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      2025-2026学年安徽省巢湖市八年级上学期期末英语试卷 (学生版)

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      这是一份2025-2026学年安徽省巢湖市八年级上学期期末英语试卷 (学生版),共9页。
      第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
      Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
      1. What did the girl buy fr her father?
      A. B. C.
      2. What des the by want t d?
      A.
      B.
      C.
      3. What des Sam want t be?
      A. An athlete.B. A lawyer.C. A pilt.
      4. When will they meet?
      A. At 7:00 am.B. At 8:00 am.C. At 9:00 am.
      5. What is Jhn gd at?
      A. Playing badmintn.
      B. Playing sccer.
      C. Playing basketball.
      Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
      听下面一段对话,回答问题。
      6. Wh did Bb g t the Children’s Hme with?
      A. His teacher.B. His friend.C. His brther.
      7. What did Bb d in the Children’s Hme?
      A. He washed the clthes.
      B. He tld stries.
      C. He played the guitar.
      听下面一段对话,回答问题。
      8. What was Peter’s reslutin last year?
      A. T study hard.
      B. T exercise every day.
      C. T learn a new language.
      9. What des the girl think f Peter’s new reslutin?
      A. Useful.B. Easy.C. Interesting.
      10. Hw is Peter ging t learn cking?
      A. By taking a lessn.
      B. By watching vides.
      C. By learning frm his dad.
      Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
      11. What d Englishmen like t eat every day?
      A. Carrts.B. Tmates.C. Ptates.
      12. What d they usually have fr breakfast?
      A. Bread.B. Cakes.C. Hamburgers.
      13. What kind f tea d they drink mstly?
      A. Green tea.B. Lemn tea.C. Black tea.
      14. What d they like t have fr their main meal?
      A. Eggs and chicken.B. Meat r fish with ptates.C. Bread and milk.
      15. What d they have after the main meal?
      A. Smething sweet.B. Smething cld.C. Smething ht.
      Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
      第二部分 英语知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
      V.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
      从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
      21. After the strm, the park was a ________ with fallen leaves and branches everywhere.
      A. sightB. factC. tlD. mess
      22. —Yu can ________ this bk frm the library, but yu must give it back n time.
      —OK. I see.
      A. brrwB. lendC. giveD. take
      23. — It’s ________ t talk ludly in the library.
      — Yu’re right. We shuld keep quiet.
      A. pleasantB. usefulC. impliteD. pssible
      24. There is ________ interesting in tday’s newspaper. Yu dn’t need t read it.
      A. smethingB. nthing
      C. anythingD. everything
      25. —I met ur math teacher ________ accident in the supermarket yesterday.
      —That’s such a nice surprise!
      A. byB. nC. atD. in
      26. —What shuld I d if I have a study prblem?
      —________ yu have a prblem, yu can ask yur teacher fr help.
      A. WheneverB. Wherever
      C. WheverD. Whatever
      27. —The firemen arrived quickly and tried t ________ the big fire.
      —That’s great.
      A. put awayB. meet upC. put utD. take ut
      28. —I’m nt sure if I can pass the English test.
      —Be cnfident! Yu can pass it ________ yu study hard every day.
      A. as sn asB. as well as
      C. as far asD. as lng as
      29. If yu are friendly t peple in the future, yu ________ a lt mre back.
      A. getB. gt
      C. will getD. are getting
      30. —Thank yu fr helping me with my English.
      —________.
      A. Feel freeB. My pleasure
      C. All rightD. That’s right
      Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
      阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳选项。
      A
      Many peple think plants are quiet. They can’t talk. They can’t walk. And they can’t think like us humans. ____31____, they are wrng. A new TV shw ____32____ us a new lk at plants. It shws the lives f plants and hw plants ____33____.
      Plants cmpete (竞争) against each ther t live. In the rainfrests, different kinds f plants race fr ____34____. Only 2% f the sunlight gets t the frest flr. Sme plants spread (伸展) their big ____35____ t reach light. Sme trees may give ff smething t prtect ____36____.
      Plants als help each ther. Water is very imprtant in deserts (沙漠). If a tree finds water in deserts, it will ____37____ it with ther plants. If a tmat plant gets a leaf disease (疾病), it can tell ther plants arund it t be careful because it wants the ther plants t be ____38____.
      The TV shw nt nly makes us amazed abut the plant wrld but als tells us that plants are ____39____. Plants meet the needs f all life. They give fd and ____40____ t animals and humans. It’s time t lk after wild plants.
      31. A. EspeciallyB. UsuallyC. FinallyD. Actually
      32. A. describesB. givesC. sparesD. cllects
      33. A. breatheB. sendC. riseD. wrk
      34. A. gdnessB. waterC. sunlightD. rain
      35. A. leavesB. flwersC. legsD. arms
      36. A. himselfB. itself
      C. urselvesD. themselves
      37. A. cmpareB. argueC. shareD. cnnect
      38. A. healthyB. shrtC. weakD. ready
      39. A. rganizedB. tinyC. imprtantD. serius
      40. A. treasureB. airC. surpriseD. mney
      B
      Hell! I’m Jenny, and nw I’m studying in a middle schl. My friends and I all have big ____41____. Emma is gd at ____42____ and hpes t becme an actress ne day. David plays basketball well, s he plans t be a(n) ____43____. As fr me, I dream f being a teacher.
      There are three ____44____ fr my dream. First, I have a deep lve fr literature. I enjy reading because it ____45____ me t an amazing wrld, and I like writing because it lets me tell my wn stries. Secnd, I believe ____46____ is meaningful. An excellent teacher is like a bridge—she/he can ____47____ guide students twards a bright future. Third, my dream ____48____ my sister. She can’t hear, s I want t teach in a special educatin schl. I hpe t help kids like her becme ____49____ and believe in themselves, s they can als make their dreams cme true.
      T ____50____ my dream, I’m ging t study hard and learn all I can learn frm my teachers.
      41. A. prizesB. dreamsC. changesD. mistakes
      42. A. drawingB. swimmingC. designingD. acting
      43. A. athleteB. painterC. singerD. engineer
      44. A. galsB. reasnsC. testsD. plans
      45. A. separatesB. stres
      C. intrducesD. disappints
      46. A. plantingB. runningC. teachingD. packing
      47. A. suddenlyB. wiselyC. hardlyD. freshly
      48. A. fcuses nB. plays a rle in
      C. cmpares withD. has t d with
      49. A. cnfidentB. heavyC. srryD. strange
      50. A. guessB. buildC. achieveD. imagine
      Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      根据对话内容,从选项中,选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个多余选项。
      A: D yu think peple will have rbts in their hmes in the future?
      B: Yes. I think every hme will have a rbt.
      A:_____51_____
      B: They will lk like humans.
      A: _____52_____
      B: They can help a lt in ur life like ding husewrk and ging shpping.
      A: _____53_____ It lks very funny. It can ck all kinds f fd, such as bread and pizza.
      B: Sunds great! _____54_____
      A: The day will cme sn. Sme scientists are wrking hard fr it.
      B: I hpe s. By the way, there will be a rbt shw tmrrw. _____55_____
      A: Of curse. Let’s g tgether.
      A. I saw a rbt n TV.
      B. Wuld yu like t g with me?
      C. What will rbts be like in the future?
      D. Hw des the rbt ck fd?
      E. What can they d in the future?
      F. I hpe that ne day I can have such a rbt at hme.
      G. D yu think there will be mre rbts in the future?
      第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
      Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
      第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳选项。
      A
      D yu want t knw what ur life will be like in the future? Let’s have a lk. Yu may get a surprise.
      Yu wn’t need t g t the kitchen when yu are hungry. Yu will give rders t the kitchen rbt. The rbt will ck the fd fr yu in a few minutes. Then it will bring it t yu.
      In the kitchen, yu will find a special fd machine. The fd machine will tell yu what yur bdy needs. It will help yu eat healthily. The fd machine will be cnnected with the kitchen rbt. The rbt can get messages frm the fd machine.
      After having a meal, yu can g t yur hme ffice. Yu will wrk at hme and yu wn’t need t g ut t wrk any mre.
      Yu will have a special infrmatin screen. Yu can get any infrmatin n the screen. When yu receive a message frm a friend in America, yur infrmatin screen will be turned n autmatically (自动地). Yur friend’s face will appear n the screen. Then yu can talk t yur friend easily.
      56. Hw des the writer start the passage?
      A. By telling a stry.B. By giving an example.
      C. By using an ld saying.D. By asking a questin.
      57. Accrding t the passage, ________ will tell yu what yur bdy needs.
      A. the fd machineB. the kitchen rbt
      C. the cmputerD. the infrmatin screen
      58. What’s the best title fr the passage?
      A. A kitchen rbtB. Our life in the future
      C. A fd machineD. A special infrmatin screen
      B
      59. Which skill will kids learn in Week 4?
      A. Packing up things.B. Cleaning the flr.
      C. Washing clthes.D. Making pancakes.
      60. If yur classmate Peter jins the club, hw much des he need t pay n September 20?
      A. $40.B. $45.C. $50.D. $55.
      61. Where can we find the reading?
      A. In a travel guidebk.B. In a strybk.
      C. On a schl nticebard.D. On a cinema pster.
      C
      Linda lived in a twn happily with her family. It was s ht in summer. She ften slept in a small huse with her grandmther. Grandmther always sat by the bed, sang Linda t sleep and tld her sme stries.
      One day, Dad tld her that they wuld mve t New Yrk because he had gt a jb there. It was great news, but Linda was a little sad because she didn’t want t leave her grandmther. When the plane landed, Linda’s life was filled with new things. Linda was surprised that many things were different, and she tried her best t get used t the life there. Oh, it was much clder here than in her hmetwn! She dreamed abut the warm nights sitting next t her grandmther under the stars. Linda wrte t her grandmther. “I lve and miss yu, Grandmther, especially at bedtime.”
      Weeks passed. Linda gt a parcel (包裹) frm her grandmther. She pened it at nce. Inside she fund a clrful blanket (毛毯) and a nte. It said, “My Linda, I made this fr yu. The blanket carries the warmth f me. It will always keep yu warm. Lve, Grandma.” Frm that day n, nights seemed warmer fr Linda…
      62. Why did Linda feel sad abut mving t New Yrk?
      A. Because she was afraid f new things.
      B. Because she didn’t want t leave her grandma.
      C. Because she wuld live a hard life there,
      D. Because she was wrried abut the weather.
      63. Hw did Linda’s feelings change accrding t the passage?
      A. Happy → sad →nervus → thankful
      B. Excited → sad → surprised →nervus
      C. Excited → wrried → nervus → thankful
      D. Happy → sad → surprised → thankful
      64. What can we infer (推理) frm the stry abut Linda and her grandmther?
      A. The blanket helped Linda feel her grandmther’s lve.
      B. Linda’s grandmther missed her mre than Linda missed her.
      C. Linda’s grandmther was gd at making clrful blankets.
      D. Linda wuld g back t her hmetwn after getting the blanket.
      D
      When there is smething happy happening in ur lives, we ften invite ur friends and family members t celebrate tgether. We ften chse t write invitatins (邀请) n paper r send invitatins by email. Here are sme key pints abut hw t write apprpriate (得体的) invitatins.
      Be plite. This is the mst imprtant thing when yu write an invitatin letter. Make sure yu spell the guests’ names crrectly. Use plite wrds in yur letter as yu want the guests t cme.
      Give necessary (必要的) details. Yur letter shuld have all the necessary details abut the event, like the place and the date. These are really imprtant fr the guests t make preparatins.
      ▲ When yu plan t invite peple t an event, whether it’s a party, a visit t yur huse, r a meeting, it’s necessary t tell them early. Yu shuld send ut the invitatin letters at least a week in advance (提前). Give yur guests enugh time t think abut and make decisins.
      Clse plitely. Say “Thank yu!” t yur guests and let them knw that yu really lk frward t their cming. Yu can say “I really hpe yu can cme.” r “I’m lking frward t seeing yu sn.”
      65. What is the mst imprtant thing when yu write an invitatin letter?
      A. Writing the place.B. Shwing the date.
      C. Being plite.D. Saying “Thank yu!”
      66. Why shuld we give detailed infrmatin in the invitatin?
      A. T make sure the guests will arrive n time.
      B. T shw that we really welcme the guests.
      C. T shw the guests what they can eat and drink.
      D. T help the guests t make preparatins.
      67. Which f the fllwing can we put in ▲ ?
      A. Send invitatins early.B. Celebrate happily.
      C. Keep details in mind.D. Write dwn the key pints.
      68. What is the structure (结构) f the text?
      A. B.
      C. D.
      E
      Jasn lives in a village in Nepal. There are always many freign turists there. Visitrs always stp at his mum and dad’s teahuse, s his parents need his help t get everything ready every day!
      One day, Jasn nticed a by in the visitr grup. Jasn talked with him, and he fund that they had many cmmn hbbies, like playing ftball and cllecting stamps (邮票). Jasn shwed the by arund the village. Then the by left fr the Qmlangma Base Camp in Nepal.
      The rest f the day was busy! Later, the weather turned bad. Jasn’s father came in, lking wrried. “A strm is cming dwn the muntain. Thse visitrs n the trail (路线) t the muntain might get lst!”
      Jasn felt afraid when he heard this because things culd be even wrse if smene gt lst in this weather!
      His father called the men in the village tgether t g t the muntain and make sure the visitrs n the trail were all right. Jasn stuck t cming alng because he wanted t make sure his new friend wuld be OK.
      After hiking up the trail fr an hur r mre, Jasn finally fund the by. It seemed that he fell and hurt his leg! The yung turist was glad t see Jasn. He smiled at Jasn and made a gesture (手势) as if t thank him. They bth laughed happily!
      69. What hbbies did the by and Jasn have in cmmn?
      A. Drinking tea and cllecting stamps.
      B. Playing ftball and cllecting stamps.
      C. Drinking tea and playing ftball.
      D. Playing ftball and climbing muntains.
      70. Which f the fllwing wrds can best describe Jasn?
      A. Hnest.B. Quiet.
      C. Helpful.D. Handsme.
      71. Why des the writer write the text?
      A. T shw help and kindness amng peple.
      B. T tell ways t stay safe in the muntains.
      C. T intrduce a village in Nepal.
      D. T describe a dangerus muntain rad.
      72. What d yu think mst prbably happened next?
      A. The by helped Jasn t be a better persn.
      B. Jasn and the by became gd friends.
      C. The by wuld wrk in the teahuse.
      D. The by invited Jasn t play basketball.
      第二节 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
      F
      Once there was a by wh lved drawing pictures. When peple asked him what he was ging t d in the future, he said he wanted t be a sculptr (雕刻家), just like his father. The by started t learn t make statues (雕像) frm his father when he was nly five years ld.
      Later, the by grew int a yung man. Every time he finished a statue, his father wuld give him sme advice. At first, he listened t his father’s wrds. Later, his statues culd sell at higher prices than his father’s. “I’m ding great nw. I dn’t need yur advice,” the yung man said t his father.
      A few mnths later, he fund that fewer peple bught his statues. He asked his father why. “Well, yu didn’t listen anymre,” the father said. “It is imprtant t take advice frm thers.”
      The yung man listened t thse wrds and started t take his father’s advice again. At last, he became a famus sculptr all ver the wrld.
      73. When did the by start t learn t make statues?(不超过10个词)
      _______________________________________________________________________________
      74. What wuld the father d after his sn finished a statue at first?(不超过10个词)
      _______________________________________________________________________________
      75. What can we learn frm the stry?(不超过10个词)
      _______________________________________________________________________________
      第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
      Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
      76. Spring is cming, and there are many s________ (嫩芽) n the trees.
      77. Yu can have a d________ (直接的) vide call t discuss the grup prject.
      78. The nearest bank is just tw b________ (街区) away frm my schl.
      79. We shuld keep p________ (公共的) places clean, like parks and libraries.
      80. My friend Harry asked me a questin, and I r________ (回答) quickly.
      X.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
      81. 良好的家庭关系对青少年的成长很重要。但现实生活中,不少孩子和父母之间缺乏沟通和交流。我们该如何和父母友好相处呢?请你以“Hw t get n with ur parents”为题,写一篇英语短文。
      要求:1.包含内容要点,可适当发挥;
      2.语言流畅,条理清晰,书写工整;
      3.词数80左右,开头已给出,不计入总词数。
      Hw t get n with ur parents
      Gd family relatinships are very imprtant fr teenagers’ grwth. As teenagers, we shuld get n well with ur parents. Here are sme ways.
      ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Abut Linda
      ____16____
      She wants t be a musician.
      Plans
      She is ging t jin the ____17____ music club.
      She will play the pian fr ____18____ hurs every weekend.
      She is ging t ____19____ in different activities.
      Result
      She’ll ____20____ herself and becme better at playing the pian.
      Kids’ Life Skill Club
      D yu want t take care f yurself and make yur hme a better place?
      Jin the Kids’ Life Skill Club! Learn and grw thrugh husewrk!
      Wh can jin
      Kids aged 9—15
      When
      3:00—5:00 pm
      Every Friday in Octber
      Where
      Schl Activity Rm 5
      Price
      $50 each kid (10% ff befre September 30)
      We will teach...
      Week 1: Sweep the flr
      Week 2: Wash sme clthes
      Week 3: Fld clthes and make the bed
      Week 4: Ck meals
      We will prepare everything fr yu. Just bring yur smile!
      内容要点
      1
      主动和父母交流,比如……;
      2
      每周至少跟父母一起做一件事,比如做饭等;
      3
      遇事与父母讨论,他们会帮助你更好地解决问题。

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