四川省成都市重点高中2024-2025学年高一下学期4月期中考试题 英语（含解析）

这是一份四川省成都市重点高中2024-2025学年高一下学期4月期中考试题 英语（含解析），共8页。
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、考号填写在答题卷上相应位置。
2. 选择题答案使用2B铅笔填涂在答题卷对应题目号的位置上，填涂在试卷上无效。
3. 非选择题答案使用黑色签字笔填写在答题卷对应题目号的位置，填写在试卷上无效。
第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What des the man plan t d?
A. Lk fr a jb. B. Mve t a new place. C. Rearrange the furniture.
2. What are the speakers talking abut?
A. A new bk. B. A mrning paper. C. An African teacher.
3. Hw des the wman prbably feel nw?
A. Regretful. B. Anxius. C. Cnfused.
4. Where des the cnversatin take place?
A. In a restaurant. B. In a plice statin. C. In a car.
5. What is the man ging t d tmrrw?
A. Pay the bill. B. Check the mailbx. C. Fix the gas cker.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. What des Steve think f his training?
A. Disappinting. B. Acceptable. C. Excellent.
7. Hw lng des Steve train each day?
A. Three hurs. B. Five hurs. C. Ten hurs.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What des Mark say abut live drawing?
A. It’s enjyable. B. It’s stressful. C. It’s creative.
9. What is the new thing that Mark wants t draw n?
A. Magazines. B. Diaries. C. Maps.
10. Where d Mark’s inspiratins cme frm?
A. His dreams. B. His parents. C. His travels.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What psitin is the man interested in?
A. Windw cleaner. B. Shp assistant. C. Fitness cach.
12. What will be prvided fr the jb?
A. A cmpany car. B. A smartphne. C. A vide recrder.
13. What is needed t d the jb?
A. Cmputer skills.B. Physical strength.C. Wrk experience.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What des the man d?
A. He’s a receptinist. B. He’s a secretary. C. He’s a waiter.
15. Why des the man say srry t the wman?
A. He shwed her the wrng way.
B. There is n reservatin fr her.
C. Her name has been misspelled.
16. What is the man’s advice fr the wman?
A. Cme back later. B. Talk t the manager. C. Pstpne the meeting.
17. What will the wman prbably d next?
A. Tidy up a rm. B. Make a phne call. C. G fr a cffee.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Why d many birds live in the city?
A. They can btain fd easily.
B. They enjy human cmpany.
C. They lst their natural habitat.
19. What des Christina find surprising?
A. The birds are facing serius dangers.
B. Different kinds f birds live tgether.
C. Sme birds are attracted t the ples.
20. What is Christina’s suggestin cncerning the birds?
A. Drive them away. B. Feed them regularly. C. D research n them.
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
A
Warm weather gets thusands f peple t gather utdrs and celebrate fr varius events. Here are a few fun festivals that yu shuld travel t see this summer.
Naadam(Ulaanbaatar, Mnglia)
Naadam, als knwn as “the three games f men”, is the biggest traditinal festival held in Ulaanbaatar, the Mnglian capital. Each July, men cmpete in Mnglian wrestling, hrse racing and archery (射箭). Tday, wmen als take part in the archery and girls in the hrse racing.
Elvis Week(Memphis)
If mving yur bdy t Blue Suede Shes this summer sunds gd t yu, then head t Memphis fr Elvis Week, usually held in August. Mvies, special perfrmances and the Ultimate Elvis Tribute Artist Cntest are just a few activities t keep fans busy. The week f events is held t mark the anniversary (周年纪念日) f the death f Elvis Presley, the “King f Rck and Rll”.
Glastnbury Festival(Smerset, England)
Arund 175, 000 peple gather n a dairy farm in Smerset, England every year fr the Glastnbury Festival. Famus bands and singers appear at the5-day music celebratin. The ticket fr the festival was £1 when the festival started in 1970, but tday, full-weekend general tickets g fr abut£ 248.
Wrld Bdypainting Festival(Klagenfurt, Austria)
During the annual Wrld Bdypainting Festival in Austria, artists frm as many as50 cuntries cmpete using a variety f techniques, including brushes, spnges and airbrushes. Alex Barendregt rganized the first festival in 1998, when he was tasked with rganizing a new summer event.
21. Where can we watch exciting cmpetitins when attending the festival?
A. MemphisB. Austria.C. Mnglia.D. England.
22. Which f the fllwing festivals is in memry f a musician?
A. Elvis Week.B. Naadam.
C. Glastnbury Festival.D. Wrld Bdypainting Festival.
23. What can we learn abut the Glastnbury Festival?
A. Its setting is the dwntwn area.B. It attracts dancers t perfrm there.
C. It is held t celebrate the farm’s harvest.D. Its ticket price has greatly increased.
B
Jhn Kh is ne wh finds jy in learning.
He graduated with a diplma (毕业文凭) in accunting in his yuth, but after a decade in the industry, he decided t make a change. He tk an undergraduate curse in scial wrk at the age f 33. He graduated in 2010 and went n t d a Master’s degree in scial wrk in 2014.
His mst recent educatinal attempt, which he tk n last year, is a Master’s degree in gerntlgy.
Gerntlgy is the scientific study f ld age, the prcess f aging, and the particular prblems f ld peple. As the ppulatin in the United States cntinues t age, earning a degree in gerntlgy culd be a gd investment in ne’s future. “It became mre in demand in 2017,” he described. “I’d always been interested in it, but what mtivated me t take n the Master’s prgram was when my wife started studying again. Watching her enjy her studies gave me the desire t g back t studies t.” As an adult learner, Jhn said, “When I started t study scial wrk, I really enjyed it because I already had wrk experience, plus I had been serving in the Dialect Service lking after the elderly. Whatever I was taught in schl, I applied it t my wrk; whatever I learned at wrk, I related back t my studies. Wrk experience really benefits the learning.” Jhn als nticed that his grades were a lt better when he was ding his Master’s degree, cmpared t his undergraduate studies.
As a passinate lifelng learner, Jhn Kh believes cmmunicatin with family members is anther imprtant thing. “Supprt is very imprtant,” said Jhn. “I tld my daughter that Papa was studying and that n certain days I wuld have t fcus n my tasks. It’s actually a gd example fr the next generatin — that’s why my daughter likes t read t!”
24. What did finally encurage Jhn t study gerntlgy?
A. His wrk experience f scial wrk.B. His wife’s taking pleasure in her studies.
C. The demand t supprt his large family.D. The great future f gerntlgy research.
25. What did Jhn think f his studies as an adult learner?
A. Difficult.B. Stressful.C. Enjyable.D. Special.
26. Why des Jhn’s daughter enjy reading?
A. It is influenced by her father.B. She is required by her teacher.
C. It is her duty t read every day.D. She gets rewards frm her father.
27Which might be the mst suitable title fr the text?
A. What Is Gerntlgy?B. A Stry f Lifelng Learning
C. The Aging Prblem in the USD. Benefits f Lifelng Learning
C
The idea that red means stp and green means g affects mre than just traffic light clrs in ur lives. We have been taught frm a yung age that red means danger, while green means safety.
But why were thse particular clrs chsen fr traffic lights? Befre there were traffic lights fr cars, there were traffic signals fr trains. At first, railrad cmpanies used red t mean stp, white t mean g and green t mean cautin. But train cnductrs ran int a prblem with the clr white meaning g — bright white culd easily be mistaken fr stars at night. Railway cmpanies eventually mved t the clr green fr g. It’s been that way ever since.
Red is the clr with the lngest wavelength (波长). That means that as it travels thrugh the air, it gets diffused (分散) less than ther clrs, s it can be seen frm a greater distance. Fr a real-wrld example, think abut hw the light turns red as the sun sets. Even thugh the human eye is mst sensitive t a yellwish-green highlighter clr, it can see red frm further away. But this culd happen by chance. It’s nt clear whether that was chsen based n wavelength, cntrast against green nature r natural cnnectin f red with things like bld. It culd be a mix f all three!
Yellw has a shrter wavelength than red but a lnger wavelength than green. This means that red is nticeable the furthest away, yellw in the middle and green the least distance away — a helpful advanced warning fr needing t slw r stp.
Hwever, believe it r nt, yellw was nce used t mean stp. Back in the 1900s, sme stp signs were yellw because it was t hard t see a red sign in a prly lit area. Eventually, highly reflective (反光的) materials were develped, and red stp signs were brn. Since yellw can be seen well at all times f the day, schl areas, sme traffic signs and schl buses cntinue t be painted the clr. Keep these safe driving tips in the back f yur mind whenever yu see a yellw light.
28. What was the prblem with white meaning g?
A. It culd nt be seen at night.B. It was a clr shwing danger.
C. It was nt ppular at that time.D. It culd mislead train cnductrs.
29. Why des the light turn red as the sun sets?
A. Human eyes are mst sensitive t red.
B. Red travels thrugh the air fastest.
C. The sun changes its clr as it sets.
D. Red has the lngest wavelength.
30. What can we learn abut yellw frm the text?
A. It was used in limited areas.
B. It had been used as a stp sign.
C. It is hard t see withut enugh light.
D. It requires highly reflective materials.
31. What is the authr’s purpse in writing the text?
A. T explain the chice f traffic light clrs.
B. T spread the knwledge f clrs.
C. T intrduce the inventin f traffic lights.
D. T increase peple’s traffic awareness.
D
In Denmark, bicycling is ne f the primary frms f transprtatin. In sunshine, rain and snw, yu will see cyclists n their way t wrk, t the grcery stre, r t scial events. The bike is a Dane’s best friend.
Danish cycling culture is as ld as the bicycle itself. Bikes were first intrduced t the cuntry in the 1880s, and during the 1920s and 1930s, the bicycle became a widespread symbl f equality and freedm. Peple f all scial classes began biking side by side — in the cities n their way t wrk and in the cuntryside n their days ff.
The increased ecnmy develpment f the late 1950s saw sme Danes replacing bikes with mtrcycles and autmbiles. Just like their clleagues arund the wrld, Danish urban planners believed the future belnged t cars, trucks, and ever-wider highways. In the early 1970s, hwever, the Mideast il crisis terminated that develpment. “Car Free Sundays” were intrduced in Cpenhagen, and mvements demanding Cpenhagen t becme car-free tk place. Over time, cncerns abut air pllutin, climate change, and the need fr peple t get enugh exercise have helped bicycles make a big cmeback. Denmark’s heavy taxes n petrl and autmbiles are a factr, t.
Tday, cycling is an inseparable part f Danish culture. Newcmers wh d nt knw hw t cycle are encuraged t learn as sn as they arrive. Danish children usually learn t bike befre they begin schl at the age f six — and ften much earlier. In schl, children learn abut traffic rules, rad safety, and the imprtance f wearing a helmet as well as gd cycling habits. Anther chice fr families with children is the carg bike — a srt f versized tricycle with a large wden bx n the frnt. It’s estimated that a quarter f all Cpenhagen families with tw r mre children wn ne f these carg bikes fr transprting kids, grceries, and ther necessities. Danish carg bikes have als wn design awards and becme a Danish exprt success.
Cmmuting by bike is the fastest, easiest and mst envirnmentally friendly way t get arund the cities f Denmark. And the numbers speak fr themselves: Residents wh cycle in Cpenhagen request 1.1 millin fewer sick days. Cyclists reduce CO2 emissins by 20,000 tnnes a year n average.
32. What led t the ppularity f bicycles in Denmark during the 1920s and 1930s?
A. The cnvenience f the bike.B. The develpment f the ecnmy.
C. The idea that the bike symblizes.D. The cnstructin f wide highways.
33. What des the underlined wrd “terminated” mean in the 3rd paragraph?
A. Imprved.B. Permitted.C. Ended.D. restarted.
34. What d we knw abut carg bikes frm the 4th paragraph?
A. They are wned by abut 25% families.
B. They are designed fr practical use.
C. They are the natinal symbl f Denmark.
D. They are unppular amng lcal residents.
35. Why des the authr mentin the data in the last paragraph?
A. T prve the effectiveness f cycling.
B. T cmpare cycling with driving.
C. T shw the ppularity f cycling.
D. T cnclude the financial benefits f cycling.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
Shuld We Create Mre Natinal Parks t Save Endangered Animals?
Dn’t yu find it wrrying that mre and mre species f animals are in real danger f becming extinct? ___36___ And I think the best way t d this is fr gvernments t create mre natinal parks.
___37___ If this envirnment is destryed — fr example, when farmers clear a frest fr new fields, r trees are cut dwn t make prfits — many animals are unable t survive, and mre species are likely t becme extinct.
In additin, natinal parks prtect animals frm the danger f being hunted. A majr reasn why many species are endangered is that these animals are killed by hunters. They hunt animals t make mney. ___38___
On the ther hand, sme peple fight against the creatin f natinal parks because they cnsider it is wrng t interfere with nature. They believe that wild animals are happier living in their natural envirnment. ___39___ They als pint ut that a few species are mre likely t prduce yung animals in the wild than in natinal parks.
All in all, these disadvantages are far less imprtant than the benefits f natinal parks. ___40___ As a matter f fact, they prtect animals frm their greatest enemies, that is, human beings.
A. T begin with, animals are imprtant t humans.
B. Sme hunters even hunt animals simply fr sprt.
C. I persnally believe that we must save these animals.
D. These parks allw animals t live in a safe envirnment.
E. Firstly, natinal parks prtect these animals’ natural envirnment.
F. They say thugh the animals may face danger, they enjy a free life.
G. There is a heated discussin abut whether t create mre natinal parks.
第三部分语言知识运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Life is full f uncertainties, and every activity we d carries sme level f ____41____ . Sme activities, like snwbarding (单板滑雪运动), ften have a higher pssibility f injury. Ian Steger ____42____ this firsthand when he had a serius snwbarding accident but he was s ____43____ that Francis Zuber passed by.
In March, Ian and a grup f friends went n a snwbarding trip in Washingtn State. During their ____44____ , things tk a dangerus turn. While mving thrugh the trees, Ian fell backward and crashed int ne, finding himself ___45____ in a deep hle f snw.
Ian explained the ____46____ , “When we entered the trees, they were s ____47____ tgether that we each had t find ur wn paths. Unluckily, the path I ____48____ led me straight int a big tree well.” Fearing the wrst, Ian thught he was facing his ____49____ mments. Hwever, Francis Zuber, a skier, happened t pass by.
Francis saw a flash f red in the crner f his eye. He ____50____ a snwbard sticking ut frm the snw, which was ____51____ cnsidering hw far they were frm any ppulated areas. Wrried, Francis called ut t Ian but didn’t receive any ____52____
Withut hesitatin (犹豫), Francis began t dig hard t save Ian frm the snwy trap. In the end, he ____53____ it. Feeling extremely ____54____ , Ian hugged Francis, telling him, “I’m s glad yu ____55____ my life tday.”
41. A. interest B. risk C. bredm D. success
42. A. discvered B. described C. mentined D. guessed
43. A. glrius B. nervus C. creative D. lucky
44. A. visit B. adventure C. training D. discussin
45. A. beaten B. hidden C. trapped D. tested
46. A. situatin B. methd C. applicatin D. invitatin
47. A. clse B. equal C. unique D. varius
48. A. advised B. cleared C. chse D. saw
49. A. quiet B. final C. effective D. histric
50. A. heard B. imagined C. prevented D. nticed
51. A. related B. legal C. unusual D. impssible
52. A. reprt B. warning C. prmise D. answer
53. A. made B. gt C. put D. prmted
54 A. injured B. thankful C. curius D. satisfied
55. A. regarded B. tuched C. spared D. saved
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
My first date with Chinese fd was nt a gd experience. I thught it did nt suit my taste. But after that, smething unexpected happened and it ____56____ (great) arused my interest in Chinese fd.
One day, my Chinese labmates tk me ____57____ a Chinese restaurant. Then he called the waiter fr ur rders. One by ne, dishes ____58____ (serve).
It was my first time ____59____(see) such a meal, with mre than 10 dishes n the table. As I am a slw eater, I was quite hesitant t try all ____60____ dishes. Besides, knwing frm my past experience f Chinese fd, I thught that I shuld nly pick what I culd eat. One f my labmates ____61____ (sit) next t me persuaded me t give each f the dishes a try. I tasted ____62____(they) ne by ne, little by little and ended up enjying all f them.
The experience with my labmates pened my heart t mre Chinese cuisine ____63____(adventure). As I visited city after city, I began my jurney f Chinese fd. I went t street fd, lcal and fancy restaurants ____64____ I was quite amazed by the diversity f fd in China.
One cannt deny that fd is a main surce f ur ____65_____ (happy) and it is indeed ur thirst fr survival. China wn my heart when it gt thrugh my stmach.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节应用文(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华，你校的英国朋友Chris想向你了解花萼山春游（spring uting）活动的安排，请写封邮件给他回信。内容包括：
1. 时间、地点；
2活动安排：爬山、野餐等；
3. 邀请他参加。
注意：1. 词数80左右；2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Chris,
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
第二节读后续写(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The science teacher, Mr. Mse, decided that the schl wuld have a paper airplane cntest (比赛). Each student wuld design a paper airplane. And then they wuld take turns thrwing their airplanes. The student whse airplane flew the farthest wuld win.
When Mr. Mse annunced the paper airplane cntest, all the students were very excited. Paul, wh was n the wrestling (摔跤) team, said t ther students. “I am the strngest. And I will be able t thrw my airplane the farthest.”
Hwever, anther student, Brian, was thinking hw he culd win. He did nt play any sprts and was nt very strng. But he lved airplanes and really wanted t win the cntest.
Brian knew what he had t d. He went t the stre and bught a big pile f paper. When he gt hme he tk the paper int the backyard. He tk a piece f paper and flded (折叠) an airplane. It didn’t g very far, s Brian tk anther piece and flded anther airplane and threw it. This airplane went a little farther. Brian kept flding different kinds f airplanes and thrwing them. Sme went very far and sme did nt. Finally, when Brian had used all the paper, he walked up t the airplane that had flwn the farthest and picked it up.
注意：1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The cntest day arrived in the end and all the students gathered n the playgrund.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Excitedly, Brian gt the prize frm Mr. Mse’s hand and all the students clapped their hands fr him.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
答案
第一部分听力(满分30分)
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C
11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. C
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
A
【答案】21. C 22. A 23. D
B
【答案】24. B 25. C 26. A 27. B
C
【答案】28. D 29. D 30. B 31. A
D
【答案】32. C 33. C 34. B 35. D
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
【答案】36. C 37. E 38. B 39. F 40. D
第三部分语言知识运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【答案】41. B 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. C 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. D 51. C 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. D
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
【答案】56. greatly 57. t 58. were served 59. t see 60. the 61. sitting 62. them
63. adventures 64. where and 65. happiness
第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节应用文(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华，你校的英国朋友Chris想向你了解花萼山春游（spring uting）活动的安排，请写封邮件给他回信。内容包括：
1. 时间、地点；
2. 活动安排：爬山、野餐等；
3. 邀请他参加。
注意：1. 词数80左右；2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Chris,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
【答案】
Dear Chris,
I am sincerely inviting yu t jin us t g fr a spring uting t Hua e Muntain this weekend. Aiming t enhance ur relatin and build up ur bdies, the trip invlves climbing muntains and a picnic. As is scheduled, the activity will take place at 8:00 am n Saturday at the gate f ur schl and we hpe all the students in ur class will take an active part in it. Climbing is an imprtant part f the trip. While pushing ur strength t the limit, we are als breathing fresh air and appreciating the grgeus scenery n the way.
Hpe yu wn’t miss the jyful activity. Yur attendance is greatly expected.
Yurs,
Li Hua
第二节读后续写(满分25分)
【答案】 The cntest day arrived in the end and all the students gathered n the playgrund. Finally, it was Brian’s turn. He held the plane that he had flded the day befre. It began t fly, farther and farther, until it landed 5 feet farther than Paul’s plane. The whle schl cheered and were very happy. Brian wn the cntest. Mr. Mse awarded him a great prize: a ty airplane.
Excitedly, Brian gt the prize frm Mr. Mse’s hand and all the students clapped their hands fr him. Brian wn the cntest because he had tried his best many times t slve the prblem n hw t make a plane fly farther. He made it by testing ut many different designs and cmpare the results. When he fund the best way t fly the farthest, he knew he succeeded.