湖南名校联考联合体2025届高三下学期考前仿真联考(三)英语含听力试卷(Word版附解析)
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这是一份湖南名校联考联合体2025届高三下学期考前仿真联考(三)英语含听力试卷(Word版附解析),文件包含英语试题docx、英语答案pdf、25届高三仿真联考三英语听力mp4等3份试卷配套教学资源,其中试卷共17页, 欢迎下载使用。
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡
皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节 (共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完
每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: Hw much is the shirt?
A.£19.15. B.£9.18. C.£9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What des the man want?
A. The reprt. B. The bk. C. The cat.
2. What did the man frget t d at Christmas last year?
A. Brrw Christmas cards.
B. Make Christmas cards.
C. Send Christmas cards t sme peple.
3. What did the man d last Saturday?
A. He went hiking.
B. He went climbing.
C. He watched a basketball match.
4. What is the time nw?
A. 8:40. B. 8:20. C. 9:00.
5. Which wrd can best describe the wman?
A. Careless: B. Lazy. C. Unkind.
第二节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最
佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒
钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6、7 题。
6. Whm is the wman talking t?
A. A guest. B. A wrkmate. C. An ld friend.
7. Where des this cnversatin prbably take place?
A. At the airprt. B. At the bus statin. C. At the railway statin.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. Where did the wman find the jb advertisement?
A. On TV. B. On a website. C. In the newspaper.
9. Why des the wman want t leave her present cmpany?
A. She wants t wrk as a secretary.
B. She finds the new jb is better.
C. She can't wrk fr it fr three years.
10. What is the disadvantage f the new jb?
A. N challenges.
B. Wrking in the evening.
C. T many respnsibilities.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. Why can't the wman attend class?
A. She fell sick n Saturday.
B. She has t finish her hmewrk.
C. She gt hurt in a sprts accident.
12. What will the man d fr the wman?
A. Send ntes t her email.
B. Uplad the readings nline.
C. Allw her t d hmewrk at hme.
13. What can be inferred abut the man's attitude tward hmewrk?
A. It needs t be imprved.
B. It shuld be finished in time.
C. It is less imprtant than health.
听第 9 段材料,回答第 14 至 17 题。
14. Hw much shuld the man write fr his paper?
A. Only five pages. B. Less than five pages., C. At mst eight pages.
15. What des the man find difficult in writing abut ancient scientific achievements in China?
A. There is nt much material fr it.
B. There is t much t write abut.
C. There is much uncertain infrmatin.
16. What d we knw abut Shen Ku?
A. An ancient scientist. B. A mdern scientist. C. A mdern engineer.
17. What is the wman's advice t the man mainly abut?
A. Hw t write his paper.
B. When t write his paper.
C. What t write abut fr his paper.
听第 10 段材料,回答第 18 至 20 题。
18. Where did the speaker wrk immediately after cllege?
A. In America. B. In Britain. C. In France.
19. Why did “The Friendly Chemist” becme successful?
A. Peple cared abut animals.
B. The medicines were very cheap.
C. The shp was friendly t custmers.
20. What des the speaker mainly talk abut?
A. Hw he prtected animals.
B. Hw his wife wrked with him.
C. Hw he started “The Friendly Chemist”.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 50 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Summer Highlights in Lndn
Summer is a time fr making memries, s make the mst f it with ur selectin f things t d in Lndn.
Big Fun Art Adventure
Owls(猫头鹰) are cming t Haringey this summer. N, nt the flying kind, but 30 giant sculptures f the
bird, all painted in bright clurs and designs. These new feathered friends are all part f the fundraising event fr
critically ill elderly patients, Big Fun Art Adventure, which is creating a walkable rute f art acrss the area. Yu
can spnsr an wl t help with fundraising effrts.
Festival Of Fairytales
What happens in ur gardens— and in nature generally— is its wn frm f magic and, this summer, the
Garden Museum will highlight that fact in its Festival Of Fairytales(Aug, 11).The ne-day event is sure t inspire
the imaginatin f yung minds with everything frm creative arts wrkshps, live strytelling and theatrical
perfrmances. Fancy dress is encuraged, but ptinal.
Buckingham Palace Summer Opening
Every summer Lndn's mst famus huse pens fr turs with an accmpanying exhibitin. Buckingham
Palace has 775 rms, but nly 19 f them, the State Rms, are pen t the public. These are the grand spaces,
where the King hsts receptins and entertains guests.
Be prepared fr airprt-style security. Cameras are banned inside the State Rms. Fd and drink is a n-n,
t.
Six Day Lndn
Lndn is the birthplace f the Six Day Series, s it's a pretty big deal when it cmes back each year. Over
the six days cyclists frm all ver the wrld cme t cmpete n a track in varius races, a typical example being
the ‘Madisn’. During this cyclists ride in teams f tw, relay style, t see wh can gain the mst laps and take
the title.
21. What is the main purpse f Big Fun Art Adventure?
A. T have fun. B. T ppularize arts.
C. T prtect animals. D. T raise mney fr charity.
22. Which f the events desn't allw taking phts?
A. Six Day Lndn. B. Festival Of Fairytales.
C. Big Fun Art Adventure. D. Buckingham Palace Summer Opening.
23. What d we knw abut the ‘Madisn’?
A. It's a stadium. B. It's a team name.
C. It's a type f bike races. D. It's a prize fr winners.
B
When she was yung, Gesang wuld stare at the snwy peaks arund Lhasa, her birthplace n the Tibetan
Plateau(青藏高原). But as she grew lder, she nticed the snw disappearing, leaving the muntains with gray
and green rcks climbing higher where white nce lay.
“I was wndering,” she said, “Why is this happening? What can I d abut this?”
In 2020, Gesang mved t Madisn t pursue a master's degree in Atmspheric and Oceanic Sciences at the
University f Wiscnsin-Madisn, where she cnducted research n hw ne culd use climate data t infrm
building energy design.
“Buildings have been designed fr the past climate because all thse building design standards we have are
calculated frm histrical climate data,” she said. “S what we are thinking is, as the climate is changing, if we
use prjected climate data t calculate thse building design requirements, hw different wuld the buildings be?
Wuld ur current heating and cling systems have any prblems in the future climate?”
“By the end f the twenty-first century,” she said, “building cling in Madisn will be very similar t
Mntgmery. Alabama, while building heating will be very similar t Luisville, Kentucky.” This means that
building design will need t change. If Madisn requires less heating, its buildings culd switch frm natural gas
t electric heat. Current cling systems might als be undersized fr the warmer climate in the future, which
culd cause them t underperfrm r fail.
“The implicatins are huge,” said Dan Vimnt, Gesang's advisr. “Other researchers have nly studied
certain design standards r limited themselves t specific buildings. Gesang’ s research, hwever, cvers the city
f Madisn and will expand t the buildings acrss the east cast befre prjecting hw climate change will affect
building design in the entire United States. While ther studies typically use a single climate mdel, which causes
biases(偏差),Gesang's averages frm 24 mdels.”
“I fund that climate change is nt nly abut climate,” Gesang said. “It is a huge, cmplicated tpic that
invlves every aspect f ur lives.”
24. Which f the fllwing wrds best describes Gesang’ s idea fr building energy design?
A. Mdern. B. Advanced. C. Typical. D. Cnventinal.
25. Accrding t the text, what kind f climate are natural gas heating systems suitable fr?
A. Dry climate. B. Cld climate. C. Warm climate. D. Ht climate.
26. What des Dan Vimnt imply by saying “The implicatins are huge”?
A. Gesang's research will have a natinwide impact.
B. Gesang's research develped frm previus studies.
C. Gesang's research has cntributed much t building design.
D. Gesang's research is helpful in dealing with climate change.
27. What can be cncluded frm Gesang's research?
A. Future buildings must adapt t changing climate cnditins.
B. Future buildings must play a rle in fighting climate change.
C. Energy-saving technlgy must be priritized in building design.
D. There must be different building design standards fr different regins.
C
In a time marked by increasing incme differences, a study frm Austria presents a lw-cst slutin t
narrw this gap: the therapeutic pwer f nature. The study ffers clear evidence that cnsistent engagement with
natural envirnments significantly enhances well-being, highlighting hw nature serves as a vital tl fr
imprving mental health and verall life satisfactin amng ecnmically disadvantaged grups.
The study surveyed 2,300 individuals acrss Austria, ensuring a representative sample in terms f age,
gender, and regin. The findings shw that peple n lwer incmes wh actively visit natural spaces reprt
levels f well-being that nearly match thse f the highest incme respndents. “What the results shw is that the
well-being benefits frm visiting nature at least nce a week acrss the whle year are similar t thse frm an
increase in 1,000 eurs f incme per year,” explains Lenie Fian, the lead authr f the study.
A critical distinctin made by the research is between living near green spaces and actively visiting them. It
turns ut that the mere presence f greenery in ne’ s living envirnment des nt autmatically translate t
imprved well-being. Instead, it is the active decisin t engage with these spaces—a park, frest, r ther natural
settings— that prvides great health benefits. This insight emphasizes the necessity f nt just creating greener
neighbrhds but ensuring they are accessible and inviting t all, especially thse wh might benefit the mst.
The implicatins f these findings are prfund, especially when cnsidering the higher risks f mental
health issues such as depressin and anxiety amng lwer-incme ppulatins. Nature cntact, as the study
suggests, culd play a vital rle in reducing these risks.
The research highlights the imprtance f plicy measures that nt nly increase the availability f green
spaces but als imprve their accessibility. “Especially fr peple n lwer incmes, infrmatin abut attractive
natural recreatin areas nearby and their accessibility by public transprt plays an imprtant rle,” ntes Lenie
Fian. Ensuring easy access t natural spaces, even n weekends and via public transprtatin, can make a
significant difference in public health utcmes.
28. What des “the therapeutic pwer” underlined in paragraph 1 indicate?
A. Nt csting much. B. Making yu feel rich.
C. Prviding health benefits. D. Imprving the envirnment.
29. Accrding t the study, which is the best way t enhance well-being?
A. Exercising in utdr spaces. B. Living clse t green spaces.
C. Creating a green envirnment. D. Engaging with natural envirnments.
30. What is the key fcus f the plicy measures recmmended by the study?
A. Making nature visits a weekly habit.
B. Building mre green spaces that are easy t reach.
C. Planting mre trees in natural recreatin areas.
D. Encuraging peple t take public transprtatin.
31. What can be the best title fr the text?
A. Plicy Measures: The Key t Mre Green Spaces
B. Green Spaces: The Unique Benefits frm Nature
C. Public Spaces: Natural Recreatin Areas fr Peple
D、Nature Access: Bridging Incme Gaps in Well-Being
D
When Eteni, a 13-mnth-ld baby living in the rainfrests f Cng, attempts t cut freshly hunted meat with
a sharp knife, n ne interferes(干涉). In fact, Eteni can ften be fund playing with sharp tls and imitating(模
仿) her ninc-year-ld aunt, Bwaka, wh is already efficient at gathering wild plants and cutting bush meat with
her knife.
As Eteni and Bwaka interact with each ther and ther cmmunity members, they prvide insights int hw
hunter-gatherer children acquire skills that are crucial fr survival in the frest.
In ur study, we watched ver 100 vide recrdings frm my time with the BaYaka peple in Cng t
understand hw hunter-gatherer children develp skills like using knives, caring fr babies, and gathering wild
plants when they are as yung as three years ld. They learn by freely explring their envirnment, bserving and
cpying thers in mixed-age (2--16)“playgrups”, which is a great way f transmitting(传递) skills accurately and
likely explains hw human culture develped in ancient hunter-gatherer cmmunities.
Teaching is anther great way f ensuring infrmatin is passed n crrectly. But cmpared t the years f
frmal educatin children receive in scieties like the UK, teaching is rare fr hunter-gatherer children.
Hunter-gatherers encurage children t be self-reliant and are less likely t interfere in their actins, because
independence is crucial in their envirnment where a persn needs t lk fr fd each day.
Des this mean that teaching isn't necessary? Nt at all. Teaching in humans is universal and has evlved as
cultures have evlved. In hunter-gatherer scieties, teaching is reserved fr transmitting abstract infrmatin, like
hw t behave arund thers. Rather than giving direct instructins, hunter-gatherer teachers ften create learning
pprtunities and mnitr the child's activity. Fr example, I watched a teenage by learn hw t share fd
equally amng the camp as the adult mnitring him nly gave feedback ccasinally.
We have a lt t learn frm hunter-gatherer childhds. I admire the children's freedm in acquiring skills
and knwledge thrugh highly active play practice and explratin. Nt nly d they thrw light n hw culture
evlved, but mre imprtantly, they inspire us t reimagine hw children learn— smething peple seem
surprisingly incurius abut elsewhere in the wrld.
32. Why are hunter-gatherer children mentined in the first paragraph?
A. T cmpare the children's life with mdern life.
B. T describe the life in hunter-gatherer cmmunities.
C. T give an example f the children's independent learning.
D. T reveal the harmnius relatinship between the children.
33. Accrding t the text, what can mixed-age “playgrups” be cmpared t?
A. A schl. B. A family. C. A cinema. D. A sprts team.
34. Which f the fllwing may need t be taught in hunter-gatherer cmmunities?
A. Ways t use tls. B. Behavirs in scial life.
C. Strategies fr hunting animals. D. Techniques fr gathering wild plants.
35. What des the authr emphasize in the last paragraph?
A. Better educatin fr hunter-gatherer children.
B. Understanding f hw human culture develps.
C. Re-examinatin f childhd learning in mdern scieties.
D. Play practice and explratin in hunter-gatherer childhds.
第二节 (共 5 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Creativity is the cre f human expressin. Within each f us lies artistic ptential waiting t be set free.
Creativity isn't just fr artists, writers, r musicians. 36 Yu can unlck yur artistic ptential and embrace(拥
抱) yur inner artist by explring diverse artistic mediums.
37 Grab a brush t paint vivid emtins, shape clay int meaningful frms, r reveal the beauty in life
thrugh phtgraphy. Wrds can be a pwerful tl fr creativity, t. Write stries r pems, which can be a
prcess that allws yu t gain insights int yur inner wrld. All these mediums invite yu t transfrm abstract
feelings int real creatins.
Sund and mvement als unlck creativity. Play an instrument r make yur wn music. Music can bring
ut strng feelings and inspire new ideas—— even withut prfessinal skills. And dancing wrks similarly:
whether yu fllw frmal dances r mve freely in yur wn style, mving yur bdy can unlck a deeper
cnnectin t yur creativity. 38
In fact, curisity is the key t develping creativity. Apprach life with childlike curisity, questining the
rdinary and seeking new ways t see the wrld. Curisity pens the dr t fresh ideas. Allw yurself t
explre new hbbies, interests, and subjects, even if they seem unrelated t yur usual creative wrk. 39
Remember, creativity is nt limited t grand masterpieces r prfessinal pursuits. It can be fund in the
simplest f acts. Yu dn't need t be perfect. 40 Whether yu' re prducing a piece f artwrk, writing a
heartfelt stry, r dancing t yur favrite sng, every act f creatin is a celebratin f yur unique self.
A. Just let yur ideas guide yu.
B. Creativity enriches all aspects f life.
C. It is a natural gift everyne can btain.
D. Visual arts and literary arts develp yur artistic ptential.
E. As a result, yu maintain a balance between music and dance.
F. Mixing ideas frm different aspects can lead t unique creatins.
G. Yu' re cmmunicating emtins r stries withut the need fr wrds.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A crwd f peple in red T-shirts gathered arund. Elders 41 in their wheelchairs, each wearing a gentle
yet meaningful smile that lit up their faces. Everyne seemed excited and ready t make a 42 r simply t lend
a helping hand.
This was my first time t jin an ALS(渐冻人症) charity walk in Tempe, Arizna. At first, I didn't see hw
walking culd help anyne. It felt 43 . Hw culd a walk supprt peple fighting this disease? Nearby, I
verheard a 44 between tw wmen.
“Hw are yu tday, Marge?”
“Wnderful! I just gt my new wheelchair!”
Marge 45 the wman hw her electric wheelchair wrked. I nticed that her arms were as thin as sticks,
shaking whenever she 46 t mve them. Despite her 47 , she kept her smile bright.
As the walk started, laughter spread thrugh the crwd, and peple stepped frward with 48 . Whether the
rute went uphill, r ver rugh grund, n ne gave up r slwed dwn. Their enthusiasm ultimately 49 my
initial attitude tward the walk.
The event wasn't just abut raising mney r walking— it was als abut celebrating 50 . Thse with ALS
knew their time was 51 , but they refused t let fear cntrl them. Surrunded by 52 peple, they felt that
every mment was wrth living.
Fr five years, I've 53 the ALS walk, nt just t walk, but t stand beside thse wh teach me what
curage truly means. Tgether, we 54 mving frward, reminding every struggling heart that they are never
alne. Hpe, I've learned, grws brightest when 55
41. A. stepped B. cmpeted C. sat D. left
42. A. difference B. discvery C. decisin D. recvery
B. pintless C. unfair D. uncmfrtable
44. A. cnversatin B. cmment C. discussin D. call
45. A. infrmed B. reminded C. asked D. shwed
46. A. managed B. frgt C. attempted D. pretended
47. A. wrries B. fears C. effrts D. struggles
48. A. kindness B. energy C. patience D. relief
49. A. prved B. transfrmed C. reflected D. supprted
50. A. life B. success C. peace D. sprts
51. A. unpleasant B. meaningless C. useless D. limited
52. A. amazed B. funny C. caring D. curius
53. A. returned t B. thught f C. spken abut D. lked at
54. A. try B. start C. practice D. keep
55. A. fcused B. shared C. needed D. fund
第二节 (共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A Dartmuth Cllege-led study analyzing stne tls frm suthern China prvides the 56 (early)
evidence f rice harvesting, dating t as early as 10,000 years ag.
Wild rice is different frm farmed rice in that wild rice naturally lses ripe seeds, causing them 57 (fall) t
the grund when they mature, while farmed rice seeds stay n the plants when they mature.
T harvest rice, sme srt f tls wuld have been needed. In harvesting rice 58 tls, early farmers were
selecting the seeds that stayed n the plants, s gradually the number f seeds that remained 59 (increase),
resulting in dmesticatin(驯化).
The researchers identified tw methds f harvesting rice, which 60 (use) in suthern China 7,000—
10,000 years ag—“finger-knife” and “sickle(镰刀型的)” techniques.
The stne tls frm the early phase (8,200—10,000 years ag) shwed that rice was largely harvested 61
(adpt) the finger-knife methd— rice was harvested frm the tp f the plant.
The stne tls, hwever, frm the later phase (7,000—8,000 years ag) had mre evidence f sickle
harvesting in 62 the lwer part f the plant was harvested.
“Sickle harvesting was mre 63 (wide) used when rice became mre dmesticated, and mre ripe seeds
stayed n the plant,” says ne f the researchers. “Since yu are harvesting the entire plant in a single 64
(perate), the rice leaves and stems(茎) culd als be used fr fuel, building materials, and ther purpses, making
this 65 much mre effective harvesting methd.”
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 40 分)
第一节 (满分 15 分)
假定你是李华,James 是在你所在城市学习的留学生朋友。他给你发来邮件,告知想在今年暑假去体
验乡村生活,并征求你的建议。请你给他回一封邮件,内容包括:
1.你的建议; 2.建议的理由(至少两点)。
注意:
1.写作词数应为 80 左右; 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear James,
I'm glad t hear abut yur summer plan!
Best wishes,
Li Hua
第二节 (满分 25 分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
When I was arund nine years ld, I realized my family ften struggled with mney. It wasn't difficult t
ntice— smetimes ur refrigeratr was packed with fd, while ther times it stayed almst empty. I understd
raising fur children alne was challenging fr my mm and her budget, but Christmas made me truly grasp hw
difficult things really were.
One winter evening befre Christmas, Mm tld us in a sad vice, “I'm afraid there wn't be Christmas-this
year. Santa(圣诞老人) feels terrible, and he can't make any gifts right nw.” We stared at her, surprised. N
Christmas? That sunded impssible! Althugh I had started t dubt Santa was real, my five-year-ld brther
Ryan still believed cmpletely. If Mm said Santa culdn't prvide gifts, it really meant she culdn't. The thught
f n gifts under the tree left-us-feeling hpeless, althugh Mm said she wuld try asking Santa t change his
mind.
My sisters and I mved thrugh daily rutines like rbts— attending schl, ding husewrk, finishing
hmewrk, eating, then sleeping. Only Ryan remained cheerful, t yung t understand ur family's sadness.
As Christmas drew nearer, we decrated ur Christmas tree as usual in the living rm despite ur lw spirits.
On Christmas Eve, we went t bed with heavy hearts, expecting n special mrning.
Then in the early mrning, Ryan's excited shuts wke me. He kept jumping arund ur small apartment,
shuting, “Santa came! Santa came! He really came!”
注意:
1、续写词数应为 150 左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
l rushed int the living rm, feeling shcked at what I saw
Suddenly I nticed the silver necklace(项链) arund Mm's neck was gne!
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