浙江省“山海联盟”2025年初中学业水平考试模拟卷(三)英语试卷（学生版）

这是一份浙江省“山海联盟”2025年初中学业水平考试模拟卷(三)英语试卷（学生版），共13页。
第一节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What will the weather be like in the afternn?
A.Sunny.B.Cludy.C.Rainy.
2.When did Wang Hui get t schl?
A.At 7:10 am.B.At 7:20 am.C.At 7:30 am.
3.Hw ften des David play basketball?
A.Every day.B.Once a week.C.Twice a week.
4.Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A.In a stre.B.In a library.C.In a museum.
5.What are the tw speakers mainly talking abut?
A.Cmfrtable life.B.Future life.C.Lnger life.
第二节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
6.Where might Jack be nw?
A.At the starting line.B.At a hspital.C.At the finishing line.
7.What’s the prbable relatinship between the tw speakers?
A.Friends.B.Runner and vlunteer.C.Brther and sister.
听下面一段较长对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。
8.What’s in the by’s schlbag?
A.A watch.B.Sme mney.C.Sme bks.
9.Where did the by prbably put his schlbag?
A.At hme.B.At the cinema.C.At the supermarket.
10.What’s the by like?
A.Lazy.B.Careless.C.Dishnest.
第三节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白,回答第11至第15五个小题。
11.What is William?
A.A ck.B.A teacher.C.A radi presenter.
12.Wh did William call fr help?
A.Tim.B.Ann.C.Linda.
13.What did William have fr dinner?
A.Eggs.B.Bread.C.Ndles.
14.Hw did William feel when he heard the nise?
A.Tired.B.Afraid.C.Surprised.
15.Why was there a nise?
A.Smebdy brke the windw.
B.Smebdy walked int the huse.
C.The tree was shaking in the wind.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
As a cuntry pwerful in math, China has many flk games full f math wisdm (智慧). Yu may play many f them befre. Let’s take a lk at three f them.
16.When was the tangram first ppular?
A.Over 2,000 years ag.B.In the early 19th century.
C.Over 500 years ag.D.In the Ming and Qing dynasties.
17.What can we knw frm the text?
A.Luban lcks are made up f n mre than nine pieces.
B.The tangram is mre ppular in the West than in China.
C.Peple need t be patient enugh t slve the nine linked rings puzzle.
D.It is usually mre difficult t unlck a Luban lck than t put it back tgether.
18.What’s the main purpse f the text?
A.T explain the ways f learning math t students.
B.T share sme useful skills f playing flk games.
C.T tell peple the imprtance f learning math well.
D.T intrduce flk games with math wisdm in China.
B
Amy was a dear little girl, but she was always wasting time getting prepared t d her tasks, instead f ding them at nce as she shuld d.
In the village, Mr Thrntn kept a stre where he sld fruits f all kinds, including berries when in seasn. One mrning he said t Amy, “Well, Amy, I nticed sme fine, fully-grwn blackberries n Mr Green’s farm tday. He said that anybdy was welcme t them. I will pay yu 13 cents a kilgram fr all yu pick fr me.”
Amy was excited abut the thught f making sme mney t help her mm, s she quickly ran hme t get a basket t hld the berries. Then she thught she wuld like t knw hw much mney she wuld get if she picked five kilgrams. After finding ut that she wuld get 65 cents, she started t dream big, “Suppsing I shuld pick a dzen kilgrams, hw much shuld I make then?”
“Dear me,” she was surprised after calculating (计算) a while. “A dllar equals (等于) t 100 cents, s I shuld make a dllar and fifty-six cents!”
It tk her sme time t dream bigger, and then it was s near lunchtime that she had t stay at hme until the afternn.
As sn as lunch was ver, she tk her basket and hurried t the farm. Sme bys had been there befre lunch, and all the fully-grwn blackberries were picked. She culd nt find half a kilgram t fill her basket. She was filled with deep regret abut it. Then she thught f what her teacher ften tld her, “D yur task at nce; then think abut it. One der is wrth 100 dreamers.”
19.What can we knw abut Amy accrding t the first three paragraphs?
A.She was Mr Thrntn’s daughter and lved him a lt.
B.She wanted t make mney by picking blackberries.
C.She liked t finish her tasks immediately n her wn.
D.She was really gd at sprts and she culd run quickly.
20.What des the underlined wrd “dzen” in Paragraph 3 mean?
A.Nine.B.Ten.C.Eleven.D.Twelve.
21.What des the underlined wrd “it” in Paragraph 6 refer t?
A.Amy didn’t g t pick blackberries earlier.
B.Amy came t Mr Green’s farm with the bys.
C.Amy went t pick blackberries withut lunch.
D.Amy culd find half a kilgram f blackberries.
22.What lessn did Amy learn frm her experience?
A.Cmpetitin is the main path t success.
B.Actins always speak luder than wishes.
C.It’s imprtant t make mney fr family.
D.Things can be dne well thrugh thinking.
C
Sugar painting, as the name means,is a painting made f sugar. It’s the sugar fr us t taste, and the painting fr us t admire.
Since the Warring States Perid, the ancient peple have lved sweets and develped methds f prducing sugar. At that time, sugar was nly served t the kings and queens. In the Tang Dynasty, there was huge prgress in the technlgy f sugar making. ▲ With the cultural and ecnmic (经济的) develpment f Sng and Yuan dynasties, peple became less interested in nly tasting sweetness. In the Ming Dynasty, sme peple used sugar t make pictures with gd luck. As a result, sugar painting appeared.
Sugar painting is different frm nrmal painting. Sugar painters use syrup (糖浆) as the material, a spn as the “paintbrush”, and a smth table as the “paper”. T make syrup, they have t make sugar ht befre painting. Since syrup may becme hard if it cls, the painters have t prduce the wrk very quickly. They mve the spn full f syrup up and dwn, left and right. Sn a sugar painting is dne.
Hwever, it’s a pity that this flk art is dying recently. The sugar painting that used t be rich in shapes has becme prer and prer because f fewer needs. What’s wrse, few peple seem t be willing t pass n the art except thse sugar painters wh are getting lder.
Fr mst peple, painting is a kind f art and difficult t understand. Hwever, sugar painting has pulled the art dwn int peple’s daily lives. Thrugh it, we may see the spiritual supprt f the ancient peple acrss centuries. Nw, sugar painting has been listed as an intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) in China. Therefre, the art can be remembered, missed and passed n.
23.Which f the fllwing can be put int the blank “ ▲ ” in Paragraph 2?
A.Sugar became a symbl f wealth and pwer.
B.S sugar als went int cmmn peple’s hmes.
C.The art f sugar painting was perfected during this perid.
D.The prductin f sugar wasn’t allwed in the Tang Dynasty.
24.Why shuld sugar painters make the wrk very quickly?
A.T shw their excellent skills.B.T avid syrup becming hard.
C.T prtect the spn and the table.D.T reduce peple’s waiting time.
25.What’s the writer’s attitude (态度) twards tday’s sugar painting accrding t Paragraph 4?
A.Uncaring.B.Dubtful.C.Wrried.D.Unclear.
26.What’s the best title fr the text?
A.Explring the Art f Sugar Painting
B.Imprving the Taste f Sugar Painting
C.Influence f the Sugar Prducing Technlgy
D.Ways t Change the Future f Sugar Painting
D
Peple believe that every wrd has its crrect meanings. But have yu ever wndered hw these meanings are decided? When we are nt sure abut a wrd’s meaning, we usually check nline, r turn t ur teachers r dictinaries. But d yu knw hw dictinaries were made in the past? Hw did dictinary writers decide n the meanings and uses f wrds? And hw has this prcess develped ver time?
Dictinary writers first read the imprtant bks f the perid r the subject that the dictinary was abut. As they read, they cpied necessary infrmatin n cards: interesting wrds, cmmn wrds — bth in their daily uses and unusual uses — and als the sentences where they were used. That is t say, the wrds, alng with the uses f each wrd, were cllected. Fr a really big dictinary, millins f such cards were cllected. This task culd last fr years. As the cards were cllected, they were put in alphabetical rder (A-Z). When this was dne, there wuld be several hundred cards fr each single wrd.
Then, t knw the meaning f a wrd, the dictinary writer placed its hundreds f cards befre him. He read the cards carefully, threw away sme, read the rest again, and divided up the cards accrding t what he thught were the cmmn uses f the wrd. Finally, he wrte the definitins (定义), fllwing the hard-and-fast rule: Each definitin must cme frm an example n a certain card in frnt f him.
S, the writing f a dictinary was nt a task f inventing meanings f wrds, but a task f recrding their meanings. The writer f a dictinary was a histrian (历史学家), nt a law maker.
As time develps, the way f prducing dictinaries has greatly changed. Nwadays, we can use nline dictinaries t. When chsing ur wrds in speaking r writing, we can be guided by the dictinaries. Hwever, we cannt be cntrlled by them, because new situatins, new experiences, new inventins, and new feelings are always pushing us t give new uses t ld wrds.
27.Hw des the writer start the text?
A.By asking questins.B.By cmparing facts.
C.By giving examples.D.By prviding definitins.
28.Which shws the crrect steps f hw dictinaries were made in the past?
①Put the cards in the rder f A-Z.②Wrte dwn the meanings f wrds.
③Recrded the wrds and their uses.④Threw away sme cards and divided the rest.
A.②①④③B.②④①③C.③①④②D.③④①②
29.What can we learn abut the dictinary writing in the past?
A.It was dne by law makers.B.It had t use sme writing rules.
C.It was really lng-time hard wrk.D.It was a task f inventing and recrding.
30.What des the writer advise us t d when chsing wrds in cmmunicatin?
A.Fllw the dictinaries strictly.B.Try t create sme new wrds.
C.Use nline dictinaries instead.D.Be pen t the new uses f wrds.
第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,从所给的A—E五个选项中选出正确选项(其中一项是多余选项),将其序号填入第31~34小题,并回答第35小题。
Interview: Prtecting Migratry Birds Tgether
Reprter: Hi there! I’m a reprter, and tday I’m here t talk abut hw we can help prtect migratry birds. Can I ask yu a few questins?
Child 1: 31
Reprter: Great! First questin: D yu knw what migratry birds are?
Child 1: Yes! Migratry birds g n lng jurneys between their summer and winter hmes.
Reprter: That’s right! S, what d yu think we can d t help these birds?
Child 1: Well, let me think … 32 In this way, we can ffer them fd and places t rest.
Reprter: 33 And what abut yu, yung lady?
Child 2: Hi!
Reprter: Hi! What can we d t make their jurneys easier?
Child 2: 34 Peple shuld be punished fr littering. And we shuld als tell thers t be careful nt t hurt the birds.
Reprter: Excellent advice! Thank yu bth fr sharing yur ideas. Remember, everyne can d smething t help birds live in peace.
Child 1 & Child 2: Yu’re welcme! We’ll d ur best t prtect the envirnment!
A.That’s a fantastic idea!
B.Sure, I can help!
C.They need places t stp and eat.
D.We can keep ur parks and beaches clean.
E.I think we can plant mre trees and flwers.
35.What else can yu d t prtect migratry birds? (不超过15词)
________________________________________________________
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
Once upn a time, there were tw peple living next t each ther. One f them was a farmer and the ther was an engineer. 36 f them planted the same kind f plant in their gardens.
The farmer gave a little 37 t his plants. He didn’t always pay a lt f attentin t them, 38 the engineer was very interested in taking care f his plants. He gave a lt f water t his plants and he lked after 39 very well.
One day, a terrible 40 started suddenly during the night. The next mrning, the engineer was very 41 , because he fund that his plants split ff (分离) frm their rts. Hwever, the farmer’s plants were still 42 .
The engineer went t ask the farmer, “We bth grew the same plants tgether. 43 , I did mre fr my plants than yu did fr yurs. Hwever, my plants split ff frm their rts while yurs didn’t. Hw is that 44 ?”
The farmer smiled and said, “Yu gave yur plants t much attentin and water. Because f that, they didn’t need t 45 hard t lk fr water. Yu made everything easy fr them. I nly gave my plants a little water and let their rts 46 mre. Therefre, their rts went deeper and deeper, which made them 47 .”
Parenting is like taking care f plants. 48 everything is given t children, they will nt wrk hard. Teach them hw t walk, but let them 49 their wn way. Smetimes, parents shuld guide them instead f 50 them all. The wise parents knw when t let g, allwing children t find their wn path t grwth.
B.EitherC.AllD.Bth
B.silC.airD.sand
B.andC.rD.s
B.themC.himD.us
B.taskC.strmD.dream
B.interestedC.excitedD.surprised
B.dryC.aliveD.dead
B.ActuallyC.UnluckilyD.Finally
B.famusC.difficultD.pssible
B.breakC.studyD.jump
frB.wait frC.pay frD.ask fr
B.lngerC.strngerD.smaller
B.IfC.UnlessD.Althugh
B.guessC.fllwD.refuse
B.givingC.rderingD.learning
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
A.将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中,每词仅用一次。
China is a nice place with friendly peple. Everywhere I g, I meet kind and gd peple. Chinese
peple are friendly t thers frm arund the wrld. T me, China is 51.____________. As a cuntry with such a large ppulatin, 52.____________ is well-rganized and runs well.
—Refan
Fr me, China is like my 53.____________ hme. I was brn in Japan, and I did everything there befre. But China welcmed me t cme, study and get many new 54.____________. Like my wn cuntry, China gives me what I need fr my life, wrk and future. That’s why I 55.____________ China as anther hmetwn and lve the cuntry very much.
—Kath
B.阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Smetimes, a business has a prduct that is fr a certain grup f peple. Fr 56.____________ (实例), there is n pint advertising a new car t peple wh dn’t 57.____________ (开车). Gvernments, t, smetimes want t reach a specific (特定的) grup. This might be infrmatin abut children’s 58.____________ (健康) that they want t give t parents. In bth cases, it wuld be a 59.____________ (浪费) f mney t infrm (通知) everyne. It’s better t aim yur message at the peple yu want t reach. Hw d yu d that?
First f all, it’s imprtant t clearly knw the grup f peple yu want t reach. Are they parents? Are they teenagers? Are they 60.____________ (工人)? Are they farmers? …
Secnd, yu need t think abut hw t 61.____________ (交流) with that grup. Teenagers and yung 62.____________ (成人) spend time n the Internet. That might be the best way t reach them. Hwever, it cannt wrk s well fr ld peple.
63.____________ (最后), yu need t express yur message in the right way. With prfessinal (专业) peple, yu need t use 64.____________ (严肃) language. With teenagers, yu’d better use relaxing language. T make yur message mre 65.____________ (有用), yu need t use the right frm f expressin.
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
My grandparents have a summer huse in the cuntryside, near a natinal park. Last summer I went n hliday 66.____________ my parents there. I had really nice childhd memries f 67.____________ place.
On the first mrning after we arrived, we decided t g hiking arund the lake. But instead f the beautiful area I remembered, it was just a mess. Peple camped near the lake and just 68.____________ (leave) all their things there.
We picked up the rubbish and threw it away 69.____________ (prper). While we were having lunch at a café, we spke t the wner 70.____________ (knw) hw it became a serius prblem. “71.____________ did it start t be a waste dump (垃圾场)?” I asked. “It gt really bad tw years ag. A lt f peple chse it as a gd place fr camping,” she said. “My dg always fund sme fd 72.____________ (bx).” She als said she reprted it t an envirnmental rganizatin, 73.____________ they weren’t able t d anything.
After that, we decided t spend anther day picking up the rubbish we fund. We used sme big bags and filled 74.____________ (they) up every day. I think the situatin will get much 75.____________ (gd) in the future if mre peple are willing t take actin.
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
76.假如你是N.1 Middle Schl的学生李华,校园网站公布了学校科技节(Science Festival)的两个活动方案。请写一篇英语短文描述其中一个你喜欢的方案并说明理由。
注意:1.短文需包含所选方案的所有内容和选择此方案的理由,可适当发挥;
2.文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息;
3.词数80左右。
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案
第一部分 听力理解(共三节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
1.A 2.A 3.C 4.A 5.B
第二节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
6.C 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.B
第三节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
11.C 12.C 13.B 14.B 15.C
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
16.D 17.C 18.D 19.B 20.D 21.A 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.C 26.A 27.A 28.C 29.C 30.D
第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
31.B 32.E 33.A 34.D
35.One pssible versin: I can make a pster t tell peple t prtect them.
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
36.D 37.A 38.A 39.B 40.C 41.D 42.C 43.B 44.D 45.A 46.A 47.C 48.B 49.C 50.B
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
51.special 52.everything 53.secnd 54.experiences 55.think f 56.example 57.drive 58.health 59.waste 60.wrkers 61.cmmunicate/talk 62.adults 63.Finally 64.serius 65.helpful/useful
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
66.with 67.the 68.left 69.prperly 70.t knw 71.When 72.bxes 73.but 74.them 75.better
第四部分 书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
76.One pssible versin:
As a student f Pitt River Schl, I am glad t shw my lve fr Prgram A f ur Science Festival.
Firstly, Prgram A allws us t perfrm experiments in ur schl’s science center. This hands⁃n experience is imprtant because it makes us learn science thrugh practice.
Secndly, the chance t listen t a famus scientist’s speech is truly exciting. Such speeches prvide us with the views int the latest scientific discveries and help us knw mre abut the wnders f the scientific wrld.
Prgram A ffers a great way f learning science. It is my chice fr the Science Festival.
书面表达评分标准
【听力材料】
听力考试正式开始。请看听力部分第一节。
第一节:听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.W: It has been raining fr a week. Hpe it will stp in the afternn. Even the cludy weather is OK.
M: The weather reprt says it’s ging t be fine this afternn.
W: Great.
2.W: I gt t schl at 7:20 this mrning. What abut yu, Wang Hui?
M: Let me see. Oh, I arrived at schl ten minutes earlier than yu.
3.W: David, d yu play basketball every day?
M: N, I have a lt f schlwrk at schl. S I nly play it n Saturdays and Sundays.
4.W: Ww, what a beautiful bag! It lks like the ne nline.
M: Let’s lk at the price. Oh, it’s t expensive.
5.W: What will the life be like in the future, Adam?
M: I think the weather will be quite warm all year rund. Peple will feel cmfrtable and needn’t wear t much. They will live lnger t.
第一节到此结束。
第二节:听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
W: Cngratulatins! Just tw hurs and frty⁃five minutes! That’s fantastic! What’s yur name?
M: Jack. Jack Patel.
W: Well dne, Jack! Yu are in tp ten runners! Hw are yu feeling?
M: I’m OK. Thanks.
W: Gd! Nw, Jack, here is yur jacket. Put it n. Yu mustn’t get cld.
M: Yes. Thanks.
W: Nw, Jack, walk this way. Pick up yur medal. It’s yurs!
M: Thanks!
听下面一段较长对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。
M: Mm, I can’t find my schlbag.
W: Oh, yu lse things again. Can yu remember where yu last put it?
M: N, I can’t remember! I went t a cinema yesterday s it might still be n the seat.
W: Is there any mney r yur watch in the schlbag?
M: N, just my bks. Oh, wait! I went t a supermarket after seeing the film. I remember I had my schlbag with me while shpping.
W: S culd it still be at the supermarket?
M: Yes. I think smebdy helped me pick it up. I’ll call it nw t check.
W: Yu always lse things. Please be careful next time.
第二节到此结束。
第三节:听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白,回答第11至第15五个小题。
Yu are listening t Teen Radi. This is William. Here’s my hme alne stry. When I was thirteen, my parents left hme t visit friends, Tim and Ann. I was s happy at first. Hwever, the next mrning, I was late fr schl. After schl, I called Linda t help with my math prblem, but n ne answered. Then I tried t ck ndles and eggs fr dinner, but I burnt them. Instead, I had sme bread. Suddenly I heard a nise cming frm the windw. It seemed that a man wuld break the windw t get in. S I turned ff the lights and hid under the bed. Several minutes later, I fund there was nbdy utside. It was just the tree shaking in the wind.
第三节到此结束。
听力部分到此结束。
采分点
满分
可给分值
1.内容充实,覆盖要点(内容、要点)
7
6~7 写了所有信息,内容合理、丰富。
4~5写了大部分信息,内容比较合理。
3写了部分信息,很多内容不太合理。
1~2写了小部分信息,内容不合理。
0没有作答或所写内容与主题无关。
2.用词适切,语法正确,句型多样(词汇、语法、句型)
7
6~7 用词适切,完全或基本没有语言错误,句型变化多样且有效。
4~5用词基本适切,有少量语言错误但不影响理解,句型有变化且有效。
3用词不够适切,有较多语言错误但不影响理解,句型较为单一。
1~2有较多语言错误,一定程度上影响理解。
0有大量语言错误,影响理解;只抄写了所给的词。
3.结构紧凑,意思连贯(语意、连词、指代)
4
4 行文连贯,连接词使用恰当,指代清晰。
3行文较连贯,连接词使用较恰当,指代清晰。
2行文不太连贯,连接词使用不够恰当,指代不够清晰。
1行文不连贯,连接词使用很不恰当,指代不够清晰。
0没有连贯的意识。
4.书写规范,词数适宜(大小写、标点符号、词数)
2
2 大小写、标点正确,词数达标,书写规范整洁。
1大小写、标点有部分错误,词数达标,书写尚可辨认。
0大小写、标点错误较多,词数严重不足,书写难以辨认。