河北省2026七年级英语下学期期中学情评估试卷（含答案人教版）

这是一份河北省2026七年级英语下学期期中学情评估试卷（含答案人教版），共24页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30 分)
第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语(共5 小题; 每小题1 分，满分5 分)
1. ( )A. It is tall. B. It is small. C. It has a shrt neck.
2. ( )A. In ur classrm. B. After schl. C. In maths class.
3. ( )A. On the playgrund. B. In the classrm. C. In the kitchen.
4. ( )A. A shirt. B. A hamburger. C. A pen.
5. ( )A. Srry, I wn’t. B. Yes, please. C. Yes, I can.
第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案(共13 小题; 每小题1 分，满分13 分)
6. ( )What’s the by’s favurite animal?
A. B. C.
7. ( )What wuld the man like t eat?
A. B. C.
*********************************************************************
8. ( )Which ne is the rule in Li Mei’s hme?
A. She can’t g ut n schl nights.
B. She has t read bks every evening.
C. She can watch TV every day.
9. ( )What des the by have t d n weekends?
A. Wash his clthes. B. D hmewrk. C. Clean his rm.
*********************************************************************
10. ( )What des the by have fr breakfast?
A. An apple, sme milk and bread.
B. An apple, sme milk and hamburgers.
C. A hamburger, tw eggs and sme range juice.
11. ( )What des the by think the girl shuld eat?
A. Bread. B. Fruit. C. Eggs.
12. ( )What d the speakers plan t d this afternn?
A. G t the shp. B. Grw sme fruit. C. G t a farm.
*********************************************************************
13. ( )What time des Alice take a shwer?
A. At 6:00 a.m. B. At 7:00 a.m. C. At 6:30 a.m.
14. ( )What des Alice d at 7:30 a.m.?
A. She gets up. B. She ges t schl.
C. She eats breakfast.
15. ( )What instrument can Alice play well?
A. The pian. B. The vilin. C. The drums.
16. ( )What animals des Linda want t see?
A. Tigers, pandas and giraffes.
B. Lins, tigers and mnkeys.
C. Giraffes, elephants and pandas.
17. ( )What des Jack think f the wild animals?
A. They are all dangerus.
B. They are hard t play with.
C. Sme f them are friendly.
18. ( )What des Jack think f pandas?
A. Fat. B. Cute.
C. They lk big but run quickly.
第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案(共7 小题；每小题1 分，满分7 分)
19. ( )What des Mlly like eating?
A. Vegetables. B. Big animals. C. Small animals.
20. ( )What des Mlly lk like?
A. Cute. B. Beautiful. C. Scary.
21. ( )Hw many hurs des Mlly usually sleep every day?
A. 20. B. 2. C. 12.
*********************************************************************
22. ( )Hw many students are there in Judy’s class?
A. 25. B. 24. C. 49.
23. ( )Why d the six students walk t schl?
A. Because they live near the schl.
B. Because they think walking is gd exercise.
C. Because they will have a race.
24. ( )Wh takes Jim t schl?
A. His mum. B. His dad. C. His sister.
25. ( )Why des Jim g t schl by car?
A. Because his hme is far frm the schl.
B. Because his left leg is hurt.
C. Because his right arm is hurt.
第四节 听短文填空(共5 小题；每小题1 分，满分5 分)
第二部分 语言运用(共两节，满分25 分)
第一节 完形填空(共10 小题；每小题1 分，满分10 分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
At the start f this term, my PE teacher asked me t jin the 5-km running race. I was very 31 because I was never a gd runner. But I still wanted t have a 32 because I had nthing t lse, even when I didn’t win.
I 33 hard fr the race. I ran every day befre and after schl. I ran with many ther runners n the sprts field. I even had the special fd fr athletes ( 运动员). Maybe it culd help me t get a gd 34 .
When the big day 35 , I was very nervus. As usual, I gt up in the mrning and had my breakfast. Then my father tk me t the sprts field. All my family wished me gd 36 because they knew this race was imprtant fr me.
Other runners 37 athletes. I guessed I wuld nt 38 the race. Hwever, when I started t run, I seldm thught abut the race. I nly 39 my wn running. I didn’t remember when I ran past the ther runners. At last I wn.
I learned an imprtant lessn 40 the experience ( 经历): N ne can d a great jb if he r she desn’t wrk really hard.
31. ( )A. tired B. surprised C. relaxed D. bred
32. ( )A. treat B. grup C. try D. trick
33. ( )A. practised B. studied C. thught D. turned
34. ( )A. habit B. health C. result D. respect
35. ( )A. arrived B. finished C. imprved D. brught
36. ( )A. safety B. rules C. rders D. luck
37. ( )A. lked after B. lked like C. lked fr D. lked up
38. ( )A. jin B. lse C. win D. watch
39. ( )A. fcused n B. turned n C. hung ut D. wrked ut
40. ( )A. between B. amng C. frm D. n
第二节 短文填空(共15 小题；每小题1 分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或填入括号内单词的正确形式。
Dear friends, welcme 41. ________ Tangshan Banquet (唐山宴)! It’s 42. ________ special place where yu can experience the rich culture f Tangshan.
When yu walk in, yu’ll see many ld-fashined things. There are ld-style bicycles, radis 43. ________ sme traditinal furniture (家具). These things shw the ld lk f Tangshan and let yu knw 44. ________ the city’s past.
While yu are here, yu’ll hear the 45. ________ (interest) Tangshan dialect (方言) and find the lcals (当地人) are 46. ________ (friend). They are always happy 47.________ (talk) t yu. Even if yu dn’t understand it at 48. ________ (ne), their warm smiles will make yu 49. ________ (feel) welcme.
The 50. ________ (gd) part might be the fd! Yu can taste all kinds f special 51. ________ (dish) f Tangshan. Qizi shabing is a must-try. The crispy bread with tender meat inside is 52. ________ (real) delicius. There are als many ther snacks 53. ________ sugar-cated haws (糖葫芦) and fried cakes.
At Tangshan Banquet, yu can nt nly 54. ________ (enjy) the fd but als take a step back in time and explre the unique culture f Tangshan. I believe yu 55.________ (have) a great time here!
第三部分 阅读(共两节，满分40 分)
第一节 阅读理解 (共15 小题；每小题2 分，满分30 分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
56. ( )Hw much will Jane pay if she wants an Italian pizza, a crn salad and a cup f juice?
A. ¥12. B. ¥13. C. ¥14. D. ¥15.
57. ( )What can we learn abut the Internatinal Fd Festival frm this text?
A. The Internatinal Fd Festival is n June 11.
B. Students can get free staples at the Internatinal Fd Festival.
C. The mney frm the Internatinal Fd Festival will help t build a schl in Kenya.
D. Students can bring their wn fd frm hme.
58. ( )Which f the fllwing can be put in ▲ ?
A. NOTICES B. MANNERS.
C. EXPERIENCES. D. LETTERS.
B
Living in a schl drmitry ( 宿舍) can be a gd way t make friends. But students shuld als learn t fllw the rules. Please read the schl drmitry rules carefully.
● All student drmitry buildings have electrnic lcking systems ( 电子锁系统). Students can pen the dr with their student ID cards.
● All student rms have lcks. Each student has a key t his r her rm.
● Tw students share ne rm. Students shuld be friendly t each ther.
● The student drmitry is a place t study and sleep. Please d nt make t much nise.
● Students may have visitrs smetimes. All visitrs shuld register ( 登记) at the gatehuse. Visitrs can’t stay in the drmitry vernight.
● Students shuld clean the rm.
● N pets are allwed ( 允许) in the schl drmitry.
59. ( )Hw can students pen the dr f the drmitry building?
A. They can use the student ID cards.
B. They can use the rm key.
C. They can call the teacher.
D. They can make sme nise.
60. ( )What can students d in the drmitry?
A. Dance and sing ludly. B. Ask visitrs t stay the night.
C. Keep a dg as a pet. D. D the hmewrk and sleep.
61. ( )Which f the fllwing is the best title fr the text?
A. The Schl Drmitry B. Schl Rules
C. Schl Drmitry Rules D. Library Rules
C
D yu like playing little jkes ( 玩笑) n yur friends r family? A new study fund big apes ( 猿) have great fun ding this t. A grup f scientists spent a lt f time studying the apes frm San Dieg Z in the US and Leipzig Z in Germany. They were surprised t find ut apes lve t mnkey arund in many ways.
Sme apes wuld give their friends smething nly t take it back quickly, r even tickle ( 挠痒痒) each ther happily. They liked t catch their friends’ hair and sme even walked int their friends and fell ver fr fun. Often, if ne ape didn’t play back, the ther ape wuld keep ding the same funny thing again and again. The yung apes, arund three t five years ld, enjyed ding this the mst, just like little kids d. Dr Isabelle Laumer, ne scientist in this grup, tld the newspaper, “When little kids play jkes n their mther, they like t watch hw she feels carefully. We see that in these great apes, t.” What’s mre, the study fund that these yung apes make special sunds when playing jkes, different frm the sunds they ften make. It’s their way t shw their happiness fr mnkeying arund.
Next, scientists need t spend mre time finding ut why the apes lve playing jkes n each ther. They think knwing this can help us learn mre abut hw apes and peple shw their feelings.
62. ( )Hw des the writer start the text?
A. By telling stries. B. By asking a questin.
C. By giving examples. D. By fllwing the rder f time.
63. ( )What fun things wuld apes d t jke with each ther?
① They hit each ther.
② They walk int their friends and fall ver.
③ They tickle each ther.
④ They give smething t friends nly t take it back quickly.
A. ②③④ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ D. ①②③
64. ( )Here are meanings f “mnkey” in the dictinary. Which is the meaning f the underlined wrd “mnkey” in Paragraph 1?
① an animal with a lng tail
② a child wh is active and likes ding funny things
③ 500 punds
④ d things in a playful way
...
A. ① B. ② C. ③ D. ④
65. ( )What can we knw frm the text?
A. Humans can learn a lt frm apes.
B. Humans are smarter than sme apes.
C. Humans and apes d things differently.
D. Humans like t play with apes.
D
①“Drink eight cups f water.” The advice is cmmn. But if yu fall shrt, dn’t wrry. That advice may be wrng. New research finds that fr mst healthy adults, drinking eight cups f water a day is unnecessary. But it is nt dangerus. If yu d drink eight cups f water, yu may just spend mre time in the bathrm.
② In fact, this misunderstanding has smething t d with the advice befre. Early in 1945, the US Natinal Research Cuncil ( 国家研究委员会) advised adults t drink abut 1.9 liters ( 升) f water daily. It is abut a persn’s ttal daily intake ( 摄入量) f water frm fruit, vegetables and sup, nt eight glasses f water every day.
③ S, hw much water d yu need t drink every day? The study finds that it’s different frm ne persn t anther. It depends n many things, like yur age, size, the weather in yur city and s n.
④ Our needs fr water are the highest between the ages f 20 and 50. After that, the needs slwly g dwn.
⑤ Als, men usually have larger bdies than wmen, s they need mre water. Peple whse jbs need mre physical wrk need mre water than thse wh wrk in the ffice with their mind. And peple wh live in the place with ht weather need mre water than thse wh live in the place with cld weather.
⑥ All in all, mst f yu dn’t have t wrry abut nt having enugh water. Just drink whenever yu are thirsty. Water is the best chice. Cffee and tea are fine as well. But try nt t have drinks with sugar. They can cause a lt f health prblems.
66. ( )Where will yu spend mre time if yu drink eight cups f water every day?
A. In the kitchen. B. In the classrm.
C. In the bathrm. D. In the dining rm
67. ( )Which picture shws the right relatin between X and Y?

68. ( )What des the underlined wrd “It” in Paragraph 3 refer t?
A. The misunderstanding f drinking water advice.
B. The amunt f water peple need t drink daily.
C. The new research n drinking water.
D. The suggestin frm the US Natinal Research Cuncil.
69. ( )What des the writer want t tell peple?
A. They have t drink water and tea t be fit.
B. Different peple need different intake f water.
C. They shuld spend time reading studies n water.
D. Everyne needs t drink eight cups f water every day.
70. ( ) What’s the structure f this passage?
第二节 阅读表达(共5 小题；每小题2 分，满分10 分)
阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。
Students all need t fllw sme rules at schl. But different schls have different schl rules. Sme schls dn’t let students take their phnes t schls. As we all knw, phnes are very imprtant in peple’s lives. Shuld students take phnes t schl? Different peple have different ideas abut this questin.
Every cin (硬币) has tw sides. I think students shuld make prper use f (恰当使用) their phnes. Hw abut yu? D yu think students shuld take phnes t schl r nt?
71. What d sme schls nt let students d?
__________________________________________________________________
72. Hw many reasns d sme peple give t shw that it’s gd fr students t use phnes?
__________________________________________________________________
73. Hw can phnes help students with their English?
__________________________________________________________________
74. What d students ften use phnes t d after class and even during class?
__________________________________________________________________
75. Shuld students take phnes t schl? Why d yu think s?
__________________________________________________________________
第四部分 情景交际(满分10 分)
补全对话(共5 小题；每小题2 分，满分10 分)
根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Welcme t ur restaurant, sir! 76. ______________________________________
B: I’d like sme ndles.
A: We have egg ndles and beef ndles. 77. _______________________________
B: I’d like beef ndles, please.
A: Anything else?
B: N. 78. ____________________________________________________________
A: They are 20 yuan.
B: Here yu are. By the way, I want t buy a bk later. Is there a bkstre near here?
A: 79. ____________________________________ The bkstre is n Centre Street. I will shw yu after the meal.
B: That’s great! Thank yu very much.
A: 80. _______________________________________________________________
第五部分 写作(满分15 分)
书面表达
81. 学校即将举办主题为“My Healthy Lifestyle”的英语演讲比赛，请根据以下内容提示从饮食、运动和兴趣爱好等方面用英语写一篇演讲稿，向同学们分享你的健康生活。
要求： 1. 文章必须包含提示中的所有信息，并适当发挥；
2. 文中不得出现真实的人名和校名等信息；
3. 词数 70 左右。
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
期中学情评估卷 参考答案
1-5 ABABA 6-7 BA 8-9 AA 10-12 ABA 13-15 CBC 16-18 BCC
19-21 CCA 22-25 CBAB 26. help 27. fans 28. running 29. 8/eight 30. Mnday
31-35 BCACA 36-40 DBCAC
41. t 42. a 43. and 44. abut 45. interesting 46. friendly 47. t talk 48. first
49. feel 50. best 51. dishes 52. really 53. like 54. enjy 55. will have
A) 56. B 【点拨】推理判断题。根据图片信息可知意大利比萨饼8元，玉米沙拉5元，果汁免费，因此一共是13元。故选B。
57. C
58. A【点拨】推理判断题。根据D nt litter...可知此处应为“重要通知”。故选A。
B) 59. A 60. D
61. C【点拨】标题归纳题。根据“Please read the schl drmitry rules carefully.”以及其他内容可知，本文主要列举了学校宿舍的一些规则。故选C。
C) 62. B 63. A
64. D【点拨】词义猜测题。根据第一段可知，猿类也喜欢对朋友和家人开些小玩笑；据此可以推断，画线单词“mnkey”意为“以一种有趣的方式做某事”，是个动词。故选D。
65. A
D) 66. C
67. C【点拨】推理判断题。根据文章第四段“Our needs fr water are the highest between the ages f 20 and 50. After that, the needs slwly g dwn.”可知，我们对水的需求在20—50岁之间是最高的，之后需求慢慢下降。故选C。
68. B
69. B【点拨】推理判断题。根据文章第三段中“The study finds that it’s different frm ne persn t anther. It depends n many things, like yur age, size, the weather in yur city and s n.”可知，作者想告诉人们不同的人对水的需求量不同。故选B。
70. A
71. Sme schls dn’t let students take their phnes t schls. 72. Tw.
73. They can learn new wrds in the dictinary n the phne.
74. They ften use phnes t play games, watch mvies and d nline shpping.
75. N, they shuldn’t. Phnes may distract students frm study./Yes, they shuld. Because phnes can help them cntact parents in time and get study resurces cnveniently.(答案不唯一)
76. What wuld yu like? 77. What kind f ndles wuld yu like?
78. Hw much are they? 79. Yes, there is. 80. Yu are welcme.
81. One pssible versin:
Gd mrning, everyne!
I’m excited t share my healthy lifestyle with yu.
First, I have vegetables every day. I make sure t eat at least tw kinds, like tmates and carrts, because they are rich in vitamins and help me stay energetic. I seldm eat junk fd. Because it is bad fr my health. I play basketball three times a week. It’s a fun way t exercise and it makes me feel strng and happy. In additin, I als have a hbby that helps me relax. I like drawing pictures in my free time. It helps me express my feelings and reduce stress. It brings me jy.
Keeping a healthy lifestyle is nt diff icult. Let’s enjy it tgether!
Thanks fr yur listening!
听力材料
第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语
下面你将听到五个句子，每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后，从每小题所给出的A、B、C 三个选项中，选出该句的最佳答语。
N. 1: What des the giraffe lk like?
N. 2: When can I listen t music?
N. 3: Where d yu ften run?
N. 4: What d yu ften have fr dinner?
N. 5: Dn’t sleep in class.
第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案
下面你将听到六组对话和十三个问题，每组对话和问题读两遍。请你听完对话和问题的第二遍朗读后，根据所听内容，从每小题所给出的A、B、C 三个选项中，选出正确选项。
请听第一组对话，回答第6 小题。
W: What d yu like best, pandas, elephants r lins?
M: I like elephants best, because they can help us d many things.
Questin N. 6: What’s the by’s favurite animal?
请听第二组对话，回答第7 小题。
W: What wuld yu like t eat, Jhn? Dumplings again?
M: N, I’d like t have ndles tday.
W: Me t.
Questin N. 7: What wuld the man like t eat?
请听第三组对话，回答第8、9 小题。
M: Can yu g t the mvies with me tnight, Li Mei?
W: I’m afraid nt. I can’t g ut n schl nights. I have many rules at hme.
M: That’s t bad.
W: I can nly watch TV n weekends.
M: Any ther rules?
W: On weekends, I have t wash my clthes.
M: Oh! Me, t.
Questin N. 8: Which ne is the rule in Li Mei’s hme?
Questin N. 9: What des the by have t d n weekends?
请听第四组对话，回答第10 ～ 12 小题。
W: What d yu have fr breakfast?
M: I have an apple, sme milk and bread fr breakfast. What abut yu?
W: I have a hamburger, tw eggs and sme range juice fr breakfast.
M: Hamburgers are nt gd fr yu. Yu shuld eat sme fruit.
W: Yes, yu’re right. But I haven’t gt any fruit at hme.
M: Let’s g t the shp and buy sme fruit this afternn!
W: Gd idea!
Questin N. 10: What des the by have fr breakfast?
Questin N. 11: What des the by think the girl shuld eat?
Questin N. 12: What d the speakers plan t d this afternn?
请听第五组对话，回答第13 ～ 15 小题。
M: Hi, Alice! Can I ask yu sme questins?
W: Sure.
M: What time d yu usually get up?
W: At 6:00 a.m.
M: What d yu ften d after getting up?
W: I ften take a shwer at 6:30 a.m. Then I have breakfast at 7:00 a.m.
M: D yu have breakfast at hme?
W: Yes, and then I g t schl at 7:30 a.m. Schl begins at 8:00 a.m.
M: Can yu d kung fu?
W: N, I can’t.
M: S, what can yu d?
W: I can play the pian and the vilin. But I can’t play them well. I can play the drums well.
M: Oh, I see. Thank yu.
Questin N. 13: What time des Alice take a shwer?
Questin N. 14: What des Alice d at 7:30 a.m?
Questin N. 15: What instrument can Alice play well?
请听第六组对话，回答第16 ～ 18 小题。
M: Hell, Linda! It’s Sunday tday. We’ll g t the z. What animals d yu want t see?
W: Um, Jack. I want t see the wild animals, like tigers, lins and mnkeys.
M: Sme wild animals are very dangerus. I dn’t want t see them. But sme f them are kind f friendly t peple, like giraffes and elephants. I like them very much.
W: Are there any pandas in the z? Are there any kalas there? I like them.
M: Yeah, I als like pandas. They lk big but run quickly. As we knw, animals are ur gd friends. We shuld lve them.
Questin N. 16: What animals des Linda want t see?
Questin N. 17: What des Jack think f the wild animals?
Questin N. 18: What des Jack think f pandas?
第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案
下面你将听到两篇短文和七个问题，每篇短文和问题读两遍。请你听完短文和问题的第二遍朗读后，根据所听内容，从每小题所给出的A、B、C 三个选项中，选出正确答案。
请听第一篇短文，回答第19 ～ 21 小题。
I am a lin. My name is Mlly. I am eleven years ld. I like eating small animals. I als like t play with my friends. I am frm Africa. But nw I live in China. Althugh I am scary, I never hurt peple. I am lazy. I usually sleep fr 20 hurs every day.
Questin N. 19: What des Mlly like eating?
Questin N. 20: What des Mlly lk like?
Questin N. 21: Hw many hurs des Mlly usually sleep every day?
请听第二篇短文，回答第22 ～ 25 小题。
Hi, I’m Judy. I’m a middle schl student. In my class there are 25 bys and 24 girls. Hw d they g t schl every day? Twenty f them take the bus because they live far frm the schl. Six students walk. They think walking is gd exercise. Twenty-tw students ride their bikes t schl. Jim ges t schl by car. His mum drives him t schl every day because his left leg is hurt. Hw d I g t schl? Ha! I’m ne f the twenty.
Questin N. 22: Hw many students are there in Judy’s class?
Questin N. 23: Why d the six students walk t schl?
Questin N. 24: Wh takes Jim t schl?
Questin N. 25: Why des Jim g t schl by car?
第四节 听短文填空
下面你将听到一篇短文，短文读两遍。请你听完短文的第二遍朗读后，根据短文的内容和提示，在信息表中相应的横线上填入所缺信息。
Here is Health Sprts Centre. Yu can d many sprts here. Yu can get help frm the teachers. Outdrs, there is a ftball field fr ftball fans. And yu can practise running n the playgrund. Indrs, there are many places fr sprts. Yu can skate r play basketball and table tennis. There’s als a swimming pl. Yu can enjy swimming. Children under eight years ld are free. Our centre pens six days a week. It desn’t pen n Mnday. Cme and jin us!Health Sprts Centre
Teachers
get 26. ________ frm them
A ftball field
fr ftball 27. ________
The playgrund
can practise 28. ________
Free
fr children under 29. ________ years ld
Clsed
n 30. ________
Agree
Sme peple think it’s gd fr students.
* First, it’s easy fr students t call thers. And their parents can als find them easily.
* Secnd, phnes can help with their studies. Take English as an example. They can learn new wrds in the dictinary n the phne.
Disagree (反对)
Sme peple dn’t think it’s gd fr students.
They say students ften use phnes t play games, watch mvies, and shp nline after class and even during class. It’s nt gd fr their health and study.