吉林省长春市德惠市2025_2026学年八年级上学期1月期末英语试题（文字版，含答案）

这是一份吉林省长春市德惠市2025_2026学年八年级上学期1月期末英语试题（文字版，含答案），共11页。试卷主要包含了听力，基础知识，阅读，语言运用，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
听力部分
一、听力 (共 30 分)
Ⅰ. 根据所听到的句子,选择最佳答语。(5 分)
1.A. In May.B. T Changchun.C. With my parents.
2.A. Yes, yu can.B. N, I culdn't.C. N prblem.
3.A. Tw spns.B. It's simple.C. Gd idea.
4.A. In a hspital.B. A pilt.C. In 20 years.
5.A. Here yu are.B. Have a gd time.C. I dn't think s.
Ⅱ. 根据所听到的描述,选出与其相符的图片。(5 分)
6. ______ 7. ______ 8. ______ 9. ______ 10. ______
Ⅲ. 听对话,根据所听对话内容选择最佳选项。(10 分)
听第一段对话,回答第 11-12 小题。
11. What des the by think f English?
A. Easy.B. Difficult.C. Bring.
12. What did the by’s English teacher say in the reprt card?
A. The by was lazy.
B. The by was gd at English.
C. The by culd d better.
听第二段对话,回答第 13-15 小题。
13. Wh is Alan ging t Beijing with?
A. His classmates.B. His cusin.C. His parents.
14. When did Susan g t Beijing?
A. Last week.B. Last summer.C. Last year.
15. What did Susan d in the Palace Museum?
A. She tk many phts.
B. She watched a shw.
C. She had a talk.
Ⅳ. 根据所听到的短文内容,选择最佳答案。(10 分)
16. Where is Mary frm?
A. Canada.B. China.C. America.
17. Hw ld is Mary?
A. 12.B. 13.C. 11.
18. What is Carl like?
A. Quiet.B. Outging.C. Kind.
19. What did Mary give t Carl as a birthday gift?
A. A picture.B. A pht.C. A birthday card.
20. What is Carl ding in the picture “Gd friends”?
A. Singing.B. Dancing.C. Painting.
笔试部分
二、基础知识(共 10 分)
Ⅴ. 单项选择(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
从每小题所给的四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。
21. I bught ____ fr my mther n Mther's Day this year.
A. special anythingB. anything specialC. special smethingD. smething special
22. Our schl will invite Mr Li ____ us a speech n hw t prtect the earth tmrrw.
A. giveB. givesC. t giveD. giving
23. I met Lucy ____ n the way hme yesterday, and we had a happy talk.
A. in factB. by accidentC. in publicD. by myself
24. The Qinghai Lake is ____ lake in China. It is in Qinghai Prvince.
A. largeB. largerC. largestD. the largest
25. We'll have a schl trip next week. ____ great news it is!
A. WhatB. What aC. HwD. Hw a
26. There ____ a fashin shw in the museum tmrrw afternn.
A. is ging t haveB. is ging t beC. are ging t haveD. are ging t be
27. I think friends are like bks — yu dn't need a lt f them ____ they are gd.
A. s thatB. althughC. as lng asD. because
28. My dad will g fishing with me if it ____ sunny this Sunday.
A. isB. isn'tC. will beD. wn't be
29. Each student will talk fr three minutes befre yu ____ t the next tpic.
A. cme nB. put nC. depend nD. mve n
30. Every time I am sad, my parents always encurage me t see the ____.
A. difficult situatinsB. silver liningC. treasure huntD. spare time
三、阅读(共 50 分)
Ⅵ. 完形填空(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读短文,掌握其大意,然后从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
Once upn a time, a teacher taught her students t play a game. The teacher tld each child t bring a 31 with a few tmates. Everyne wuld write a name f a persn that he r she disliked n each tmat, s the number f tmates in the bag wuld 32 the number f peple the child disliked.
When the day came, every child brught sme tmates with the 33 f the peple he r she disliked. Sme children had tw tmates. Sme had three and thers 34 had five tmates. The teacher then tld them t 35 the bag with them fr a week.
As the days went by, all f the children were starting t cmplain(抱怨)ludly abut the terrible 36 cming frm the rtten(腐烂)tmates. And the students with five tmates als had t carry 37 bags.
After ne 38 , the children were very 39 because the game finally ended. The teacher asked, "Hw did yu 40 ? " The children started cmplaining abut the prblems they had t g thrugh. Fr example, when they carried the heavy and rtten tmates, peple wuld 41 their nses and mve away frm them 42 .
Then the teacher said, “This is the 43 situatin when yu carry yur dislike fr smebdy inside yur heart. The smell f dislike will pllute (污染)yur heart and yu will carry it with yu 44 yu g.”
“If yu cannt 45 the smell f rtten tmates fr just ne week, what is it like t have the smell f dislike in yur heart fr yur lifetime?”
31.A. walletB. basketC. bxD. bag
32.A. meanB. adviseC. serveD. invite
33.A. cardsB. namesC. agesD. bks
34.A. evenB. neverC. hardlyD. ften
35.A. carryB. catchC. leaveD. hpe
36.A. clurB. shapeC. smellD. size
37.A. nicerB. heavierC. betterD. smaller
38.A. dayB. weekC. mnthD. year
39.A. utgingB. seriusC. happyD. sad
40.A. imprveB. lkC. feelD. believe
41.A. hldB. washC. acceptD. cver
42.A. slwlyB. happilyC. ludlyD. quickly
43.A. dangerusB. sameC. differentD. safe
44.A. whateverB. wheverC. whereverD. whenever
45.A. standB. bringC. decideD. make
Ⅶ. 阅读理解(共 30 小题,46-70 题,每小题 1 分;71-75 题,每小题 2 分,满分 35 分)
(A)
Changchun Children’s Palace hlds different after - schl activities every seasn t make students’ free time mre clurful. This spring, they did a survey n students’ favurite activities and made a ntice fr the new term.
NOTICE
Spring After - Schl Activities in Changchun Children’s Palace
Target Grup: Students aged 7 - 15
Activity Details:
Ntes:
1. All activities are free, but students need t register(注册)nline first.
2. If yu want t jin the painting activity, please bring yur wn painting tls.
3. Address: N. 123 Qingda Street, Chayang District
4. Bus Rute: Take Bus 13 r Bus 25 t Children’s Palace Statin
5. Registratin Phne: 0431 - 87654321
根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。(5 分)
46. Changchun’s Palace did a survey n ____ befre making the ntice.
A. students’ favurite activitiesB. parents’ adviceC. teachers’ hbbiesD. activity csts
47. Which activity can students jin n Thursday evening?
A. Painting.B. Chess.C. Dance.D. English Crner.
48. Students need t ____ if they want t jin the activities.
A. pay sme mneyB. register nline firstC. bring dance shesD. call the teacher
49. Hw can students get t the Children’s Palace?
A. By Bus 13 r Bus 25.B. By Bus 16 r Bus 28.
C. By Subway Line 2 r Line 3.D. By Subway Line 4 r Line 5.
50. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the ntice?
A. Students need t bring tls fr the chess activity.
B. A student aged 6 can take part in the activities.
C. The painting activity is in the Art Rm.
D. The English crner is n Mnday.
(B)
Shuld children d chres at hme? Fr sme children, ding chres (家务) is bring. Fr many parents, getting their children t help with husewrk is als a big prblem. Hwever, a Malaysian mther Kate fund a gd way.
Kate thught f a reward (奖励) system fr her tw sns at hme and psted it nline. She made a list f chres and gave her sns mney if they finished the tasks. She als pened a small shp at hme fr her sns. The bys culd buy snacks at her small shp.
Because f this system, Kate’s children are nw mre willing (愿意) t d their chres. Her pst gt ver 15,000 likes nline. Many parents began t imitate hers. In ther wrds, they use the same way t teach their children.
▲ Firstly, chres teach children living skills, like cking and cleaning. Secndly, ding chres is a gd way t help children keep healthy. Thirdly, ding chres makes parents and children get clser. Finally, a child can learn t take care f himself by helping with husewrk.
根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。(5分)
51. Hw did Kate encurage her children t d chres?
A. By giving them mney.B. By giving them likes.
C. By sharing her way nline.D. By giving them snacks.
52. What des the underlined wrd “imitate” in Paragraph 3 mean?
A. Ntice.B. Like.C. Fllw.D. Save.
53. Which f the fllwing can be put in the “▲”?
A. Kate’s sns nw have a lt f mney.
B. Children shuld be careful when they d chres.
C. Hwever, nt all children like the reward system.
D. In fact, ding chres is very imprtant fr children.
54. In which part f a newspaper can we prbably read this passage?
A. SPORTS.B. TRAVEL.C. FOOD.
D. FAMILY.
55. What’s the main purpse(主要目的)f the passage?
A. T intrduce a new way fr children t make mney.
B. T explain why parents shuld d chres with children.
C. T shw the benefits f using a reward system fr chres.
D. T discuss the imprtance f shpping skills fr children.
(C)
①Animals are imprtant t us. But sme f them are in great danger nw. What can we d t help save them?
②Dn't eat meat frm wild animals. Sme f us like t eat meat. But d yu knw sme meat cmes frm endangered animals? T save these animals, we must stp eating their meat.
③Dn't wear clthes made f fur. Smetimes peple kill animals fr fur. If we stp buying clthes made f fur, peple will nt kill animals. Everyne shuld remember this.
④Save the envirnment. Many wild animals are in great danger because they are lsing their hmes. Peple need mre huses, s they cut dwn mre and mre trees. They als make air and water dirty.
⑤Give mney t Animal Helpers. The grup des everything t help save animals. But it ften needs mney. S save sme mney and give it t the grup t help animals in danger. Or yu can just jin them t help save endangered animals.
⑥Tell peple t save animals. Nt all peple knw animals are ur friends. Nt everybdy understands the imprtance f saving animals. Saving animals is smething we shuld d tgether. S yu can tell them stries abut these lvely animals. This way, they may start t care.
根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。(5分)
56. Why d sme peple kill animals accrding t the passage?
①Because they want the meat. ②Because they want mre trees.
③Because they dn't like animals. ④Because they sell the fur fr mney.
A. ①②B. ③④C. ①④D. ②③
57. The underlined wrd "this" in Paragraph 3 refers t "________".
A. saving mneyB. killing animals fr fur
C. nt eating meatD. nt buying clthes made f fur
58. If yu have enugh mney, yu can give it t ________ t save animals.
A. a zB. Animal HelpersC. a universityD. animal lvers
59. What can we knw frm the passage?
A. All the animals are in danger.
B. Peple shuld wear clthes made f fur.
C. All the peple knw animals are ur friends.
D. We shuld play a part in saving animals.
60. Which is the right structure(结构)f the passage?
(① = Paragraph 1 ② = Paragraph 2, ...)
We ften see cars running n their wn withut a human driver in science fictin mvies. But in China, this is becming real nw. Peple call this kind f cars self - driving cars r rbt cars.
Self - driving cars were first famus in 2015. That year, Vlv, a carmaker frm Sweden (瑞典), tested such cars in Beijing. Later, Chinese businesses like Baidu started making self - driving cars t.
Nw China is n its way t becming the wrld's largest market fr self - driving cars. By 2040, China will have 12 millin rbt taxis, fllwed by the US with arund 7 millin.
Hwever, sme peple are wrried abut the safety f the self - driving cars. In Wuhan, Baidu's self - driving cars had sme small accidents. Once, ne such self - driving car stpped in frnt f a big bx and caused a traffic accident. Anther time, tw self - driving cars slwed dwn t face each ther, and did nt knw what t d next. These situatins may seem funny but in fact can be dangerus.
Luckily, in December 2023, the gvernment (政府) made a set f new rules t imprve the safety f self - driving cars. Mre rules will cme in the future.
根据短文内容,判断句子正(T)、误(F)。(5分)
61. In China, we can see self - driving cars n the rad nw.
62. In 2015, Vlv tested self - driving cars in Wuhan, China.
63. By 2040, China will have 7 millin rbt taxis.
64. Sme peple wrry abut the safety f the self - driving cars.
65. T imprve the safety f self - driving cars, the gvernment made a set f new rules.
(E)
Can yu imagine what the human bdy in the future will be like? Our class had a discussin (讨论) abut it. Tiantian, an AI rbt, als jined us. Here are ur guesses.
66 Humans are nw ten centimeters taller than 150 years ag. S, in the future, peple will prbably be even taller. Why? Because mst f us tday have much better fd than thse in the past.
Yu must say that peple will be strnger accrding t the first guess. 67 With the develpment f science and technlgy, we wn't have much physical wrk t d. If peple get used t this kind f lifestyle, we prbably lse mst f ur muscles(肌肉).
Next, let us cme t ur hands and feet. We are already using ur feet less, and ur hands mre. 68 At the same time, ur fingers (手指) and ur eyes will bth get better because they'll have t d mre wrk tgether.
Here cmes the mst interesting ne — it's very pssible that peple will have fur tes (脚趾), nt five. The little te really isn't needed anymre. 69 Let's wait and see.
Last but nt least — peple wn't have as much hair n their bdies as nw, since we dn't need it t keep urselves warm.
What d yu think f ur guesses? 70 With the rise f AI, will we lse the ability f thinking independently(独立地)?
阅读短文,把A - E五个句子填入文中空缺处,使短文内容完整。(5分)
A. But yu are wrng.
B. Will all these things happen?
C. Let's start with peple's height.
D. Will it still be there in the future?
E. S we can expect ur legs will get shrter and ur feet smaller.
(F)
Dilln is a student in Grade 7. Every day after schl, he takes the bus t g hme. On 26th April, Dilln and many ther students tk the bus back hme like befre. On their way, the bus driver suddenly fainted(昏倒).
At that time, Dilln was sitting in the middle f the bus. Seeing that, he ran t the frnt f the bus. He held the wheel(方向盘)and stpped the bus. At the same time, he shuted t the ther students t call the plice right away.
After the bus safely came t a stp, tw cleaners saw it. They quickly came and helped the students get ut f the bus. Later, the pliceman arrived. They tk the bus driver t the hspital at nce. The students gt n anther bus t g hme. Thanks t Dilln’s quick actin, all children were safe.
Dilln’s mther talked abut the reasn why he knew hw t stp the bus. He watched hw the driver drve every day. “He saved his schlmates n the bus! He’s really great! We feel happy fr him and hpe he can help mre peple in the future,” His mther said.
根据短文内容,回答下列问题。(10分)
71. Hw des Dilln g hme after schl every day?
72. Where was Dilln sitting when the driver fainted?
73. What did Dilln ask the ther students t d?
74. Wh helped the students get ut f the bus?
75. Why did Dilln knw hw t stp the bus?
四、语言运用(共10分)
Ⅶ. 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
An ld wman named Yang Benfen 76 (start) t write bks when she was in her sixties. And her 77 (ne) bk came ut when she was eighty. Her stry tuched lts f peple. Then in the fllwing tw years, her secnd and third bks came ut. Her bks are very ppular and have wn the 78 (heart) f many peple.
Yang Benfen shared her childhd stries 79 readers in her bks. When she was yung, she was 80 kind and hard - wrking girl. Her mther was always busy, s she thught that she shuld d sme husewrk 81 care fr her tw yunger brthers. Smetimes she wrked 82 (quiet) far int the night. Because f her pr family, she started primary schl at eleven. On schl days, Yang Benfen needed 83 (get) up early in the mrning and walked six kilmeters befre 84 (reach) schl. She studied hard and enjyed reading at schl, s she ften gt 85 (gd) grades than the ther students in her class.
Yang Benfen is happy that many yung peple like reading her bks. She says she will g n writing fr them.
五、书面表达（共 20 分）
IX.(A)假如你是阳光中学英语俱乐部的负责人,计划邀请王教授来你校做讲座。请根据以下要点和要求,用英语给王教授写一封不少于 40 词的邮件。(满分 5 分)
要点:1. 讲座时间:1 月 10 日上午 9 点；
2. 讲座地点:学校图书馆；
3. 讲座内容:怎样提高英语成绩；
4. 请在周五前回复。
要求:1. 字迹工整;要点齐全;表述通顺;简洁得体；
2. 答题卡上直接写正文即可。
Dear Prfessr Wang,
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
Sunshine Middle Schl English Club
(B)愉快的寒假即将到来。为了使你的假期生活丰富而精彩,你打算怎样提升自己呢? 学校正在开展以“My Winter Hliday Reslutins”为题的征文活动。请你用英文写一篇不少于 80 词的短文投稿,从“学业、与朋友相处、个人爱好”等方面谈谈你的具体计划。(满分15 分)
要求:1. 语句通顺,层次清晰,书写规范,卷面整洁；
2. 要点全面,可以适当增加细节,使行文连贯；
3. 文中不得出现真实的姓名或校名。
4. 标题已给出,不计入总词数。(答题卡上需写明标题)
My Winter Hliday Reslutins
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
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试卷答案
听力部分（略）
笔试部分
二、基础知识（共10分）
1. 21. D：1分。形容词修饰不定代词要后置，smething用于肯定句，anything用于否定句和疑问句，此句是肯定句，所以用smething special。
2. 22. C：1分。invite sb. t d sth. 邀请某人做某事，是固定搭配。
3. 23. B：1分。by accident
偶然，符合“昨天在回家路上偶然遇到Lucy”的语境。
4. 24. D：1分。in China表示范围，形容词最高级前要加the，the largest表示“最大的”。
5. 25. A：1分。news是不可数名词，感叹句结构What + 形容词 + 不可数名词 + 主语 + 谓语！
6. 26. B：1分。there be句型的一般将来时结构是there is/are ging t be，a fashin shw是单数，所以用there is ging t be。
7. 27. C：1分。as lng as
只要，符合“朋友像书，只要它们好，你不需要很多”的逻辑。
8. 28. A：1分。if引导的条件状语从句，主句用一般将来时，从句用一般现在时表将来，sunny是形容词，前面用is。
9. 29. B：1分。put n
穿上，符合“每个学生在继续下一个话题前将穿上三分钟”的语境。
10. 30. B：1分。silver lining
一线希望，符合“每次我难过，父母总是鼓励我看到希望”的语境。
三、阅读（共50分）
1. 31. D：1分。根据下文“the number f tmates in the bag”可知是带一个袋子（bag）。
2. 32. A：1分。mean
意味着，袋子里西红柿的数量将意味着孩子不喜欢的人的数量。
3. 33. B：1分。根据上文“write a name f a persn”可知是写不喜欢的人的名字（names）。
4. 34. A：1分。even 甚至，一些有三个，其他甚至有五个西红柿。
5. 35. A：1分。carry 携带，老师让他们携带袋子一周。
6. 36. C：1分。根据“frm the rtten tmates”可知是难闻的气味（smell）。
7. 37. B：1分。heavier 更重的，有五个西红柿的学生也得携带更重的袋子。
8. 38. B：1分。根据上文“fr a week”可知是一周（week）后。
9. 39. D：1分。sad 难过的，因为游戏终于结束了，孩子们很难过。
10. 40. C：1分。feel 感觉，老师问“你们感觉怎么样？”
11. 41. D：1分。cver 覆盖，人们将捂住鼻子。
12. 42. D：1分。quickly 快速地，人们将快速地远离他们。
13. 43. B：1分。same 相同的，这是和你心里带着对某人的不喜欢相同的情况。
14. 44. C：1分。wherever 无论哪里，你将无论走到哪里都带着它。
15. 45. A：1分。stand 忍受，如果你甚至不能忍受腐烂西红柿的气味一周。
四、语言运用（共10分）
1. 76. started：1分。根据 “when she was in her sixties” 可知用一般过去时，start的过去式是started。
2. 77. first：1分。根据 “when she was eighty” 可知是她的第一本书，用first。
3. 78. hearts：1分。heart是可数名词，many peple的heart用复数hearts。
4. 79. with：1分。share sth. with sb. 和某人分享某物，是固定搭配。
5. 80. a：1分。kind是以辅音音素开头的单词，用a表示 “一个”。
6. 81. t：1分。t care fr 为了照顾，表目的。
7. 82. quietly：1分。quietly 安静地，修饰动词wrked。
8. 83. t get：1分。need t d sth. 需要做某事，是固定搭配。
9. 84. reaching：1分。befre是介词，后接动词 ing形式，reach的ing形式是reaching。
10. 85. better：1分。than是比较级的标志，gd的比较级是better。
五、书面表达（共20分）
1. (A):
Dear Prfessr Wang,
We are the English Club f Sunshine Middle Schl. We'd like t invite yu t give a lecture. The lecture will be held in ur schl library at 9:00 a.m. n January 10th. The tpic is "Hw t Imprve English Grades". Please reply befre Friday.
Sunshine Middle Schl English Club
（5分，要点齐全1分，语句通顺2分，表达得体2分）
2. (B):
My Winter Hliday Reslutins
The winter hliday is cming. I have sme reslutins. In terms f studies, I plan t read an English bk every week t imprve my English. I'll als review the knwledge learned this term. Fr getting alng with friends, I'll call them regularly and share my hliday experiences. As fr persnal hbbies, I want t learn t play the guitar. I'll take nline lessns and practice every day. I believe these reslutins will make my hliday meaningful.
（15分，要点齐全3分，语句通顺5分，层次清晰3分，书写规范2分，适当增加细节2分）Time
Mnday - Wednesday
Thursday - Friday
14:30 - 16:30
Painting (Art Rm)
Chess (Activity Hall)
18:30 - 20:30
Dance (Dance Studi)
English Crner (Reading rm)