广东省佛山市南海区狮山镇2025_2026学年七年级上学期期中英语试卷（文字版，含答案）

这是一份广东省佛山市南海区狮山镇2025_2026学年七年级上学期期中英语试卷（文字版，含答案），共9页。试卷主要包含了考生必须保持答题卡的整洁等内容，欢迎下载使用。
说 明：本试卷共7页，满分120分；考试用时90分钟。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔在“考场号”和“座位号”栏相应位置填涂自己的考场号和座位号。
2.作选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。
3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听说应用（满分30分）【听说考试替代】
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Hell, bys and girls! I'm a new student and my English name is Jane. There 31 many subjects this term. 32 are maths, Chinese, English, histry, cmputer, music, art, PE and s n. My favrite subjects are histry, music and art. I like my histry teacher very much 33 he can tell many Chinese ld stries. In the music lessn, I can sing and play 34 pian. I am ging t take part 35 the art festival in ur schl next week. Art is very interesting. Our art teacher is very nice. I smetimes g t my 36 farm t draw animals. I als enjy drawing fruit and many fun things n the farm. I decide 37 t an art schl in the future. PE is fun and my sprts star is Wang Weiying. She 38 wrking with Quan Hngchan in many matches, like the 15th Natinal Games (全运会) in Guangzhu this year. They ften practice diving tgether and help each ther. They d very 39 tgether and win the gld medal (金牌).
My new schl life is s 40 and I think it's a magic start fr me! What abut yurs?
31
A. be B. is C. are
32.A. They B. Them C. Their
33.A. s B. because C. but
34.A. the B. a C. an
35.A. n B. at C. in
36.A. uncle B. uncle's C. uncles
37.A. g B. ging C. t g
38.A. enjy B. enjys C. enjying
39.A. well B. better C. best
40.A. nicest B. nicer C. nice
三、完形填空（本大题共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，共 10 分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
On the first day f junir high schl, Ava is wrried. She is afraid f learning 41 things and meet new classmates. Her mther gives her a piece f advice. She 42 Ava t take her favurite ty t schl. Ava lves the idea and 43 her rm t take the ty Teddy.
When she gets t the schl, she walks int the classrm, she feels 44 . Then she thinks f Teddy. She takes it ut and hugs it. That can make her feel better. After class, Ava sees a by called Lucas play with a ty dg in the 45 . She walks t Lucas’ desk and they talk abut the ty. After that, they ften play tgether and sn they becme 46 friends.
Many ther classmates als have interest in tys. They start the Ty Club at schl. Many children jin the club because f the same 47 . They share their tys and play different games tgether. Ava and Lucas als want t 48 ther kids. They knw the kids in hspital are lnely, s they 49 t give tys t the kids in hspital. They hpe the tys can make them feel happy. They think it is 50 .
With the Ty Club, Ava has a warm and happy jurney with fun and kind friends.
41.A. usefulB. differentC. easyD. interesting
42.A. fllwsB. likesC. asksD. drives
43.A. rushes intB. turns intC. takes intD. lks int
44.A. nervusB. excitedC. happyD. plite
45.A. playgrundB. classrmC. science labD. dining hall
46.A. gdB. handsmeC. seriusD. tuching
47.A. hbbyB. classC. prjectD. task
48.A. fllwB. prtectC. hugD. help
49.A. refuseB. needC. planD. remember
50.A. carefulB. meaningfulC. traditinalD. natural
四、阅读理解（本大题共 15 小题，每小题 2 分，共 30 分）
请阅读 A、B 两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
Chsing the right schl is very imprtant fr a student's grwth. Talking face-t-face is a gd way t help. That's why we are hlding this Open Huse.
Time: 2:30 p.m. — 4:30 p.m. Saturday (December 20)
Fr whm: Parents and children aged 12 t 16 (Grades 7 t 9)
Things t d:
Learn abut ur lessns and sme interesting prjects. Yu can watch sme Chinese traditinal art wrks in the schl hall.
Ask ur teachers questins.Yu can talk with ur teachers and learn abut the schl rules.
Experience schl life. Yu can taste the fd in the schl dining hall and jin in many activities, like playing chess and drawing pictures.
G arund the schl. Yu can use the smart blackbards in the classrms.
Rules:
T make sure everyne has a safe and gd time n that day, yu need t fllw the rules:
Cme with parents and stay with them during the visit.
D nt run r shut in the schl buildings.
Take gd care f all the schl things.
Click here t sign up (报名)!
51. When will Sunshine Schl hld the activity?
A. On Saturday mrning.B. On Saturday afternn.C. On Sunday mrning.D. On Sunday afternn.
52. Wh can take part in the activity?
A. David in Grade 6 and his mther.
B. 17 - year - ld Mia and her father.
C. Eric in Grade 9 and his parents.
D. 12 - year - ld Nina and her sister.
53 What can peple d during the Open Huse?
A. Enjy art wrks in the dining hall.
B. Ask questins abut schl rules.
C. Teach ther students t play chess.
D. Use the traditinal blackbards.
54. Why d peple need t fllw the rules?
A. T prtect the schl things.B. T knw the schl better.
C. T make friends with teachers.D. T keep safe and have fun.
55. Where is the passage frm?
A. On the Internet.B. In a strybk.C. In a magazine.D. On a newspaper.
B
The Chinese cmpany Aridge (小鹏汇天) made a flying car, Land Aircraft Carrier. The flying - car has tw parts, the car and the flying part. It is the wrld's first tw - part flying car. If yu buy a flying car, yu will get a car and a flying part like a plane. The flying part is at the back. The car can be away frm the flying part in 5 minutes. The car is 5.5 meters lng. It takes nly 18 minutes t charge frm 30% t 80%.
▲ The flying part has six small rtrs (旋翼) t help it fly. They can be flded up. The flying part can fly n its wn r with a real driver. When it flies by itself, yu can plan where it ges. Yu can let it take ff r cme dwn with just ne buttn (按钮). When yu cntrl it, yu can use ne hand t d everything. The flying part can fly fr 30 minutes and up t 1,000 meters high.
In September, the flying car culd fly in the United Arab Emirates. On Octber 12, a flying car flew up ver Dubai. Mre and mre areas and cuntries welcme the flying cars. The price f the flying car is under 2 millin yuan. Nw, Aridge is ging t make mre than 7,000 flying cars fr cuntries frm arund the wrld.
56 Hw lng des it take the flying part t get away frm the car?
A. 18 minutes.B. 15 minutes.C. 5 minutes.D. 8 minutes.
57. What can we learn frm the passage?
A. The flying part is in the frnt f the car.
B. Eight small rtrs help the flying part t fly.
C. The flying car csts mre than 2 millin yuan.
D. The Chinese cmpany Aridge made the flying car.
58. Which sentence can be put in the blank ▲ in the passage?
A. It is hard t plan.B. It is cheap t buy.
C. It is easy t fly.D. It is real t drive.
59. What des the underlined wrd "cntrl" mean in the passage?
A. Watch.B. Drive.C. Leave.D. Take.
60. What is the best title f the passage?
A. China's flying carsB. Cheap flying carsC. Fast flying carsD. Different flying cars
C
配对阅读 左栏是五个不同的学生，右栏是七个不同的俱乐部，请为他们每个人选择合适的俱乐部。并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
61. Amy plays the pian very well. She lks fr a club t play music with thers.
62. Ben wants t get better at spken English. He hpes t find a club t practice speaking English.
63. Cathy lves animals. She hpes t jin a club t care fr animals.
64. David lves t see plants grw frm seeds. He wants t jin a club t learn abut planting flwers and vegetables.
65. Emma lves talking abut the stries and wishes t jin a club t share her ideas n bks.
A. Students can read ne bk every week and have a talk abut the stry and their feelings abut the bk.
B. This club is fr students wh play instruments. They practice tgether and play music at the art festival.
C. This club takes care f the garden at schl. Students learn hw t grw plants frm seeds, water flwers and vegetables.
D. This club is fr students wh lve English. Students can write stries in English and get better at writing.
E. This club is t help animals. They hld activities t take care f animals and raise (筹集) mney fr pet fd.
F. This club is t imprve students' ral English. They can practise speaking English after schl.
G. This club is t explre the wrld f science. Students d fun experiments and learn abut science.
五、词汇基础
(一)看音标拼写单词(本大题共4小题，每小题0.5分，共2分)
66. Betty is sick, s she is ______ /'æbsənt/ frm class tday.
67. My parent will nt ______ /fə'get/ my birthday and make me happy every year.
68. At the party, ______ /'evri,bɒdi/ wants t play games.
69. Dn't g ______ /ə'krɒs/ the rad when the traffic light is red.
(二)词汇运用(本大题共3小题，每小题1分，共3分)
70. Mr Green tells us nt t be afraid t make ______ (错误).
71. She always ______ (背) her little brther n her back when he feels tired.
72. Miss Li is ______ (严厉的) with us, but she is kind t us.
六、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
请从方框内选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使文章完整连贯。注意每空一词，每词仅用一次，有两词为多余项。请将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
Frm Nvember in 2025, primary and junir high schl students get a new kind f break (短假). Students can have have a five - day hliday in spring 73 autumn. The first autumn break is frm Nvember 12 t 14. Students can take a rest frm their 74 study. Students can g ut f classrms and get clser 75 nature.
The activity "Picking Up Autumn" in China brings 76 t peple's lives in this beautiful seasn. Peple get leaves frm parks. They use them t make pretty wrks. Why d peple like it? First, it 77 peple relax and feel happy. Walking in the park in cl weather is very enjyable. Secnd, making smething with their wn hands is 78 exciting. Third, peple can share 79 wrks n the Internet. They get many "likes" frm thers. It's als a nice way t make new 80 . That makes them prud and happy. This activity 81 gd fr all peple. They can 82 a lt f fun in it. "Picking Up Autumn" is a wnderful activity. Peple may find a new hbby with lvely autumn memries!
七、读写综合（本大题分为 A、B 两部分，共 20 分）
A． 回答问题（本题共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
请阅读下面这篇文章，根据所提供的信息，回答 5 个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整，并把答案写在答题卡指定的位置。
The film Put Dwn the Mbile Phne is n recently. The main character is a by named Xia Ming. He lves playing with his phne very much. He plays games, watches vides, and chats with friends every day. His parents are als always busy with their wn phnes. They dn't talk t each ther much. One day, smething bad happens (发生) because they are all lking at their phnes.
Then, the family starts t have a "n phne" day. At first, it is very difficult and bring fr them. But slwly, they d many fun things tgether. They play bard games, ck dinner, and take a walk in the park. They talk, laugh, and feel happy again. Xia Ming thinks that the real wrld is mre wnderful than the screen.
This mvie teaches us an imprtant lessn. The phne is useful, but it is nt the nly thing in ur life. It's imprtant t spend mre time with ur family and friends in the real wrld. I think everyne shuld watch this mvie. It will make us think abut ur wn hbbies. Let's put dwn ur phnes and enjy the life arund us.
83. Hw ften des Xia Ming play games and watch vides?
_______________________________________________________________
84. Why des smething bad happen t Xia Ming's family?
_______________________________________________________________
85. Where d the family take a walk?
_______________________________________________________________
86. What is mre wnderful t Xia Ming?
_______________________________________________________________
87. Wh shuld we spend mre time with?
_______________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达（本题 15 分）
请根据要求完成短文写作，并将作文写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
漫漫人生路，只要有家人的陪伴，不管走到哪里，都是一场温暖的旅程。学校即将举办以 “Family” 为题的英语演讲比赛，请选择其中一位或者两位家人，根据以下思维导图的提示，写一篇英文演讲稿。
注意：
（1）可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息。
（2）不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现真实校名和考生的真实姓名。
（3）语句连贯，词数 70 左右。作文开头已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄在答题卡上。
Dear teachers and classmates,
Family are the mst imprtant peple in ur lives. Tday I want t share smething abut mine.
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Thanks fr listening.
试卷答案
二、语法选择
31. C 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. C 36. B 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. C
三、完形填空
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. A 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. B
四、阅读理解
51. B 52. C 53. B 54. D 55. A 56. C 57. D 58. C 59. B 60. A 61. B 62. F 63. E 64. C
65. A
五、词汇基础
（一）看音标拼写单词
66. absent 67. frget 68. everybdy 69. acrss
（二）词汇运用
70. mistakes 71. carries 72. strict
六、短文填空
73. and 74. busy 75. t 76. jy 77. helps 78. very 79. their 80. friends 81. is
82. have
七、读写综合
A. 回答问题
83. Every day.(1分)
84. Because they are all lking at their phnes.(1分)
85. In the park.(1分)
86. The real wrld.(1分)
87. Our family and friends.(1分)
B. 书面表达（略，本题需根据具体内容评分，以下为示例框架，实际内容需学生根
据自身情况撰写）
Dear teachers and classmates,
Family are the mst imprtant peple in ur lives. Tday I want t share
smething abut mine. My parents prepared schl supplies like new bks
and pens fr me t start junir high. They als encuraged me with wrds,
saying I culd d well. We all like reading. We ften read bks tgether
at hme. Smetimes we g t the library. And we have family mvie nights.
I'm s thankful t them. They care fr me and make my life full f lve.
Thanks fr listening.（内容需根据思维导图拓展，语句连贯，词数70左右，可
根据实际情况调整，满足题目要求得15分，部分满足按要点和语言表达酌情扣分）