【英语】浙江省绍兴市新昌县2024-2025学年七年级下学期6月期末考试试题

这是一份【英语】浙江省绍兴市新昌县2024-2025学年七年级下学期6月期末考试试题，共12页。
1. What animals des Yaming like best?
A. Pandas.B. Kalas.C. tigers.
2. Hw des Jim feel abut jgging?
A. It’s tiring.B. It’s fun.C. It’s great.
3. Where are the speakers?
A. In the library.B. In a car.C. At hme.
4. What is Adam ding nw?
A. Waiting fr Jenny.B. Shpping.C. Having a schl trip.
5. Wh will have chicken ndles fr lunch?
A. Emma.B. Emma’s dad.C. Emma’s mum.
第二节：听长对话，回答问题。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面一段对话，回答第6-7两小题。
6. Hw ften des Teng Fei exercise every week?
A. Three times a week.B. Fur times a week.C. Five times a week.
7. What des Teng Fei have after exercise?
A. Water.B. Hamburgers.C. Fruit.
听下面一段对话，回答第8-10三小题。
8. Why is Tm calling?
A. T ask Anna t watch TV.
B. T ask Anna t g t the park.
C. T ask Anna t bring sme drinks.
9. What is the weather like nw?
A. Rainy.B. Windy.C. Sunny.
10. Where will they meet?
A. At the schl gate.B. At Anna’s hme.C. At the park gate.
第三节：听独白，回答问题。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
11. When did they arrive at the z?
A. At 9:00.B. At 9:30.C. At 10:00.
12. What are penguins like?
A. They are clever.B. They are playful.C. They are quiet.
13. What were the mnkeys ding?
A. Eating fruits. B. Resting in a tree.C. Playing in the water.
14. Hw many kinds f animals did they see?
A. 2. B. 3. C. 4.
15. What is the talk mainly abut?
A. A schl trip. B. Sme z rules. C. Sunshine Z.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
16. What des Frank enjy ding in his life?
A. Helping pr peple. B. Eating fresh vegetables. C. Playing beach vlleyball.
17. What can we learn abut Xiayu frm the articles?
A. She has a kite with many clrs.
B. She ften picks vegetables n a farm.
C. She is taking a trip in Sydney with her family.
18. Where can we mst prbably （可能） read the articles?
A. In an email. B. In a pst.C. In a diary.
B
The Giant’s （巨人） Garden
A lng time ag, there was a beautiful garden. It was full f flwers and grass. It belngs t a giant. One day, Lily and Tm fund it.
Scene OneThe Giant’s Anger
Lily:Lk at this garden Let’s play
Tm:Des anyne live here?
Lily:N ne des Let’s have fun
The Giant:It’s my garden Get ut f here
Lily:We are very srry. We thught n ne lived here.
Tm:We lve yur garden s much
The Giant:N ne can share my garden G away
Scene TwThe Giant’s sadness
The giant built a high wall t keep everyne ut. The fairy （仙子） saw this and punished （惩罚） him. She made the garden always in winter.
The Giant:Why is it s cld? Fr being rude （粗鲁的） t thse kids ne year ag?
SeasnYes, Giant, this was a lessn fr yu. I think yu knw what t d next.
Fairy:
Scene ThreeThe Giant’s Redemptin（救赎）
One day, the giant fund Lily and Tm playing utside the garden. He brke the wall and asked them in.
The Giant:I’m s srry. Nw, yu are welcme t my garden.
Lily:Great Mr. Giant, yu are s kind nw.
Lily, Tm:Thank yu fr sharing yur garden with us, Mr. Giant.
Scene FurThe Giant’s laugh
The Giant:...
19. Hw many characters （角色） are there in the stry?
A.3.B.4.C.5.
20. Why did the giant ask children t leave the garden in Scene One?
A. He lved his garden very much.
B. He didn’t want t share it with thers.
C. He didn’t like the nises frm the children.
21. What is the crrect （正确的） rder f the happenings?
① The giant built a wall.
② The giant welcmed the children t his garden.
③ The giant knew he was wrng.
④ The giant fund sme children playing in the garden.
A.④①③②B.③②①C. ②③①④
22. Hw will the giant prbably feel in Scene Fur?
A. Srry.B. Angry.C. Happy.
C
D yu knw peple call Amsterdam “a city f bikes”? Peple ride them everywhere—t buy bread r meet friends. D yu knw the funny rules just fr bikes in this city? Let’s start with the bell rule!
First, every bike must have a bell. If yur bike has n bell, yu will get a fine（罚款）. It’s abut €14. When yu are riding and smene is ging slwly, yu can ring the bell: “Ting-a-ling!” Peple usually smile and mve aside（到旁边）. Once, I saw a grandma carrying flwers. When she heard the bell, she mved quickly and said, “Yu first, yung man!”
But here’s the silly part—n bells at night! After the sun ges dwn, the city wants t be peaceful. If yu ring a bell then, peple might say, “Shh!” At night, the riders turn n bright lights. The frnt light is like a little eye, and the back light is red. At night, the streets seem t have mving stars!
Bells help us stay safe in the day, and lights keep us kind at night. It’s abut being plite. If yu visit Amsterdam, remember t check yur bell, turn n yur light and have fun! It’s a city where bikes have their wn “day talk” and “night lights.” Hw cl it is!
23. Hw des the writer start the article?
A. By listing numbers.B. By asking questins.C. By giving examples.
24. What can peple d accrding t（根据）the bike rules in Amsterdam?
A. Ride a bike with n bell.
B. Use bike bells in the daytime.
C. Turn ff the back light at night.
25. What des the underlined wrd peaceful in Paragraph 3 mean?
A. Quiet.B. Bright.C. Famus.
26. What des the writer think f the bike rules in Amsterdam?
A. Silly and unimprtant.B. Awful and bring.C. Useful and interesting.
D
Many Chinese peple started caring a lt abut their health these days. They realized that being verweight（超重）can cause many health prblems. Light meals becme a gd chice fr healthy eating. “This week, I rdered light meals fr dinner and did exercise. I want t be fit and healthy.” said 21-year-ld Li Xinwei frm Beijing.
Light meals dn’t have t much sugar r fat, but full f fiber and prtein （纤维和蛋白质）. They’re great fr lsing fat and building muscles（肌肉）. Vegetables, eggs, meat, and ther healthy fds are ften in a light meal. Each meal usually has nly 200 t 500 calries（卡路里）. What’s mre, light meals keep fd’s real taste when yu ck them in easy ways, like steaming（蒸）r biling（煮）。
Many peple think light meals are nly Western（西方的）dishes, like sandwiches r salads. Hwever, many Chinese dishes are als light and healthy. Malatang, a ppular Chinese ht pt is a gd example. Believe it r nt, it’s becming lighter and healthier. Sme yung peple ften stp eating high-calrie fds such as meatballs and rice ndles. This makes their fd healthier.
Light fd helps peple succeed in their health gals withut making big changes t their eating habits. S, are yu ready t enjy light fd?
27. What did Li Xinwei d t becme fit and healthy?
A. He ate mre meat and sugar.
B. He nly drank water fr dinner.
C. He had light meals and exercised.
28. Which fds are the best fr lsing fat accrding t the article?
A. A salad f tmates, eggs and carrts.
B. A dish f meat, beef and rice ndles.
C. A meal f meatballs, chclate and carrts.
29. Why des the writer mentin（提及） Malatang?
A. T ask mre peple t eat it.
B. T share a dish frm western cuntries.
C. T tell us Chinese dishes can be light and healthy.
30. What’s the best title（标题） fr the passage?
A. A Quick Way t lse Weight
B. A Special Meal fr Yung Peple
C. A Gd Chice fr Healthy Living
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选择正确选项（其中一项是多余选项），将其序号填入第31-34小题，并回答35小题。
D yu ntice（注意） that weather desn’t just change the sky? It changes hw we feel and what we d every day
31 When the sun is shining, peple ften feel happy. Many enjy utdr activities like playing sprts, walking in parks, r having picnics. Sme students even say they study better n sunny days
32 Rainy weather can make peple feel calm（平静的） r smetimes a little sad. On rainy days, mst stay at hme t read bks, watch mvies, r sleep.
33 Grey skies might make peple feel tired r less excited. Sme like t stay at hme, while thers like t g utside. Hwever, cludy days are perfect fr quiet activities like drawing r ding hmewrk.
34 The lightening and dark skies during strms are scary. Strng winds r heavy rain might cancel（取消） plans. Peple ften feel safer staying at hme n strmy days.
In shrt, weather affects mre than ur plans. It als affects ur feelings. By understanding this, we can change ur activities t stay happy in any weather
35. What d yu like t d n rainy days? （答案不少于5个词）
__________________________________________________________________________________________
第三部分 语音运用（共40分）
第一节、完形填空（本题有10小题；每小题1分，共计10分）
阅读下面短文，然后从各题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
Edward gt up early n the New Year’s mrning. He wished a Happy New Year t his family. Then he ran int the street t say the same wrds t everyne he met. When he came back, his 36 gave him tw dllars.
When he tk them, his eyes 37 . A bright smile came t his face. He always 38 buying sme gd bks.
As he ran dwn the street, he saw a pr family. “I wish yu a Happy New Year.” said Edward, but the man shk（振动）his head. It seemed that he culd nt understand the wrds. “Yu are 39 ther cuntries?” asked Edward. The man shk his head again, but he pinted t the children shaking with cld. He seemed t say, “My little kids dn’t have 40 t eat. They are very hungry.”
Edward knew the pr family needed help. S he didn’t think t much and 41 gave his dllars t the man. The family f the man were 42 and thanked him very much.
43 Edward came hme, he tld his father, “I dn’t buy any bks, I gave my mney t sme pr peple.”
“My dear by, I saw yu give the mney t the pr family. It was 44 f yu t d s. Here are sme 45 fr yu. They are the prizes fr yur kindness. Always help thers and every year f yur life will be a Happy New Year.” said his father.
36. A. fatherB. friendC. teacher
37. A. penedB. clsedC. shne
38. A. waited frB. lked frward tC. succeeded in
39. A. inB. abutC. frm
40. A. everythingB. anythingC. smething
41. A. quicklyB. exactlyC. hpefully
42. A. angryB. sadC. glad
43. A. BefreB. IfC. When
44. A. wrngB. niceC. terrible
45. A. bksB. clthesC. sandwiches
第二节、词汇运用（本题分A、B两部分，有15小题；每小题1分，共计15分）
A.根据所给音标写出单词，使句子意思通顺。
46. Ww, ______/lΛkɪ/ yu That sunds amazing.
47. Eating fast fd t ften may cause ______/ha:t/ prblems later.
48. The emperr ______ /dɪ’saɪdɪd/ t shw everyne his new clthes.
49. First, waste water frm ur hmes ges ______/ɪntuː/ the废水排走
50. Peple are eating delicius fd, ______/sΛtʃ/ as Chngqing ht pt and ndles.
51. Yu can’t use yur phne in class because yu need t ______/fəukəs/ n learning.
52. Elephants are an imprtant part f Thai life and culture. Hwever, they are ______/’deɪndʒə/.
B.阅读下面短文，然后根据号内所给汉语写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
My favrite way t have fun is ding yga. Yga is a way f exercise abut stretching （伸展） and hlding pses （姿势）. The pses are always named after animals like cats, dgs and 53 （蛇）.
Yga first came ut in India. Nw it is 54 （普遍的） all ver the wrld. Many peple f all ages d it t 55 （改善） their health. The pses might seem easy but it takes practice t d them better.
Ding yga can help yu in many ways. It can bring yu a 56 （柔软） bdy and helps yu think mre quickly. It can als 57 （放松） yur bdy when yu d yga. This helps yu frget yur wrries.
A yga class fr a beginner usually lasts （持续） abut 20 t 30 minutes. That’s 58 （足够） fr a beginner t learn sme easy pses. It’s great fr a beginner t have the class 59 （两次） r three times a week.
If yu want t find a fun way t spend yur 60 （空闲） time, yga is a gd chice.
第三节、语法填空（本题有10小题；每小题1分，共计10分）
阅读下面短文，在空格内填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Hi, I’m Ze! When I 61 (be), my grandma taught me gardening. We planted carrts 62 (strawberry) and rses in her backyard.（后院）. It was s fun Gardening made ur family clser and created wnderful stries.
Gardening is interesting. 63 it isn’t that’s always easy. I usually make sme mistakes like giving plants t much water. That made me sad. Hwever, I always learn frm 64 (they). When I face difficulties, I read bks and asked ther gardeners fr help. Nw I’m 65 (make) prgress)
Gardening isn’t just a hbby. Fresh tmates 66 my garden taste sweeter than thse in stres.挖土） and watching plants grw make me happy. We save rainwater fr plants, help bees find flwers, and make sil 67 (healthy).
Gardening is like painting with water. I can design（设计） my garden and create a beautiful space. Every time I wrk in the garden, I feel 68 artist I water my plants every day and wait just like waiting fr a drawing t finish. Garden says, “Plants grw 69 (slw)— just like peple.” It’s never t late 70 (start). Try gardening Yu’ll becme strnger.
第四节、完成句子（本题有5小题；一空一词，每空0.5分。共计5分）
71.贝丝周末帮我照顾我们的宠物狗。
Beth helps me ______ ______ ur pet dg n weekends.
72.托尼不得不在玩游戏之前完成作业。
Tny ______ ______ finish ur hmewrk befre playing games every night.
73.我们在雨中沿着湿漉漉的街道走。
We walked ______ the ______ street in the rain.
74.红色的棒球是杰克的。那个是我的。
The red ______ belngs t Jack. That ne is ______.
75.他正在体育馆滑冰，他想在下周的比赛中为他们队赢得比赛。
He is ______ in the gym and wants t win the match fr his ______ next week.
第四部分 书面表达（本题有1小题；共计10分）
76.假设你是李华，你收到了英国笔友Lucy的来信，她希望了解你的生活和学习状况。请从以下话题中选择其中2-3个给她写一封回信。
◆What sprts d yu d at schl?
◆What d yu like t eat fr lunch?
◆What schl rules d yu have?
◆Did yu have any schl trip?
注意：
（1）文中不得提及真实的人名、校名等相关信息；
（2）词数：60左右（开头和结尾已经写好，不计入总词数）。
Dear Lucy,
Thanks fr yur letter. Let me tell yu smething abut my schl life.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
What abut yurs? Hpe t knw mre abut yur schl life.
Yurs,
Li Hua
【参考答案】
第一部分 听力理解（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
1-5 ACCAB 6-10 BCBCC 11-15 BAABA
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
16-18 AAB 19-22 BBAC 23-26 BBAC 27-30 CACC
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
31-34 EBAC
35. I like t read bks at hme n rainy days/I like （只要语法正确，意义合理都可以得分）
第三部分 语言应用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
36-40 ACBCB 41-45 ACCBA
第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
46. lucky 47. heart 48. decided 49. int 50. such
51. fcus 52. danger 53. snakes 54. cmmn 55. imprve
56. sft 57. relax 58. enugh 59. twice 60. free
第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
61. was 62. strawberries 63. but 64. them 65. making
66. in/frm 67. healthy 68. an 69. slwly 70. t start
第四节 完成句子（本题有5小题，每空0.5分，共计5分）
71. lk, after 72. has, t 73. alng, wet 74. baseball, mine 75. skating, team
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分10分）
参考范文：
Dear Lucy,
Thanks fr yur letter, Let me tell yu smething abut my schl life.
We have sme rules at schl. Fr example, we can’t use phnes at schl. We mustn’t be late fr class and we must wear the schl unifrm. I think these rules can help us fcus n ur study.
Last Friday, we had a schl trip t a farm. First, we picked sme apples and learned hw t cut branches and leaves frm the trees. After that, we tasted sme delicius fd. Finally, we tk sme phts in the field. We all think it was a tiring but fun trip.
What abut yurs? Hpe t knw mre abut yur schl life.
Yurs,
Li Hua