2024-2025学年湖南省武冈市七年级下学期期末英语试卷 (学生版)

这是一份2024-2025学年湖南省武冈市七年级下学期期末英语试卷 (学生版)，共8页。
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5 秒钟的作答时间。(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
1. Wh plays the guitar well?
A. Mary.B. Mary’s sister.C. Mary’s brther.
2. Where des Henry wrk?
A. In a fruit stre.B. In an ice cream stre.C. In a clthes stre.
3. Hw des the by want t get t the Qixing muntain?
A. By bike.B. By bus.C. By car.
4. What des Rbert have t d after dinner?
A. Clean the table.B. G fr a walk.C. D his hmewrk.
5. What animals des the by think are very cute?
A. Cats.B. Kalas.C. Pandas.
第二节 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有2~3个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话或独白前你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
听材料，回答小题。
6. What des Lucy think f playing chess?
A. It’s easy.B. It’s bring.C. It’s difficult.
7. Wh des Brian always play chess with at hme?
A. His sister.B. His brther.C. His grandpa.
听材料，回答小题。
8. Hw many schl rules des Laura talk abut?
A. Tw.B. Three.C. Fur.
9. What des Tim think f the schl rules?
A. They’re strict.B. They’re useful.C. They’re imprtant.
听材料，回答小题。
10. When des the by want t g t the TV statin?
A. This Saturday afternn.
B. This Sunday mrning.
C. This Sunday afternn.
11. Wh wrks at the TV statin?
A. The by’s uncle.B. The by’s mther.C. The by’s father.
听材料，回答小题。
12. What is Matthew?
A. A tiger.B. A lin.C. An elephant.
13. What des Ted’s mum think f Matthew?
A. Scary.B. Friendly.C. Interesting.
14. Hw ld is Matthew?
A. 2 years ld.B. 3 years ld.C. 4 years ld.
听材料,回答小题。
15. What day is it tday?
A. Friday.B. Saturday.C. Sunday.
16. Hw far is the village frm here?
A. Abut 20 km.B. Abut 120 km.C. Abut 210 km.
17. Hw lng des it take Li Ming t get t the village?
A. Abut 3 hurs.B. Abut 2 hurs.C. Abut l hur.
听材料，回答小题。
18. What des Frank have fr breakfast?
A. Milk and an egg.B. Bread and milk.C. Bread and an egg.
19. What time des Frank have lunch?
A. At 11:45.B. At 12:00.C. At 12:15.
20. Wh des Frank g hme with?
A. His sister.B. His father.C. His friend.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共11小题;每小题2分，满分22分)
阅读下列材料,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
21. What can yu jin if yu play the guitar very well?
A. The swimming club.B. The chess club.C. The star Rck Band.
22. Wh can teach yu t play chess?
A. Mrs Wang.B. Mr Wang.C. Mr Zhang.
23. What can yu d if yu are a musician?
A. Yu can call at 891-3453.B. Yu can call at 623-1904.C. Yu can write a letter.
B
Fr kids in Brazil (巴西),mang (芒果) is nt just a fruit. It is a new game!
Children ften thrw (投) manges at each ther as a fun game. Nw the game has becme a real sprt: manbl. Its name cmes frm the wrds; mang and ball. The game is nw a ppular sprt in Brazil. In the game, each player thrws a mang-shaped ball ver a net (网) in a fast and fun way at the same time. The tw players have t catch each ther’s ball at the same time t.
Miguel, 44. started the sprt. “At first, it was a simple game between us: My brther Rgeri wuld thrw a mang at me and I wuld thrw it back. But after a while, I thught it wuld be mre fun t each thrw a mang at the same time,” Miguel tld AFP. After his game became ppular, Miguel made the fficial (正式的) rules. Nw, there are abut 2,000 players acrss the cuntry. It als ges t 11 ther cuntries.
“It is an inclusive sprt. Everyne can play the game. Men r wmen, the yung r the ld, yu can play it anywhere at anytime,” said Katia Lessa,president (负责人) f a lcal manbl club. She hpes it will becme an Olympic sprt ne day.
24. Which f the fllwing shws “playing manbl”?
A. B. C.
25. What did Miguel d after his game became ppular?
A. He stpped playing the game.
B. He made fficial rules fr the game.
C. He went t play the game in ther cuntries.
26. What des the underlined wrd “inclusive” mean?
A. 包容的B. 竞速的C. 激烈的
27. In which part f a magazine can we prbably read this passage?
A. Nature.B. Health.C. Sprts.
C
Mr Brwn is 80 years ld. Every day, he ges fr a walk at 9:00 am in the park. And he cmes hme at half past twelve fr lunch.
But tday a car stps at his huse. At twelve, tw plicemen help him get ut. One f them says t Mr Brwn’s daughter, “The ld man can’t find his way in the park. He asks us t take him hme by car.” The daughter thanks the plicemen and the plicemen leave.
Then she asks her father, “Dad, yu g t that park every day. But tday, yu can’t find the way. What’s wrng with yu?” The ld man smiles like a child and says, “I can find my way. I dn’t want t walk hme.”
28. Mr Brwn ges fr a walk in the park in the ________.
A. mrningB. afternnC. evening
29. Every day, Mr Brwn ften cmes hme at ________.
A. elevenB. eleven thirtyC. twelve thirty
30. Tday Mr Brwn cmes hme ________.
A. by busB. by carC. n ft
31. Mr Brwn’s daughter thinks ________.
A. he wants t g hme
B. smething is wrng with him
C. he desn’t want t g hme
第二节(共4小题;每小题2分，满分8分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。有一个选项多余。
New Yrk City
New Yrk City is a large city in the United States. There are mre than 8,000,000 peple in the city. Every year, a number f peple visit New Yrk.
When yu are in New Yrk, yu may feel “busy” all the time. ____32____ If yu like art, New Yrk is an excellent place fr yu. There are many museums. The largest ne is the Metrplitan Museum f Art with many wrks f art. If yu want t see a musical(音乐剧), yu can g t ne f the Bradway theatres. ____33____
Yu can als taste different kinds f fd in New Yrk because New Yrk has restaurant frm all ver the wrld. ____34____ If yu are tired, sit in Central Park and lk at peple walking, playing sprts, r riding their bikes. And if yu like sprts, there is always a game t watch. ____35____ Dn’t try t drive! There are t many cars in New Yrk nw. If yu need help, ask a friendly New Yrker.
A. It is easy t travel arund New Yrk by bus, taxi, r subway.
B. There is always smething t d.
C. Yu can try fd frm Thailand, Afghanistan, r Mrcc.
D. Because peple in New Yrk walk very fast.
E. There are abut 41 active Bradway theatres in New Yrk.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分25分)
第一节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填人空白处的最佳选项。
Frank is a student in Sunshine Middle Schl. He likes nice ____36____. But his parents dn’t have much mney t ____37____ them fr him. S he always ges t the ____38____ and lk at the shes.
One Sunday, Frank ____39____ t the she stre again. He lks at his ____40____ shes and he is nt happy. His birthday is ____41____ Mnday. He really wants t have a new pair f shes fr his birthday, but he knws that his parents can’t buy them fr him.
Frank desn’t g hme because he desn’t want his ____42____ t see his sad face. He ges t the park near his hme. He ____43____ a girl sitting in a wheelchair (轮椅). Frank cmes t the girl, and ____44____ has n feet! He lks at his feet and thinks, “It’s much better t be withut (没有) shes than withut feet.” Then Frank ges hme happily.
“Being ____45____ is ne f the mst imprtant things fr everyne,” he says t his parents.
36. A. T-shirtsB. shesC. trusers
37. A. playB. askC. buy
38. A. streB. rmC. schl
39. A. fllwsB. takesC. ges
40. A. newB. ldC. smart
41. A. inB. nC. at
42. A. classmatesB. parentsC. friends
43. A. lksB. thinksC. sees
44. A. sheB. heC. her
45. A. freeB. funnyC. busy
第二节(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Many peple like t drive a car when they g ut. But fr me, I lve public transprt (公共交通)! In ____46____ (I) city, public transprt like the public bike, the subway and the bus ____47____ (be) everywhere.
The traffic (交通) is always busy during the rush hur (交通高峰期) between Mnday and Friday. S it’s easy fr me ____48____ (ride) a public bike t wrk. In ____49____ mrning, I leave fr wrk at 7 ’clck. The bike ride ____50____ (take) me abut twenty minutes. It is als ____51____ (relax) exercise.
I like t g t the art center n ____52____ (weekend). It is abut twenty-eight kilmeters frm my hme, s I like t take the subway there. It runs ____53____ (quick) and the ride desn’t take lng. Smetimes I g there with my family by bus. The ride is never bring ____54____ I can talk n the bus.
What ____55____ yu? D yu like green public transprt?
第四部分 综合技能(共两节，满分25分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。
Take a lk at this year’s calendar (日历). What d yu see? Feb. 29th! It cmes arund nly nce every fur years, like this year. It is called a leap year (闰年). But why d we need it?
It takes 365.25 days fr the earth t g arund the sun nce. We call this a slar year (太阳年). Hwever, ur calendar year is nly 365 days. That’s why we have leap years. They help ur calendar be mre accurate (准确的).
Leap years usually happen every fur years, but smetimes there are special rules. When a year is a century year (r a hundred year), like 1900 r 2000, if the year is divisible (可整除的) by 100 and 400, it is a leap year. S, 2000 was a leap year. But 1900 is nt divisible by 400, s it is nt a leap year.
Peple brn n Feb. 29th are ften called “leaplings”. S, hw d leaplings celebrate their birthdays? They dn’t have t wait fr fur years. They just celebrate their birthdays n Feb. 28th r March 1st.
Because it’s a special day, sme peple think Feb. 29th is a gd time t d sme special things, like having a big meal with family r meeting clse friends.
56. In a leap year, hw many days are there in February?
_________________________________
57. Why d we need leap years?
_________________________________
58. Is the year 2100 a leap year?
_________________________________
59. When d leaplings celebrate their birthdays if nt in leap years?
_________________________________
60. What special thing d yu want t d n Feb. 29th?
_________________________________
第二节(满分15分)
61. 假如你是梅，请给吉姆写一封电子邮件告诉他你自己的一些情况。
内容包括：
1.来自纽约(New Yrk)，就读于第一中学；2.每天六点起床，家离学校不远，每天走路上学；
3.喜欢英语，总是帮助朋友学习英语；4.喜欢而且擅长打篮球，放学后经常跟朋友一起打篮球；
5.周末经常和家人去动物园看动物，喜欢老虎，觉得老虎很可爱。
要求；
1.文章要包含所有要点，可适当发挥，文中不得出现真实人名和校名。
2.语句连贯，词数80左右，文章的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jim,
I’m happy t get yur email. _______________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
MayMusicians Wanted
By and girls, are yu music lvers? Can yu sing r dance? Can yu play the instrument? Welcme t ur Star Rck Band.
Please call Victr at 891-3453 r send an email t [email protected]
Chess Club
D yu like t play chess? D yu want t play chess well?
Mr Wang can teach yu.Yu can cme here every Friday afternn frm 13:00 t 16:00 Tel:623-1904