. 影片
74. Which ancient game is like watching a film?
A. Kicking stne balls.
B. Flying kites.
C. Playing hide-and-seek.
D. Watching shadw plays.
B
Jb interviews can be very different frm cuntry. An interviewer’s “bdy language” and questins, and the frm f an interview are nt the same arund the wrld.
If yu’re at a jb interview in Japan, dn’t lk directly int the eyes f the interviewer. It is cnsidered implite. But if yu’re at an interview in the US, yu shuld make eye cntact(交流) with the interviewer. If yu dn’t, the interviewer may think yu are nt sure abut yur ability.
In the US and sme ther cuntries, interviewers aren’t suppsed t ask questins abut family and persnal infrmatin. In mst cuntries, hwever, persnal questins are very cmmn during jb interviews.
In Germany, yur interview might begin with a very shrt cnversatin fllwed by a frmal(正式的) interview. In Mexic and many ther cuntries, the whle interview might nt be frmal.
75. In Japan, lking directly int the eyes f the interviewer is ______.
A. bring
B. implite
C. humrus
D. dangerus
76. What is suggested at an interview in the US accrding t the text?
A. Sitting by the interviewer.
B. Making eye cntact.
C. Talking abut family backgrund.
D. Asking persnal infrmatin.
77. In ______, a shrt talk usually begins befre a frmal interview.
A. Japan
B. the US
C. Germany
D. Mexic
78. In which part f a magazine can we read the text?
A. science.
B. Gegraphy.
C. Culture.
D. Sprts.
C
It’s a cld, grey Sunday afternn in March. The British are all wrking in their gardens. They’re digging, cutting leaves and planting new seeds(种子). By summer, their gardens will the full f bright clurs.
The British lve their gardens. A British newspaper recently asked peple fr their pinins abut them. Arund 70% f the peple felt it was imprtant t spend time in the garden, and ver 50% f these described gardening as the mst enjyable thing they ever did.
Only ne in ten huses in Britain d nt have a garden. Peple wh live in huses withut gardens ften rent(租用) land frm the gvernment.
At first, nly very rich peple had gardens. Yu can still see the gardens arund huses with a lng histry, such as Chatswrth Huse r Castle Hward. In the early twentieth century, hwever, gardening became a hbby. Peple bught different kinds f seeds and plants fr their gardens. Althugh rses, sunflwers and tmates are ften grwn in British gardens, they riginally(起初) grew wild in ther cuntries.
Every year, there are cmpetitins fr the largest vegetables, but dn’t expect t win: Britain’s biggest carrt is almst six meters lng.
79. In summer, British gardens are ften ______.
A. full f peple digging there
B. clrful with different plants
C. t ht fr peple t wrk there
D. cvered with grey leaves and plants
80. A recent survey shwed that ______ f the British felt it imprtant t d sme gardening.
A. arund 70%
B. ver 50%
C. nly 20%
D. abut 10%
81. We can infer frm Paragraph 4 that ______.
A. seeds were prvided fr free
B. rses were first grwn in Britain
C. gardening is a hubby in the wrld
D. the wner f Chatswrth Huse was rich
82. What des the writer mean by the underlined sentence?
A. It is easy t grw big vegetables.
B. It is hard t win the cmpetitin.
C. The carrt is much easier t grw.
D. The carrt is his favrite vegetable.
D
Wuld yu like t live in a city where buildings turn the lights ff fr yu, and self-driving cars will find the nearest parking space themselves? Althugh it might sund a little far frm yu, living in a “smart” city like this culd happen sner than yu think.
Great changes have taken place in twns that we have lived in fr centuries, while cmpletely new cities are being built. One such place is the city f Sngd. Every hme there will have a “telepresence” system(远程遥控系统)－ allwing users t cntrl the heating and lks, take part in vide meetings, and receive educatin, healthcare and gvernment services. Arund the city, escalatrs(自动扶梯) will nly mve when smene is n them, and ffices and schls will all be cnnected t the system.
The great mind behind Sngd is frm the cmpany Cisc. In fact, technlgy cmpanies arund the wrld such as IBM, Siemens and Micrsft are already in the business.
Abut 75% f the wrld’s ppulatin will live in cities by 2050, s cities will need t be mre mdern t deal with the cming prblems. “making cities smarter is ne way ut, and I think this will in turn make cities greener,” said Dan Hill, head f a research cmpany.
83. Accrding t the text, living in a “smart” city ______.
A. is nt a green way
B. will be far frm yu
C. will sn becme true
D. is cmpletely impssible
84. What is Paragraph 2 mainly abut?
A. A city f the future.
B. A meeting in Sngd.
C. A plan t build a huse.
D. A reprt n public health.
85. Which cmpany ffers the great mind t build Sngd?
A. Cisc.
B. IBM.
C. Siements.
D. Micrsft
86. Dan Hill thinks that making cities smarter is ne way t ______.
A. drive peple ut f cities
B. cntrl the wrld’s ppulatin
C. develp his wn cmpany
D. slve the cities’ cming prblems
87. Which f the fllwing might be the best title fr the text?
A. Future Educatin
B. Smart Cities.
C. Gvernment Services.
D. Famus Cmpanies.
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
E
Mr. Beynlds, my teacher, handed us a list f thughts, and asked us t write a paper n ne f thse thughts. I chse the tpic “I wnder why things are the way they are.”
I wrte dwn all the questins that puzzled(困扰) me abut life. I realized that many f them were hard t answer, and perhaps thers culd nt be answered at all. When I handed in my paper, I was afraid that I might fail because I did nt answer the questins.
The next day, Mr. Reynlds handed me the paper and asked me t read it fr the class. The ther students became quiet as I began t read my stry:
Mum, why are the rses red? Why is the grass green and the sky blue? Why d I have t graduate(毕业)? Why d I have t grw up? Why d I have t be called “Grandma” n day? ...
Dad, why can’t I stay ut until 12:00? Why d I miss my ld friends? Why d I miss being at hme? Why d yu lve me s much? ...
Mum, Dad, why did yu have t leave me? I need yu.
At the end f my stry, I lked at Mr. Reynlds, and I saw a tear slwly cming dwn his face. Then I realized that life is nt built n the answers we receive, but n the questins we asks.
88. Why was the writer afraid that she might fail? (不超过10个词)
___________________________________________________________________________
89. What did the teacher ask the writer t d fr the class? (不超过15个词)
___________________________________________________________________________
90. What did the writer realize at the end f the stry? (不超过15个词)
___________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写(共两大题，满分30分)
Ⅹ. 单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
91. My grandparents are b (忙碌) making zngzi fr the Dragn Bat Festival.
92. Everyne has a r (角色) t play in making ur cuntry mre beautiful.
93. The little by is always keeping his bedrm clean and t (整齐).
94. A gd hby a (增加) a lt f fun t ur spare life.
95. Please think t (两次) befre yu hand in yur paper.
Ⅺ. 书面表达(共1小题；满分25分)
某英文杂志社正面向九年级毕业生征文，请从以下要点中选择一至两个方面，并结合具体事例，用英语写一篇题为“Thank yu, my teacher!”的短文参加此次活动。要点如下：
1．严格要求；
2．耐心指导；
3．热情鼓励；
4．……
注意：1．词数80－100；
2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3．文中不得出现真实姓名及学校名称。
2018年安徽省中考英语试卷(解析)
I. 听力(共五大题，满分30分)
1-5 BCBAC
6-10 CCAAB
11-15 BCACB 16-20 ABAAC
21-25 BAABC
26. small
27. farmers
28. feed
29. walk
30. Mn
第二部分英语知识运用(共两大题，满分45分)
VI. 单项填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
31. [解析]情景交际题一 本题考查情景交际中的请求和应答场景。 根据.上下文可以选出答案。
A. G ahead去吧,做吧。
B. Thank yu谢谢你。
C. Sry, yu can't 对不起,不行。
D. I'm afraid nt恐怕不行。
[翻译] -我可以用你的电脑吗,布莱克先生? --用吧 ,我可以用我的iPad。本题难度较小。
[答案] A
32. [解析] 名词-本题考查名词的词义辨析,根据上下文可以得出要填的单词。
A. result结果
B. influence影响
C. duty责任
D. secret秘诀
[翻译] --你口语这么好,秘诀是什么? - 孰能生巧!本题难度较小。
[答案] D
[解析] 代词-本题主要考察代词中it和ne的区别。 it指的是上文中出现过的名词; ne指的是与上文出现的名词同一类的事物。
[翻译]——这台冰箱今天在超市打折。--真的吗 ?让我们去给我们的新厨房买-台吧。本题难度较小。
[答案]A
34. [解析]动词一本题考查动词的词义辨析,通过分析上下文的句意,即可得出正确答案。
A. ntice注意到
B. allw允许
C. remind 提醒
D. prmise 承诺
[翻译] -- 我恐怕会忘记下班后买面包。
--不用担心。我那时会提醒你的。本题难度较小。
[答案] C
35. [解析]动词时态一本题考 查在时间状语从句中动词的时态原则:用-般现在时代替一般将来时,
故选B。
[翻译]在太阳落下之前,我们需要到达山顶。本题难度适中。
[答案] B
[解析] 介词-本题考查介词的词义辨析。通过分析上下文，“和三班之间的篮球赛" ,可知答案为against。
[翻译]我们班非常确定可以赢得与三班之间的篮球赛。本题难度适中。
[答案] C
37. [解析] 动词短语-
-本题考查动词短语的词义辨析,通过上下文可以得出答案。
A.taken 显现;穿上
B.give up放弃
C.putaway收拾,整理
D.see ff送别
[翻译]一些动物可以显现出和周围一样的颜色,来保护它们自己。本题难度较大。
[答案] A
38. [解析]情态动词--本题考查情态动词表示许可的用法。可以通过下文中含义选出选项。对May ...提出的请求,肯定回答是Yes, yu can.
[翻译] --爸爸,我能看电视吗? -- 当你作业做完了,你就可以看。
[答案] B
39. [解析] 宾语从句一本题考查宾语从句的连接词。 根据题目中答句: 可以看出是在提问原因,所以用why提问。
[翻译] -- 我想知道为什么简跟她的同学相处得如此友好。
因为她总是很关心其他人。
[答案] D
40. [解析] 形容词-本题考查形容词的词义辨析。根据题意即可得出答案。
A. awful糟糕的
stupid愚蠢的
C. prper合适的
D. thick厚的
[翻译]这个演讲者展示了- -些恰当的例子使得科学报告易于理解,本题难度较小。
[答案] C
41. [解析] 连词一本题考查连词。 可通过上下文的逻辑关系,得出正确答案。由于前后句意表示转折
关系,所以答案为but。
[翻译] -这周六你想去野餐吗? - 我想去,但是我必须照看我的小妹妹。本题难度较小。
[答案] A
42.[解析]状语从句一本题考查状语从句中的让步状语从句。根据上下文的关系,可得出答案。
[翻译]小杰克已经自学了许多事情,尽管他只有4岁。本题难度较大。
[答案] B
43. [解析] 副词-本题考查副词的词义辨析。
A. suddenly突然地
B. patiently 有耐心地
C. hardly几乎不
D. generally普遍地,一般地
[翻译]袁隆平被普遍认为是水稻种植领域最伟大的科学家,本题难度适中。
[答案] D
44. [解析]本题考查动词的语态和时态。从句中因为"a rain shwer"做主语,可知应用被动语态,又因为"阵雨被预料”这件事发生在现在,所以用一般现在时。
[翻译]天气预报员说阵雨预计会在今天下午的南部降落，本题难度适中。
OCAD
[答案] C
45. [解析] 情景交际一本题考查情景交际中对别人表达观点的应答。通过下文"Yu'd better becareful"可知并不是完全肯定对方的观点,故答案为B。
[翻译] --据说网上购物是安全的。
--看情况。你最好还是小心点,本题难度适中。
[答案] B
Ⅶ. 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
A篇
[文章大意]本文是一篇记叙文，主要讲述外祖母获得尊重的人生经历。一开始外祖母在人们眼中比较笨拙,后来因为学习剪纸艺术,实现了自己的人生价值,获得大家的尊重。本篇用一个小故事呈现道理:只要坚持,一定会实现梦想。
46. [考点]形容词词义辨析
[方法]联系下文
[解析]从下文可以看出这些花是外祖母的剪纸作品,并不是真的花,故此处选B.real,意为“真的”。本题难度较小。
[答案] B
47.[考点]名词词义辨析
[方法]原词复现
[解析]根据第二段第二句话, "but n a cld winter nigh..."可判断季节为冬天，故选D。本题难度较小。
[答案] C
48.[考点] 名词词义辨析
[方法]联系上下文
[解析]根据后文可知,此处的人物为70岁,可判断剪纸是我的外祖母做的，且后文有原词复现,故选D。本题难度较小。
[答案] D
49. [考点]动词词义辨析
[方法].上文语境
[解析]根据本句句意可知,“她将一张纸变成了一个美丽的艺术作品”A.改变B. 传播,延展C.放置D.燃烧,并且为固定搭配,表示"变 ,故选A。本题难度中等。
[答案] A
50.[考点] 名词词义辨析
[方法]原词复现
[解析]由第二段倒数第二行"everyne in the vllage..",.可知外祖母住在村庄。故选C,village.本题难度较小。
[答案]c
51.[考点]名词词义辨析
[方法].上下文语境
[解析]根据句意可知, "外祖母看到了她新邻居家的美丽的红色剪纸艺术,因此变得很感兴趣”。A.艺术B.钱C.墙D.书，故选A。本题难度中等。
[答案] A
52.[考点]动词词义辨析
[方法]固定搭配+上下文语境
[解析]由上文可知外祖母学习了邻居的经验, leam frm向...学习, 故选C。本题难度较小。
[答案]C
53. [考点] 动词词组辨析
[方法]上下文语境
[解析]由上文可知外祖母学习纸花的制作很多次伤到了手指,但她并没有放弃。A.结束B.继续C.推迟D.考虑，故选B,本题难度适中。
[答案] B
54.[考点]时间状语从句引导词辨析
[方法].上下文语境
[解析]根据句意"我奶奶花费了10年的时间才能够熟练地剪纸”,可知选A。本题难度较大。
[答案]A
55. [考点]动词词义辨析行
[方法]上下文语境
[解析]根据前文"clumsy" 可知,外祖母刚开始在其他人眼里是非常笨拙的,但现在所有人都尊重她。A.服务B.原谅C.尊重D.警告,故选C。本题难度适中。
[答案] C
B篇
[文章大意]本篇文章通过外国人的视角,介绍了其在中国北京的经历。通过作者的这些经历展示了中国人乐于助人的优秀品质。
[考点]名词词义辨析
[方法]联系下文
[解析]根据文章第二、三两段,可知是“我”在北京的“经历”告诉了我,中国人是什么样的。A.朋友B.老师C.发明D.经历,故选D。本句意为”但是我在北京的经历可以说明一些东西”。
本题难度较小。
[答案] D
57. [考点]连词辨析
[方法]联系下文
[解析]根据句意可知，“当我走在街道上的时候,突然下起了大雨”。A.如果B. 的时候C.虽然D.因为。故选B。本题难度较小。[答案] B
58.[考点] 动词词义辨析
[方法]联系上下文
[解析]根据本段上下文,“我”被一个陌生人叫进他的店里,他给我提供了一杯茶和椅子 ，此处
应选择fered。A. 寻找B.买C.制作D.提供。本题难度较小。
[答案] D
59.[考点] 形容词词义辨析
[方法]联系上下文
[解析]根据上下文,当雨变小的时候,我向他表达了感谢并冲出了旁边的店里买行李箱。A.更难B.更轻C.更厚D.更快,所以此处根据句意选择B。本题难度较小。
[答案] B
60.[考点] 名词词义辨析
[方法]联系下文
[解析]根据下文作者要买行李箱,所以是在商店里买。A.商店B.大厅C.实验室D.学校。故选A。本题难度较小。
[答案] A
61.[考点] 名词词义辨析方
[方法]联系上下文
[解析]根据上下文,如果你没有曾经努力独自- -人推过四个大箱子,你不可能明白"我”的状况,"我”看起来傻傻的。A.语言B.句子C.状况D.优点。故选C。本题难度中等。
[答案] C
62.[考点]名词词义辨析
[方法]联系上下文
[解析]根据本段意思,“我”艰难地推着四个大箱子,然后有人拍了我的肩膀,销售员让“我”等一下。A.翅膀B.硬币C.围巾D.触感。故选D。本题难度中等。
[答案] D
63.[考点]动词词组辨析
[方法]联系上下文
[解析]本句意为“几分钟后,他开着车来到我身边并把我的行李放到了车里”。A. 放下B.驱车赶到C.落后D.离开。故选B。本题难度较大。
[答案] B
64.[考点]副词词义辨析
[方法]上下文语境
[解析]根据上下文可知，销售员用车载“我”,我们俩应该是非常开心地坐着车。A.开心地B.懒惰地C.勇敢地D.贫穷地,故选A,本题难度中等。
[答案] A
65.[考点]动词词义辨析
[方法].上下文语境
[解析]本题的关键是"but" , 根据上文,“我”想给销售员钱，但是他拒绝了。A."错过B.点头C.拒绝D.失败,故选C。本题难度中等。
VI. 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
[翻译]
A.乐意效劳。
B.还有其他可以玩的吗?
C.去那里玩值得吗?
D.你决定去哪里了吗?
E.话说回来,那里一定要有一-些特别之处。
F.我觉得去大城市旅行不好玩。
G.你对这个暑假有什么安排?
[答案] GDFCE
66. [解析] 由下文B的回答"Yeah, I'd like t d sme traveling."一“我想去旅游” ,可知A在提问暑假的安排。故选G。本题难度小。
67. [解析] 由下文B的回答"Ntyet." 一“还没有。” 可知, A在询问是否决定好旅行的地方,故选D ,并且yet可以提示时态为现在完成时。本题难度适中。
[解析] 由上文A的提问"D yu want t travel in big cities?”一“你想去大城市旅游吗。”可知，B需要回答对于大城市的看法。故选F。本题难度小。
69. [解析] 由69空后的句子"Sure! In China, it's cnsidered t be the king f all the muntains. " ,“当然，在中国它被视为所有山当中的泰斗。”,可知B在询问去黄山玩是否值得。故选C。本题难度小。 mm中学C
70. [解析] 由于70空后面的"special pines, rcks and cluds"，用于回答上面提及的"smething special" ,即”特别之处”,故选E。本题难度小。
IX.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
A篇
[文章大意]本文为说明文,主要介绍中国古代孩子们玩的游戏种类。
[考点] 细节题。
[解析]题干的意思是"根据文章,询问的是kicking a stne ball的区域在哪”,根据第一个表格定位到关键词"in the nrthern part f China" ,故选D。本题难度较小。[答案] D
72. [考点]细节题。 [解析]题干的意思是“捉迷藏通常是怎么玩”，根据Hide-and-seek定位在文中第二个表格第二行"Others hide and ne child must try t find them"，故选C。本题难度较小。
[答案]C
73. [考点] 词义猜测题。
[解析]题干的意思是“文中划线单词feature含义是什么”,根据文中第三三个表格中第二-行"Fr example, the bird-shaped kite with lng wings is a special kind f the Beiing kite" ,推断出每个风筝都有自己的特征。故选A。本题难度中等。
[答案] A
74. [考点] 细节题。
[解析]题干的意思是“古代的哪一款游戏看上去最像看电影”,根据题干"watching a film"定位到文中第四个表格第一行"The clsest thing t watching a flm during ancient times was gingt see a shadw play" ,故选D。本题难度较小。
[答案] D
B篇
[文章大意]本篇文章介绍了不同国家的求职面试情况。各个国家因为文化习惯的不同,对面试者的要求和期待也不同,面试者的肢体语言和问题以及面试的形式都不相同。
[考点]细节题。
[解析]此题题干关键词是"Japan" 和"lking directly int the eyes f the interview" ,根据这两个关键词定位到第二段的第一行的"It is cnsidered implite" ,得出这种行为是implite。本题难度较小。
[答案] B
76. [考点]细节题。
[解析]题干关键词"is suggested"和" at an interview in the US"得知问的是在美国面试过程中什么是被建议的,根据题干关键词定位到第二_段第一行"If yu're at an interview in the US, yu
shuld make eye cntact (交流) with the interviewer" ，得知在美国面试时,我们应该和面试官进行眼神交流。本题难度中等。
[答案]B
77. [考点] 细节题。
[解析]题干关键词"a shrt talk usually begins"和"befre a frmal interview"得知问的是在哪里正式面试之前通常会有一一个短的谈话,根据题干关键词定位到第四段第一行"In Germany,
yur interview might begin with a very shrt cnversatin fllwed by a frmal (正式的)interview."得知答案是Germany。本题难度较小。
[答案] C
78. [考点] 主旨大意题。
[解析]题干意思是:从杂志的哪个部分我们可以读到这篇文章，这属于主旨大意题。由本文的主要大意各个国家因为文化习惯的不同，对面试者的要求和期待也不同,面试者的肢体语言和
问题以及面试的形式都不相同,得知这篇文章是一篇与文化有关的文章,故答案是culture。本题难度中等。
[答案]C
C篇
[文章大意]本文为说明文，介绍英国的菜园。
79. [考点] 细节题。
[解析]根据summer定位到首段最后一句,根据后面"By summer, their gardens will be full f bright
clurs."可以知道,莱园颜色很丰富,故B符合题意。本题难度较小。之5
[答案] B
80. [考点]细节题。
[解析]根据选项,选择的是数字,答案很容易定位。根据数字和题干关键词imprtant ,定位到第二段第三句"Arund 70% f the peple felt it was imprtant t spend time in the garden" ,可知答案是70% ,选A。本题难度较小。
[答案] A
81. [考点] 推理判断题。
[解析]根据题干中的Paragraph 4 ,定位到第四段。根据首句"At first, nly very rich peple had gardens. Yu can still see the gardens arund huses with a lng histry, such as Chatswrth Huse r Castle Hward" ,可知最初只有有钱人有菜园, 举的例子有ChatswrthHuse ,由此推断, Chatswrth Huse的主人很有钱,故选D。本题难度中等。
[答案] D
82. [考点] 句意猜测题。
[解析]划线部分前面有一句"but dn't expect t win"。后面有冒号，起解释作用，因此划线部分的意思和冒号前的句意是一致的,由此推断赢得比赛比较难，故选B。本题难度较小。
[答案] B
D篇
[文章大意]本文是说明文，主要描述了未来可能出现的智能城市。
[考点] 细节题。
[解析]题干的意思是“根据本文,住在一个智能城市是______,根据“smart"定位到第一段第二行，根据“... living in a 'smart' city like this culd happen sner than yu think"可知,选C，住在像这样的一个“智能”城市,可能会比你认为的更快发生。本题难度较小。
[答案] C
84. [考点] 主旨题。
[解析]题干的意思是"第二段主要是关于什么的" ,根据“题千"” 定位到第二段第一-行开始"Great changes have taken One such place is the city f Sngd..可知第二段主要描述了未来的一个城市，故选择A。本题难度中等。
[答案] A
85. [考点]细节题。
[解析]题干的意思是“哪个公司为建造Sngd提供了非常好的想法”,根据mind和Sngd定位到第三段第一行第一 句"The great mind behind Sngd is frm the cmpany Cisc”可知选A。本题难度较小。
[答案] A
86. [考点] 细节题。
[解析]题干的意思是"Dan Hill 认为把城市变得智能是一种好的方法” ,根据"Dan Hill“定位到最后一段第二行, "Making cities smarter is ne way ut, and I think this will in turn makecities greener"然后再定位到第一行，“Abut 75% f the wrld's ppulatin will live in cities by 2050, s cities will need t be mre mdern t deal with the cming prblems." ,所以选择D。本题难度中等。
[答案] D
87. [考点] 主旨题。
[解析]题干的意思是“哪个是文章的最佳标题”,文章第一段"Wuld yu like t live in a city where buildings turn the lights ff fr yu, and self-driving cars will find the nearest parking ... than yu think" ,并且全文整体描述了智能城市,故选B。本题难度中等。
[答案] B
E篇
[文章大意]本文是一篇记叙文。 作者通过讲述- -次初中时期的经历，探讨了对于生命疑问的思考。
88. [考点] 细节题。
[解析]题干的意思是:”为什么作者害怕她可能会失败”,其中关键词是: be afraid ,可以直接定位到第二段最后一句"I was afraid that | might fail because I did nt answer the questins" ,意为“我害怕我可能会失败,因为我不能回答这些问题”。本题难度较小。
[案] Because she did nt answer the questins (she wrte dwn).
89. [考点] 细节题。
[解析]题干的意思是:“老师让作者为全班同学做什么”,关键词是: ask the writer t d ,可以直
接定位到第三段第一-句 "Mr. Reynlds handed me the paper and asked me t read it fr the
class" , 意为"Mr. Reynlds把作文递给我并要求我为全班同学读我的作文”。本题难度较小。
[案] The teacher asked her t read her paper fr the class. / T read her paper fr the class.
90. [考点] 主旨题。
[解析]题干的意思是:”在故事的结尾,作者明白了什么”，题干的关键词是: realize ,直接定位到文章最后一段的最后一句"Then I realized that life is nt built n the answers we receive, but n the questins we ask." ,意为"就在那时,我明白了，生活并不基于我们得到的答案,而是基于我们提出的问题”。本题难度中等。
[案] The writer realized that life is built n the questins we ask. 1 Life is nt built n the
answers we receive, but n the questins we ask.
评分标准: 71~90题每小题2分。( 88~90题意思对即可酌情给分。)
X.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
91. busy
92. rle
93. tidy
94. adds
95. twice
XI.书面表达(共1小题;满分25分)
One pssible versin:
I'd like t say thanks t my English teacher, Miss Li, because she's helped me a lt.
Once,I failed my English exam. When she fund I was very wrried, she encuraged me t study
harder and prmised t help me. After that,I turned t her fr help every time | had questins. She was
always patient t make me understand every single questin. With her help, I've had enugh curage t
face difficulties and made much prgress in English.
Thank yu, my dear teacher! The lve and supprt frm yu will be with me frever.
一、评分原则:
1. 本题总分25分,按五个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档的要求来衡量,结合内容和语言表达，综合给定分数。
3.考生可以根据要点适当发挥,加入自己的观点。
4.词数少于80的,从总分中减去1分。
5.拼写错误多,书写较差以致影响表达,在所确定档次的分数范围内,减去1分。
C、各档次的给分范围和要求 :
第五档(很好):(25-21分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务,涵盖了所有内容要点,或在发挥时内容有新意或亮点;语言基本无误,行文连贯,表达清楚。
第四档(好):(20-16分)
完成试题规定的任务,涵盖了基本的内容要点;语言有少量错误,行文基本连贯,表达基本清楚。
第三档(一般):(15-11分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务,写出了一些内容;语言有一-些错误,行文不够连贯。
第二档(较差):( 10-6分)
未能恰当完成试题规定的任务,只能写出个别要点;语言错误较多,未能够清楚传达信息。
第一档(差):(5-0分)
未能完成试题规定的任务,只能写出与内容有关的一些单词;语言错误很多,未能清楚传达信息。Our Summer Camp
When
On July 5th
Where
A 26 muntain village
Wh
Stay with the 27
What
In the mrning, we’ll learn t 28 animals frm the lcal peple.
In the afternn, we’ll 29 abut the river.
In the evening, we’ll enjy the bright 30 .
A. Glad t help yu.
B. What else can we enjy?
C. Is it wrth traveling there?
D. Have yu decided where t g?
E. Then it must have smething special.
F. I dn’t think it fun t travel in big cities.
G. D yu have any plan fr the summer hliday?
Kicking stne balls
During the Qing Dynasty, kicking a stne ball arund was a ppular game in the nrthern part f China, and it was ften played in winter t keep warm.
Playing hide-and-seek
Hide-and-seek is a traditinal game fr children, ppular arund the natin. There are tw ways t play: cvering a child’s eyes while ther kids run arund t tease(戏弄) him r, mre cmmnly, thers hide and ne child must try t find them.
Flying kites
Kites have quite a lng histry. The earliest kites were made f wd, instead f paper. The three mst famus lites are the Beijing kite, Tianjin kite and Weifang kite. Each has its wn feature. Fr example, the hird-shaped kite with lng wings is a special kind f the Beijing kite.
Watching shadw plays(皮影戏)
The clusest thing t watching a film during ancient times was ging t see a shadw play. The artists cntrl puppets(木偶) behind the screen and tell stries t the music.