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【开学考】2024年新九年级上册英语（辽宁专用）开学摸底考试卷
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这是一份【开学考】2024年新九年级上册英语（辽宁专用）开学摸底考试卷，文件包含英语辽宁专用解析版docx、英语辽宁专用考试版docx、英语辽宁专用参考答案docx、英语辽宁专用答题卡docx、英语辽宁专用答题卡pdf等5份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共26页， 欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分选择题(共50分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分;满分40分)
第一节阅读下面语言材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
（A）
Cathy is an American girl. Last summer, her family had a trip t China. Here is their trip rute (线路).
1．Cathy’s family chse the htel in Beijing mainly because f its ________.
A．priceB．serviceC．lcatinD．envirnment
2．Hw did the family g t Xi’an?
A．By air.B．By train.C．By bus.D．By car.
3．Jane didn’t jin the bike ride prbably because ________.
A．she was t yungB．she had t leave early
C．she culdn’t speak ChineseD．she was ver 1.6 meters tall
4．What can we learn frm the reading?
A．There are five peple in Cathy’s family.
B．Cathy learned paper cutting in Xi’an.
C．Cathy’s family stayed the lngest in Beijing.
D．The weather in Shanghai was cludy during the trip.
【答案】1．C 2．B 3．A 4．C
【解析】本文是Cathy和家人来中国旅游的路线。
1．细节理解题。根据“We chse it because it is just 15 minutes’ walk t the Frbidden City.”可知，他们选择那家宾馆的原因是从那里步行到紫禁城只需15分钟，所以是因为地点。故选C。
2．细节理解题。根据“Spent abut five hurs n the train ging there”可知，他们乘火车去的西安。故选B。
3．推理判断题。根据“nly fr adults and kids ver 10 r taller than 1.4 meters”可知，10岁以上或者超过1.4米才能骑自行车，Jane没骑自行车的原因可能是太小了，故选A。
4．推理判断题。通读全文可知，Cathy一家在北京待了4天，在西安待了2天，在上海待了2天，因此在北京待的时间最长，选项C正确，故选C。
（B）
In March 2019, at the age f 21, Marg Hayes became the first wman t finish three f the wrld’s hardest climbs when she successfully reached the tp f Papichul in Spain. She had already climbed La Rambla, Spain and Bigrafie, France in 2017. She was nly 19 when she became the first wman t climb La Rambla, which is ne f the hardest rck faces in the wrld t climb. It seems this yung wman frm Bulder, Clrad was certain t becme a recrd-breaking climber.
She cmes frm a family f climbers, s that helps! Her grandfather was the expeditin (探险队) leader n a new way t the tp f Munt Everest in 1983 and her father has climbed many f the rck walls f Ysemite Valley, Califrnia. But that’s nt enugh. Talent and training play an imprtant part. Marg was a talented gymnast (体操运动员) and at the age f six, she was training fr an Olympic gld medal. Unluckily, she had t give up gymnastics because f a serius accident, but by the age f ten, she had jined Team ABC, a well-knwn training grup fr yung climbers in Texas.
Yu wn’t be surprised t hear that Marg is very serius abut her sprt. She always has new gals she wants t achieve. She rganizes her training and climbs with the greatest precisin. She believes a full planning befre a climb is necessary fr success. Yu can’t risk making mistakes when yu’re high up n a rck face. Befre she starts a climb, she chses the best way and plans every mve she’ll make n the rck face. She says it’s an amazing feeling t finish a climb that yu have been imagining in yur head fr s lng. She enjys her climbs and lves the feel f the rck as well as the views f fantastic scenery. Reaching the tp is an exciting experience.
5．Why did Marg Hayes stp ding gymnastics?
A．She nce gt seriusly hurt.
B．She gt tired and lst interest.
C．She wanted t climb muntains.
D．She wanted t d better at schl.
6．Which is the crrect time rder f the fllwing events?
①Marg Hayes jined a training grup fr yung climbers.
②Marg Hayes finished three f the wrld’s hardest climbs.
③Marg Hayes became the first wman t climb La Rambla.
④Marg Hayes trained in gymnastics fr the Olympic Games.
A．③②④① B．④①②③ C．③②①④ D．④①③②
7．What des the underlined wrd “precisin” prbably mean in Paragraph 3?
A．Excitement. B．Kindness. C．Carefulness. D．Hnesty.
8．Which is the best title fr the text?
A．Marg Hayes: A Great Climber
B．La Rambla: The Hardest Climb
C．The Hayes: A Climbing Family
D．Climbing: The Biggest Challenge
【答案】5．A 6．D 7．C 8．A
【解析】本文主要讲述了21岁的登山者Marg Hayes所取得的骄人成绩，并讲述了她的成长背景和她对攀登的热爱。
5．细节理解题。由第二段中“Unluckily, she had t give up gymnastics because f a serius accident”可知，她不得不放弃体操是由于一次严重的事故，故选A。
6．细节理解题。由文中“Marg was a talented gymnast and at the age f six, she was training fr an Olympic gld medal. ”、“ but by the age f ten, she had jined Team ABC, a well-knwn training grup fr yung climbers in Texas.”、“ She was nly 19 when she became the first wman t climb La Rambla... ”以及“In March 2019, at the age f 21, Marg Hayes became the first wman t finish three f the wrld’s hardest climbs...”所提到的年龄和事件可知，正确的时间顺序是④①③②。故选D。
7．词义猜测题。由画线词的下文“She believes a full planning befre a climb is necessary fr she starts a climb, she chses the best way and plans every mve she’ll make n the rck face. ”可知，她认为在攀登之前做好充分的计划是成功的必要条件，在攀登前她计划好了在岩壁上的每一步。证明她计划得很精确、仔细，选项C “Carefulness(仔细)” 符合语境，故选C。
8．最佳标题题。由第一段“ In March 2019, at the age f 21, Marg Hayes became the first wman t finish three f the wrld’s hardest had already climbed La Rambla, Spain and Bigrafie, France in 2017.”以及全文可知，文章主要讲述了登山者Marg Hayes所取得的骄人成绩、成长背景和她对攀登的热爱。A选项“Marg Hayes: 伟大的登山者” 符合主题，故选A。
(C)
Sitting all day may make yu feel unhealthy. What can yu d abut it? Maybe yu can turn t Animal Flw.
Created by a famus fitness cach Mike Fitch in 2015, Animal Flw is a fun way t exercise. Yu mve yur bdy n the grund as different animals d when yu practise Animal Flw. Yu dn’t need any equipment (器材) fr it, but it helps yu becme strnger.
When practising Animal Flw, yu get yur bdy t mve in different ways, such as walking like a duck and jumping like a frg. The mvements lk easy. In fact, they help yu get a full-bdy wrkut. Take Crab Reach as an example. Start frm sitting n the grund. Lift yur hips (臀部) up ff the grund and balance n ne arm. As yu rise up, try t extend (伸展) the ther arm backward. Make sure yur bdy frms a line frm yur shulders t knees. The mvement can make yur tired bdy relaxed after yu sit fr lng.
Here are sme tips t get Animal Flw started in the right way. Find a quiet place. Dn’t chse rcky areas r beaches because they make yu feel tired quickly. Als, yu’d better nt wear shes. It’s gd fr yu t imprve balance. Warm up yur wrists (手腕). They hld the weight f yur bdy in many Animal Flw mvements. Remember t d sme basic mvements first if yu’re t fat, r yu’ll easily get hurt.
Take yur time and mve slwly t get the mst frm Animal Flw.
9．What can we learn abut Animal Flw frm the passage?
A．It depends n equipment.B．A famus dctr created it.
C．Peple practise it with animals.D．It needs practising n the grund.
10．Which picture shws Crab Reach?
A．B．C．D．
11．What shuld peple d t start Animal Flw?
A．Lse weight befre it.B．Find places like beaches.
C．Practise withut shes.D．Prtect the wrists with medicine
12．Why des the writer write the passage?
A．T tell the histry f Animal Flw.B．T shw hw t practise Animal Flw
C．T share the advantages f Animal FlwD．T encurage peple t practise Animal Flw.
【答案】9．D 10．A 11．C 12．D
【解析】本文主要介绍了一种锻炼方式——“动物流”训练。
9．细节理解题。根据“Yu mve yur bdy n the grund as different animals d when yu practise Animal Flw.”可知，当你练习“动物流”时，要在地上练习，故选D。
10．细节理解题。根据“Take Crab Reach as an example. Start frm sitting n the grund. Lift yur hips (臀部) up ff the grund and balance n ne arm. As yu rise up, try t extend (伸展) the ther arm backward. Make sure yur bdy frms a line frm yur shulders t knees.”可知，以Crab Reach为例，从坐在地上开始，抬起臀部，单臂保持平衡。当你起身时，试着向后伸展另一只手臂，确保你的身体从肩膀到膝盖成一条直线，A项符合描述，故选A。
11．细节理解题。根据“Find a quiet place. Dn’t chse rcky areas r beaches because they make yu feel tired quickly. Als, yu’d better nt wear shes.”可知，练习时最好不要穿鞋，故选C。
12．主旨大意题。根据“Take yur time and mve slwly t get the mst frm Animal Flw.”可知，本文主要介绍了“动物流”训练，写本文是为了鼓励大家一起练习“动物流”。故选D。
（D）
Have yu ever rdered a pie and received it frm the sky? If nt, yu might successfully d it in the near future because Meituan is allwed t t start drne delivery service (无人机配送服务), Shenzhen Evening News reprted.
At Galaxy Wrld in Lnggang District, a reprter frm the newspaper watched hw a meal has been delivered by the drne n Thursday. The drne slwly landed and a dr abve the Meituan Intelligent Dining Cabinet (储藏柜) pened slwly, where the drne put the meal bx inside the cabinet.
“It takes abut 15 minutes t place the rder and receive the meal. A lt f peple have tried the drne delivery service here,” said a wman wh just tk her meal bx ut frm the cabinet.
During the year 2022, fd and drinks such as ndles, fruits, cffee and milk tea and even flwers have been delivered thrugh Meituan’s drne delivery system (系统), the reprt said.
The cmpany said that it had cmpleted ver 100,000 drne deliveries by last year. Meituan started t explre drne delivery service in 2017 and started the try in early 2021. It mstly takes nly 12 minutes fr the drne delivery system t deal with an rder, which is less than traditinal delivery ways, accrding t the cmpany.
There are nly a few cities in the wrld with the high technlgy f drne delivery service, and Shenzhen is taking the lead in China, accrding t the reprt. Hwever, there are still sme prblems with this kind f service.
13．Where is the meal bx put?
A．In Lnggang District.B．At Galaxy Wrld.
C．By the dr.D．Inside the cabinet.
14．What is the main idea f the secnd paragraph?
A．Where the drne landed.B．When the service started.
C．Hw the service prvided.D．Wh watched the drne.
15．What is the meaning f the underlined wrd “explre” in Paragraph 5?
A．Explain.B．Research.C．Cpy.D．Repair.
16．What is the passage ging t talk abut next?
A．Hw t make gd use f the drne delivery service.
B．What prblems the drne delivery service faces.
C．Hw t slve the prblems f the drne delivery service.
D．Why Shenzhen is taking the lead.
【答案】13．D 14．C 15．B 16．B
【解析】本文介绍了美团无人机送餐服务，包括其操作流程，研发过程以及前景等信息。
13．细节理解题。根据“The drne slwly landed and a dr abve the Meituan Intelligent Dining Cabinet (储藏柜) pened slwly, where the drne put the meal bx inside the cabinet.”可知餐食在储藏柜里。故选D。
14．段落大意题。根据“a reprter frm the newspaper watched hw a meal has been delivered by the drne n Thursday. The drne slwly landed and a dr abve the Meituan Intelligent Dining Cabinet (储藏柜) pened slwly, where the drne put the meal bx inside the cabinet.”及第二段可知，本段主要介绍了无人机是如何送餐的，C项符合文意，故选C。
15．词义猜测题。根据“Meituan started t explre drne delivery service in 2017 and started the try in early 2021.”可知，后句提到了在2021年开始尝试了无人机送餐，因此前面划线词指的是在2017年“探索”无人机送餐，explre意为“探索”，与research同义，故选B。
16．推理判断题。根据“Hwever, there are still sme prblems with this kind f service.”可知，接下来要说无人机送餐面临的哪些问题。故选B。
第二节 阅读短文，从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有一个多余的选项。
OpenAI has nce again surprised the wrld with its latest AI tl, Sra. 17 Just give it sme text instructins, like “a Chinese New Year celebratin”, and yu’ll get a vide that matches the descriptin. Many peple wrry that the tl will put many filmmakers ut f business.
Similar wrries have been heard since ChatGPT was used. Many peple are afraid that industries (产业) such as translatin, teaching and design will all disappear (消失). It seems we can use AI t d anything.
Des that mean we n lnger need t wrk hard t learn knwledge and skills urselves? Well, the answer is “N!” Even in the age f AI, knwledge is still pwer. 18 AI knws a lt, but fr nw at least, it needs instructins. In ther wrds, yu must cmmunicate with it.
Yu als need t exercise yur imaginatin (想象力) mre actively. Take the Chinese New Year celebratin vide in Paragraph 1 fr example. 19 Yu need t describe yur instructins with mre details, such as time, places and persns.
20 After an AI tl gives yu an answer, yu need t decide if all the infrmatin is crrect by yurself. T d this, yu need at least sme basic knwledge abut the subjects.
If yu think AI gives yu a chance f being lazy, it’s time t stp daydreaming. Wrk harder n yur studies, and yu’ll be better prepared t wrk with AI.
【答案】17．E 18．C 19．A 20．B
【解析】本文主要介绍了最新产品Sra再次震惊了世界。
17．根据“OpenAI has nce again surprised the wrld with its latest AI tl, Sra.”可知，此处讲“做了什么使世界震惊”，E选项“它可以制作长达一分钟的视频。”符合，故选E。
18．根据“Even in the age f AI, knwledge is still pwer.”及“AI knws a lt, but fr nw at least, it needs instructins.”可知，此处与“知识”有关，C选项“事实上，AI可能需要你学习更多。”符合，故选C。
19．根据“Yu als need t exercise yur imaginatin (想象力) mre actively.”及“Yu need t describe yur instructins with mre details, such as time, places and persns.”可知，此处与“你”有关，A选项“你不能事事依赖Sra。”符合，故选A。
20．根据“After an AI tl gives yu an answer, yu need t decide if all the infrmatin is crrect by yurself.”可知，此处与“判断对错”有关，B选项“记住，人工智能也会犯错。”符合，故选B。
二、完形填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读短文，理解其大意，从A、B、C、D匹四个选项中出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My dad asked me t vlunteer with him in Meals On Wheels when I was 13 years ld. We 21 every Saturday mrning during the summer while I was ff schl. We give ut ht meals t the ld peple in ur twn.
It gave me a huge sense f 22 because it was my first vlunteering experience. I felt like I was helping my cmmunity. That made me realize that I was 23 .
It als helped me knw sme f the difficulties the ld peple faced. They have truble in mving arund and many f them are 24 withut any children arund. Sme f the ld peple even asked us t 25 fr five mre minutes fr a small chat—it brke my heart at the time! And it 26 me t visit my grandparents mre ften. The mst imprtant thing is that I shuld listen t them mre 27 .
At 13, it’s quite easy fr me t nly 28 myself. The vlunteering experience made me a better persn and made me think a lt mre abut ther peple and their needs. It was als quite special fr me because my dad and I wuld g fr a 29 alng the street and talk abut anything. S I nt nly gt a great feeling frm helping peple in need, but als gt a better 30 with my father. Vlunteering gives me a chance t change peple’s lives, including my wn.
21．A．cleanedB．repairedC．vlunteeredD．trained
22．A．satisfactinB．interestC．riskD．care
23．A．independentB．imprtantC．disabledD．lnely
24．A．stressedB．shckedC．lnelyD．brken
25．A．stayB．cntrlC．cleanD．imagine
26．A．cmparedB．remindedC．allwedD．caused
27．A．silentlyB．trulyC．cmpletelyD．carefully
28．A．wrry abutB．talk abutC．hear abutD．think abut
29．A．walkB．snackC．wasteD．mess
30．A．situatinB．relatinC．imaginatinD．cmpetitin
【答案】
21．C 22．A 23．B 24．C 25．A 26．B 27．D 28．D 29．A 30．B
【解析】本文主要记叙了作者从事志愿者工作时的经历和感受。
21．句意：在暑假期间，当我放假的时候，我们每个星期六早上都会去做志愿者。
cleaned清理；repaired修理；vlunteered做志愿；trained训练。根据前文“My dad asked me t vlunteer with him in Meals On Wheels when I was 13 years ld.”可知，我 13 岁的时候，父亲要求我和他一起去“送餐上门”做志愿者。故选C。
22．句意：这让我感到非常满足，因为这是我的第一次志愿者经历。
satisfactin满足；interest兴趣；risk冒险；care关心。根据后文“I felt like I was helping my cmmunity. That made me realize that I was...”可知，我感觉自己正在帮助社区，所以做志愿者让我有一种满足感。故选A。
23．句意：这让我意识到我很重要。
independent独立的；imprtant重要的；disabled残疾的；lnely孤独的。根据“I felt like I was helping my cmmunity”可知，我感觉自己正在帮助我的社区，所以感觉自己很重要。故选B。
24．句意：他们行动不便，而且很多没有孩子在身边，显得孤独。
stressed有压力的；shcked震惊的；lnely孤独的；brken坏的。根据后文说没有孩子在身边，所以是孤独。故选C。
25．句意：有些老人还要求我们多待五分钟，聊聊天，当时我的心都碎了！
stay待；cntrl控制；clean清理；imagine想象。根据“ five mre minutes fr a small chat”可知是和他们多待五分钟。故选A。
26．句意：它也提醒我要经常去看望我的祖父母。
cmpared比较；reminded提醒；allwed允许；caused造成。根据前文说的有些老人会要求多陪陪他们，所以这会提醒作者要关注自己家的老人。故选B。
27．句意：最重要的是我应该更认真地听他们说话。
silently安静地；truly真地；cmpletely完全地；carefully仔细地。根据“listen t them mre”并结合所给的词可知，应是更仔细地听他们说话。故选D。
28．句意：13 岁时，我很容易只考虑自己。
wrry abut担心；talk abut谈论关于；hear abut听说；think abut考虑。根据后文“The vlunteering experience made me a better persn and made me think a lt mre abut ther peple and their needs.”可知，志愿者的经历让我成为一个更好的人，让我更多地考虑其他人和他们的需求。所以前文是考虑自己。故选D。
29．句意：这对我来说也很特别，因为我和爸爸会沿街散步，谈论任何事情。
walk散步；snack小吃；waste浪费；mess混乱。根据后文“alng the street”可知是沿着街道散步。故选A。
30．句意：因此，我不仅从帮助有需要的人中获得了很棒的感觉，而且与父亲的关系也得到了更好的改善。
situatin情况；relatin关系；imaginatin想象；cmpetitin比赛。根据“gt a my father”可知，是和爸爸有一个更好的关系。故选B。
第二部分非选择题(共40分)
三、语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空，使短文通顺、连贯。
【答案】
31．abut 32．t taste 33．hundreds 34．shelves 35．a 36．me 37．actively 38．if/whether 39．mre nervus 40．have passed
【解析】本文主要介绍了几个人初次尝试做的一些特别的事情。
31．句意：那是我第一次去，所以我对埃及食物一无所知。knw abut sth“了解某物”。故填abut。
32．句意：我的一个朋友给我看了Kfta，我迫不及待地想尝一些。can’t wait t d sth“迫不及待做某事”。故填t taste。
33．句意：刚开始，味道还好，但后来我就想喝几百杯水！hundreds f“好几百的”。故填hundreds。
34．句意：进入房间时，我注意到几群陌生人在柜子旁或一张长桌旁交谈。shelf为可数名词，根据“sme”可知此处应用其复数形式。故填shelves。
35．句意：一个长发女孩走过来，面带微笑说了声“你好”。smile为单数名词，且nice为辅音音素开头的单词，其前应用不定冠词a。故填a。
36．句意：她热情的欢迎让我倍感放松。made为动词，其后用人称代词I的宾格me作宾语。故填me。
37．句意： 当天晚些时候，我积极地和笔友们进行了交谈。had为动词，用副词actively修饰动词。故填actively。
38．句意：我哥哥结婚时，他问我能不能在他的婚礼上发言。根据“I culd make a speech (发言) at his wedding”可知，此处应用if或whether引导宾语从句，表示“是否”。故填if/whether。
39．句意：我站起身时，感觉更加紧张。much修饰比较级，根据“gt”可知此处应用形容词nervus的比较级mre nervus。故填mre nervus。
40．句意：到目前为止，我已经通过了几个公共演讲的测试了。根据“S far”可知句子应用现在完成时，主语为I，助动词用have，pass的过去分词为passed。故填have passed。
四、阅读与表达(共4小题，41~43小题每小题2分，44小题4分;满分10分)
阅读短文，然后根据内容回答问题。
April 22, 2024 marks the 55th Wrld Earth Day. This year’s theme is “Planet vs. Plastics” (全球战塑). S, I decided t try smething different: a whle day withut using any plastic. It sunded exciting, but it was quite hard.
My mrning started with a hmemade breakfast in a glass bwl. But later when I tried t rder juice as usual, I had t give up because f thse plastic cups. I faced a bigger prblem at the supermarket. Almst everything was wrapped (包装) in plastic—frm fruits and vegetables t meat. It made me realize that plastic is everywhere, making it hard t carry n with my n-plastic plan.
Plastic is widely used in ur daily life. It can be made int all kinds f things such as bags, bttles and tys. It’s tugh (牢固的) and it’s really light. S we depend heavily n it.
But there’s ne thing: Using t much plastic can be harmful t the envirnment. Humans use abut ne millin plastic bttles every minute, and mre than 5 trillin （万亿）plastic bags are used each year, accrding t a United Natins reprt. The wrld prduces 200 millin tns f plastic waste each year, but nly less than 10 percent has been recycled. Mst f them end up in the lakes, rivers and ceans, hurting animals and nature.
T make a difference, China stpped the prductin, sale and use f plastic shpping bags with a thickness f less than 0.025 mm in 2008. Frm 2010 t 2020, China recycled 170 millin tns f waste plastic. These have helped reduce plastic waste.
Let’s jin hands and make a clean and beautiful wrld.
41．What did the writer decide t d t supprt the Wrld Earth Day?
___________________________________________________________________________________________
42．Accrding t the passage, why is plastic useful but harmful? (N mre than 20 wrds.)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Hw many tns f plastic waste have been recycled in the wrld each year ?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
44．What can yu d t help reduce plastic waste?（write 30 wrds r mre）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】41．He decided t try smething different: a whle day withut using any plastic. 42．Because plastic is widely used in ur daily life, but using t much plastic can be harmful t the envirnment. 43. Less than 20 millin tns. 44．I will try my best nt t use plastic prducts.fr example,When I g shpping ,I wn’t use clth bags instead f plastic bags.I will use wd,glass r metal in my life.
【解析】本文简述了塑料的广泛使用及其对环境的影响，特别是塑料垃圾对自然和动物的危害。同时，提到了中国为减少塑料污染所采取的措施，并呼吁大家共同努力，保护环境，减少塑料使用。
41．根据“S, I decided t try smething different: a whle day withut using any plastic.”可知，作者决定尝试一些不同的东西：一整天不使用任何塑料。故填He decided t try smething different: a whle day withut using any plastic.
42．根据“Plastic is widely used in ur daily life.”及“But there’s ne thing: Using t much plastic can be harmful t the envirnment.”可知，因为塑料在我们的日常生活中被广泛使用，但使用过多的塑料会对环境有害。故填Because plastic is widely used in ur daily life, but using t much plastic can be harmful t the envirnment.
43.根据“The wrld prduces 200 millin tns f plastic waste each year, but nly less than 10 percent has been recycled. ”可知，每年全世界产生2亿吨塑料垃圾，而只有不到百分之十的垃圾被循环，即不到2千万吨垃圾被循环，故填Less than 20 millin tns.
44．开放性试题，言之有理即可。参考答案为：I will try my best nt t use plastic prducts.fr example,When I g shpping ,I wn’t use clth bags instead f plastic bags.I will use wd,glass r metal in my life.
五、书面表达（满分20分）
45.旅行，拓宽视野；阅读，滋养心灵。本月校园广播站“英语时光”栏目拟开展主题为“Reading r Travelling”的分享活动，请以“I like________（travelling/reading） mre”为题，用英语一篇发言稿。
要点如下：
1. Explain why yu like travelling r reading mre;
2. Share ne f yur travelling r reading experiences;
3. Offer advice n travelling r reading in summer hliday.
注意：
1. 词数90左右；短文开头结尾已给出；不计入总词数；
2. 内容需涵盖所有要点，可适当发挥；
3. 文中不得出现与考生相关的真实校名和姓名等信息。
I like_______(travelling/reading) mre
Gd mrning, dear teachers and friends!
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all fr tday’s sharing. Thanks fr listening!
【答案】例文
I like reading mre
Gd mrning, dear teachers and friends!
Reading is a lifelng jurney and plays an imprtant part in ur life. It can nt nly pen ur minds but als make us get mre useful knwledge that we can’t learn frm schl bks. I ften read bks abut histry and sme interesting nvels in my free time. The mre I read, the mre thughtful I will be. I didn’t use t read befre. I spent much time in playing games, watching TV r listening t music. Finally I realized it was bad fr me, s I tk up reading. Reading has made my life clurful and meaningful. I read bks at least three times a week nw.
If yu enjy reading, I think first yu shuld read the bks yu like. Secndly, yu need t develp gd reading habits. Finally, yu need t take reading ntes frequently.
That’s all fr tday’s sharing. Thanks fr listening!
【详解】
[总体分析]
①题材：本文是一篇发言稿；
②时态：时态为一般现在时和一般过去时；
③提示：写作要点已给出，注意不要遗漏提示中的要点，可适当添加细节，并突出写作要点。
[写作步骤]
第一步，按题目要求填入标题“I like travelling/reading mre”。
第二步，根据提示内容解释你为什么喜欢旅行或多读书，分享一次旅行或阅读经历，再提供暑假旅行或阅读方面的建议。
[亮点词汇]
①plays an imprtant part 扮演一个重要的角色
②spend much time in ding 花费很多时间做某事
③need t d sth. 需要做某事
[高分句型]
①It can nt nly pen ur minds but als make us get mre useful knwledge that we can’t learn frm schl bks.（nt nly…but als…句型，that引导的定语从句）
②If yu enjy reading, I think first yu shuld read the bks yu like.（if引导的条件状语从句）
Stp ne Beijing, the capital city f China
Day 1:
Arrived in Beijing by airplane
Checked in the Nvtel Beijing Peace Htel ( We chse it because it is just 15 minutes’ walk t the Frbidden City.) Day 2:
Walked thrugh ld streets and hutng
Learned traditinal crafts (手艺) like kite making and paper cutting Day 3 t 4:
Visited places f interest such as the Great Wall and the Summer Palace
Stp tw Xi’an, Shaanxi
Day 5:
◇Spent abut five hurs n the train ging there
◇Watched a light shw
Day 6:
Visited the Terractta Warrirs (兵马俑)
Visited the Xi’an City Wall
Mm and I went fr a bike ride n the wall (nly fr adults and kids ver 10 r taller than 1.4 meters) while Dad and my little sister Jane tk the sightseeing car.
Stp three Shanghai, a city mixing the new and the ld
Day 7:
Visited the new part f Shanghai in the mrning
Visited the ld buildings in the afternnDay 8:
B ught sme gifts fr ur friends and relatives
A．Yu can’t depend n Sra fr everything.
B．And remember that AI can make mistakes.
C．In fact, AI may need yu t learn mre.
D．With Sra, we can make better vides in the future.
E．It can make vides up t ne minute lng.
Is there anything special yu’ve dne fr the first time?
Australia Jun 1, 2024 11:55 AM
Barbara，USA JUN 2, 2024 10:30 PM
Abut a year ag, we went t an Egyptian restaurant. It was my first time, s I didn’t knw anything 34 Egyptian fd. One f my friends shwed me Kfta, and I culdn’t wait 35 (taste) sme. At first, it seemed OK, but then I’d like t drink 36 (hundred) f glasses f water! I wn’t d that again.
Ingrid, UK JUN 4, 2024 11:47AM
I still remember my first experience t meet my pen friends. When I came int the rm, I nticed grups f strangers talking, near sme 37 (shelf) r by a lng table. I ften felt shy when I was with strangers, s I stayed behind thers at first. A girl with lng hair came ver and said “Hell” with 38 nice smile. Her warm welcme made 39 (I) feel relaxed. Later that day, I had a talk with my pen friends 40 (active).
Hanif, Sweden JUN 7, 2024 1:07 PM
When my elder brther gt married, he asked me 41 I culd make a speech (发言) at his wedding. I’d never dne that befre, but I said, “Sure.” Befre the wedding, I thught f sme nice things t say. Easy! But n the day, just befre I had t speak, I started t shake. When I std up, I gt much 42 (nervus). My muth went dry and I almst frgt my wrds. Frm then n, I had lessns abut public speaking. S far I 43 (pass) several public speaking tests.
Shw mre
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分选择题(共50分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分;满分40分)
第一节阅读下面语言材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
（A）
Cathy is an American girl. Last summer, her family had a trip t China. Here is their trip rute (线路).
1．Cathy’s family chse the htel in Beijing mainly because f its ________.
A．priceB．serviceC．lcatinD．envirnment
2．Hw did the family g t Xi’an?
A．By air.B．By train.C．By bus.D．By car.
3．Jane didn’t jin the bike ride prbably because ________.
A．she was t yungB．she had t leave early
C．she culdn’t speak ChineseD．she was ver 1.6 meters tall
4．What can we learn frm the reading?
A．There are five peple in Cathy’s family.
B．Cathy learned paper cutting in Xi’an.
C．Cathy’s family stayed the lngest in Beijing.
D．The weather in Shanghai was cludy during the trip.
【答案】1．C 2．B 3．A 4．C
【解析】本文是Cathy和家人来中国旅游的路线。
1．细节理解题。根据“We chse it because it is just 15 minutes’ walk t the Frbidden City.”可知，他们选择那家宾馆的原因是从那里步行到紫禁城只需15分钟，所以是因为地点。故选C。
2．细节理解题。根据“Spent abut five hurs n the train ging there”可知，他们乘火车去的西安。故选B。
3．推理判断题。根据“nly fr adults and kids ver 10 r taller than 1.4 meters”可知，10岁以上或者超过1.4米才能骑自行车，Jane没骑自行车的原因可能是太小了，故选A。
4．推理判断题。通读全文可知，Cathy一家在北京待了4天，在西安待了2天，在上海待了2天，因此在北京待的时间最长，选项C正确，故选C。
（B）
In March 2019, at the age f 21, Marg Hayes became the first wman t finish three f the wrld’s hardest climbs when she successfully reached the tp f Papichul in Spain. She had already climbed La Rambla, Spain and Bigrafie, France in 2017. She was nly 19 when she became the first wman t climb La Rambla, which is ne f the hardest rck faces in the wrld t climb. It seems this yung wman frm Bulder, Clrad was certain t becme a recrd-breaking climber.
She cmes frm a family f climbers, s that helps! Her grandfather was the expeditin (探险队) leader n a new way t the tp f Munt Everest in 1983 and her father has climbed many f the rck walls f Ysemite Valley, Califrnia. But that’s nt enugh. Talent and training play an imprtant part. Marg was a talented gymnast (体操运动员) and at the age f six, she was training fr an Olympic gld medal. Unluckily, she had t give up gymnastics because f a serius accident, but by the age f ten, she had jined Team ABC, a well-knwn training grup fr yung climbers in Texas.
Yu wn’t be surprised t hear that Marg is very serius abut her sprt. She always has new gals she wants t achieve. She rganizes her training and climbs with the greatest precisin. She believes a full planning befre a climb is necessary fr success. Yu can’t risk making mistakes when yu’re high up n a rck face. Befre she starts a climb, she chses the best way and plans every mve she’ll make n the rck face. She says it’s an amazing feeling t finish a climb that yu have been imagining in yur head fr s lng. She enjys her climbs and lves the feel f the rck as well as the views f fantastic scenery. Reaching the tp is an exciting experience.
5．Why did Marg Hayes stp ding gymnastics?
A．She nce gt seriusly hurt.
B．She gt tired and lst interest.
C．She wanted t climb muntains.
D．She wanted t d better at schl.
6．Which is the crrect time rder f the fllwing events?
①Marg Hayes jined a training grup fr yung climbers.
②Marg Hayes finished three f the wrld’s hardest climbs.
③Marg Hayes became the first wman t climb La Rambla.
④Marg Hayes trained in gymnastics fr the Olympic Games.
A．③②④① B．④①②③ C．③②①④ D．④①③②
7．What des the underlined wrd “precisin” prbably mean in Paragraph 3?
A．Excitement. B．Kindness. C．Carefulness. D．Hnesty.
8．Which is the best title fr the text?
A．Marg Hayes: A Great Climber
B．La Rambla: The Hardest Climb
C．The Hayes: A Climbing Family
D．Climbing: The Biggest Challenge
【答案】5．A 6．D 7．C 8．A
【解析】本文主要讲述了21岁的登山者Marg Hayes所取得的骄人成绩，并讲述了她的成长背景和她对攀登的热爱。
5．细节理解题。由第二段中“Unluckily, she had t give up gymnastics because f a serius accident”可知，她不得不放弃体操是由于一次严重的事故，故选A。
6．细节理解题。由文中“Marg was a talented gymnast and at the age f six, she was training fr an Olympic gld medal. ”、“ but by the age f ten, she had jined Team ABC, a well-knwn training grup fr yung climbers in Texas.”、“ She was nly 19 when she became the first wman t climb La Rambla... ”以及“In March 2019, at the age f 21, Marg Hayes became the first wman t finish three f the wrld’s hardest climbs...”所提到的年龄和事件可知，正确的时间顺序是④①③②。故选D。
7．词义猜测题。由画线词的下文“She believes a full planning befre a climb is necessary fr she starts a climb, she chses the best way and plans every mve she’ll make n the rck face. ”可知，她认为在攀登之前做好充分的计划是成功的必要条件，在攀登前她计划好了在岩壁上的每一步。证明她计划得很精确、仔细，选项C “Carefulness(仔细)” 符合语境，故选C。
8．最佳标题题。由第一段“ In March 2019, at the age f 21, Marg Hayes became the first wman t finish three f the wrld’s hardest had already climbed La Rambla, Spain and Bigrafie, France in 2017.”以及全文可知，文章主要讲述了登山者Marg Hayes所取得的骄人成绩、成长背景和她对攀登的热爱。A选项“Marg Hayes: 伟大的登山者” 符合主题，故选A。
(C)
Sitting all day may make yu feel unhealthy. What can yu d abut it? Maybe yu can turn t Animal Flw.
Created by a famus fitness cach Mike Fitch in 2015, Animal Flw is a fun way t exercise. Yu mve yur bdy n the grund as different animals d when yu practise Animal Flw. Yu dn’t need any equipment (器材) fr it, but it helps yu becme strnger.
When practising Animal Flw, yu get yur bdy t mve in different ways, such as walking like a duck and jumping like a frg. The mvements lk easy. In fact, they help yu get a full-bdy wrkut. Take Crab Reach as an example. Start frm sitting n the grund. Lift yur hips (臀部) up ff the grund and balance n ne arm. As yu rise up, try t extend (伸展) the ther arm backward. Make sure yur bdy frms a line frm yur shulders t knees. The mvement can make yur tired bdy relaxed after yu sit fr lng.
Here are sme tips t get Animal Flw started in the right way. Find a quiet place. Dn’t chse rcky areas r beaches because they make yu feel tired quickly. Als, yu’d better nt wear shes. It’s gd fr yu t imprve balance. Warm up yur wrists (手腕). They hld the weight f yur bdy in many Animal Flw mvements. Remember t d sme basic mvements first if yu’re t fat, r yu’ll easily get hurt.
Take yur time and mve slwly t get the mst frm Animal Flw.
9．What can we learn abut Animal Flw frm the passage?
A．It depends n equipment.B．A famus dctr created it.
C．Peple practise it with animals.D．It needs practising n the grund.
10．Which picture shws Crab Reach?
A．B．C．D．
11．What shuld peple d t start Animal Flw?
A．Lse weight befre it.B．Find places like beaches.
C．Practise withut shes.D．Prtect the wrists with medicine
12．Why des the writer write the passage?
A．T tell the histry f Animal Flw.B．T shw hw t practise Animal Flw
C．T share the advantages f Animal FlwD．T encurage peple t practise Animal Flw.
【答案】9．D 10．A 11．C 12．D
【解析】本文主要介绍了一种锻炼方式——“动物流”训练。
9．细节理解题。根据“Yu mve yur bdy n the grund as different animals d when yu practise Animal Flw.”可知，当你练习“动物流”时，要在地上练习，故选D。
10．细节理解题。根据“Take Crab Reach as an example. Start frm sitting n the grund. Lift yur hips (臀部) up ff the grund and balance n ne arm. As yu rise up, try t extend (伸展) the ther arm backward. Make sure yur bdy frms a line frm yur shulders t knees.”可知，以Crab Reach为例，从坐在地上开始，抬起臀部，单臂保持平衡。当你起身时，试着向后伸展另一只手臂，确保你的身体从肩膀到膝盖成一条直线，A项符合描述，故选A。
11．细节理解题。根据“Find a quiet place. Dn’t chse rcky areas r beaches because they make yu feel tired quickly. Als, yu’d better nt wear shes.”可知，练习时最好不要穿鞋，故选C。
12．主旨大意题。根据“Take yur time and mve slwly t get the mst frm Animal Flw.”可知，本文主要介绍了“动物流”训练，写本文是为了鼓励大家一起练习“动物流”。故选D。
（D）
Have yu ever rdered a pie and received it frm the sky? If nt, yu might successfully d it in the near future because Meituan is allwed t t start drne delivery service (无人机配送服务), Shenzhen Evening News reprted.
At Galaxy Wrld in Lnggang District, a reprter frm the newspaper watched hw a meal has been delivered by the drne n Thursday. The drne slwly landed and a dr abve the Meituan Intelligent Dining Cabinet (储藏柜) pened slwly, where the drne put the meal bx inside the cabinet.
“It takes abut 15 minutes t place the rder and receive the meal. A lt f peple have tried the drne delivery service here,” said a wman wh just tk her meal bx ut frm the cabinet.
During the year 2022, fd and drinks such as ndles, fruits, cffee and milk tea and even flwers have been delivered thrugh Meituan’s drne delivery system (系统), the reprt said.
The cmpany said that it had cmpleted ver 100,000 drne deliveries by last year. Meituan started t explre drne delivery service in 2017 and started the try in early 2021. It mstly takes nly 12 minutes fr the drne delivery system t deal with an rder, which is less than traditinal delivery ways, accrding t the cmpany.
There are nly a few cities in the wrld with the high technlgy f drne delivery service, and Shenzhen is taking the lead in China, accrding t the reprt. Hwever, there are still sme prblems with this kind f service.
13．Where is the meal bx put?
A．In Lnggang District.B．At Galaxy Wrld.
C．By the dr.D．Inside the cabinet.
14．What is the main idea f the secnd paragraph?
A．Where the drne landed.B．When the service started.
C．Hw the service prvided.D．Wh watched the drne.
15．What is the meaning f the underlined wrd “explre” in Paragraph 5?
A．Explain.B．Research.C．Cpy.D．Repair.
16．What is the passage ging t talk abut next?
A．Hw t make gd use f the drne delivery service.
B．What prblems the drne delivery service faces.
C．Hw t slve the prblems f the drne delivery service.
D．Why Shenzhen is taking the lead.
【答案】13．D 14．C 15．B 16．B
【解析】本文介绍了美团无人机送餐服务，包括其操作流程，研发过程以及前景等信息。
13．细节理解题。根据“The drne slwly landed and a dr abve the Meituan Intelligent Dining Cabinet (储藏柜) pened slwly, where the drne put the meal bx inside the cabinet.”可知餐食在储藏柜里。故选D。
14．段落大意题。根据“a reprter frm the newspaper watched hw a meal has been delivered by the drne n Thursday. The drne slwly landed and a dr abve the Meituan Intelligent Dining Cabinet (储藏柜) pened slwly, where the drne put the meal bx inside the cabinet.”及第二段可知，本段主要介绍了无人机是如何送餐的，C项符合文意，故选C。
15．词义猜测题。根据“Meituan started t explre drne delivery service in 2017 and started the try in early 2021.”可知，后句提到了在2021年开始尝试了无人机送餐，因此前面划线词指的是在2017年“探索”无人机送餐，explre意为“探索”，与research同义，故选B。
16．推理判断题。根据“Hwever, there are still sme prblems with this kind f service.”可知，接下来要说无人机送餐面临的哪些问题。故选B。
第二节 阅读短文，从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有一个多余的选项。
OpenAI has nce again surprised the wrld with its latest AI tl, Sra. 17 Just give it sme text instructins, like “a Chinese New Year celebratin”, and yu’ll get a vide that matches the descriptin. Many peple wrry that the tl will put many filmmakers ut f business.
Similar wrries have been heard since ChatGPT was used. Many peple are afraid that industries (产业) such as translatin, teaching and design will all disappear (消失). It seems we can use AI t d anything.
Des that mean we n lnger need t wrk hard t learn knwledge and skills urselves? Well, the answer is “N!” Even in the age f AI, knwledge is still pwer. 18 AI knws a lt, but fr nw at least, it needs instructins. In ther wrds, yu must cmmunicate with it.
Yu als need t exercise yur imaginatin (想象力) mre actively. Take the Chinese New Year celebratin vide in Paragraph 1 fr example. 19 Yu need t describe yur instructins with mre details, such as time, places and persns.
20 After an AI tl gives yu an answer, yu need t decide if all the infrmatin is crrect by yurself. T d this, yu need at least sme basic knwledge abut the subjects.
If yu think AI gives yu a chance f being lazy, it’s time t stp daydreaming. Wrk harder n yur studies, and yu’ll be better prepared t wrk with AI.
【答案】17．E 18．C 19．A 20．B
【解析】本文主要介绍了最新产品Sra再次震惊了世界。
17．根据“OpenAI has nce again surprised the wrld with its latest AI tl, Sra.”可知，此处讲“做了什么使世界震惊”，E选项“它可以制作长达一分钟的视频。”符合，故选E。
18．根据“Even in the age f AI, knwledge is still pwer.”及“AI knws a lt, but fr nw at least, it needs instructins.”可知，此处与“知识”有关，C选项“事实上，AI可能需要你学习更多。”符合，故选C。
19．根据“Yu als need t exercise yur imaginatin (想象力) mre actively.”及“Yu need t describe yur instructins with mre details, such as time, places and persns.”可知，此处与“你”有关，A选项“你不能事事依赖Sra。”符合，故选A。
20．根据“After an AI tl gives yu an answer, yu need t decide if all the infrmatin is crrect by yurself.”可知，此处与“判断对错”有关，B选项“记住，人工智能也会犯错。”符合，故选B。
二、完形填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读短文，理解其大意，从A、B、C、D匹四个选项中出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My dad asked me t vlunteer with him in Meals On Wheels when I was 13 years ld. We 21 every Saturday mrning during the summer while I was ff schl. We give ut ht meals t the ld peple in ur twn.
It gave me a huge sense f 22 because it was my first vlunteering experience. I felt like I was helping my cmmunity. That made me realize that I was 23 .
It als helped me knw sme f the difficulties the ld peple faced. They have truble in mving arund and many f them are 24 withut any children arund. Sme f the ld peple even asked us t 25 fr five mre minutes fr a small chat—it brke my heart at the time! And it 26 me t visit my grandparents mre ften. The mst imprtant thing is that I shuld listen t them mre 27 .
At 13, it’s quite easy fr me t nly 28 myself. The vlunteering experience made me a better persn and made me think a lt mre abut ther peple and their needs. It was als quite special fr me because my dad and I wuld g fr a 29 alng the street and talk abut anything. S I nt nly gt a great feeling frm helping peple in need, but als gt a better 30 with my father. Vlunteering gives me a chance t change peple’s lives, including my wn.
21．A．cleanedB．repairedC．vlunteeredD．trained
22．A．satisfactinB．interestC．riskD．care
23．A．independentB．imprtantC．disabledD．lnely
24．A．stressedB．shckedC．lnelyD．brken
25．A．stayB．cntrlC．cleanD．imagine
26．A．cmparedB．remindedC．allwedD．caused
27．A．silentlyB．trulyC．cmpletelyD．carefully
28．A．wrry abutB．talk abutC．hear abutD．think abut
29．A．walkB．snackC．wasteD．mess
30．A．situatinB．relatinC．imaginatinD．cmpetitin
【答案】
21．C 22．A 23．B 24．C 25．A 26．B 27．D 28．D 29．A 30．B
【解析】本文主要记叙了作者从事志愿者工作时的经历和感受。
21．句意：在暑假期间，当我放假的时候，我们每个星期六早上都会去做志愿者。
cleaned清理；repaired修理；vlunteered做志愿；trained训练。根据前文“My dad asked me t vlunteer with him in Meals On Wheels when I was 13 years ld.”可知，我 13 岁的时候，父亲要求我和他一起去“送餐上门”做志愿者。故选C。
22．句意：这让我感到非常满足，因为这是我的第一次志愿者经历。
satisfactin满足；interest兴趣；risk冒险；care关心。根据后文“I felt like I was helping my cmmunity. That made me realize that I was...”可知，我感觉自己正在帮助社区，所以做志愿者让我有一种满足感。故选A。
23．句意：这让我意识到我很重要。
independent独立的；imprtant重要的；disabled残疾的；lnely孤独的。根据“I felt like I was helping my cmmunity”可知，我感觉自己正在帮助我的社区，所以感觉自己很重要。故选B。
24．句意：他们行动不便，而且很多没有孩子在身边，显得孤独。
stressed有压力的；shcked震惊的；lnely孤独的；brken坏的。根据后文说没有孩子在身边，所以是孤独。故选C。
25．句意：有些老人还要求我们多待五分钟，聊聊天，当时我的心都碎了！
stay待；cntrl控制；clean清理；imagine想象。根据“ five mre minutes fr a small chat”可知是和他们多待五分钟。故选A。
26．句意：它也提醒我要经常去看望我的祖父母。
cmpared比较；reminded提醒；allwed允许；caused造成。根据前文说的有些老人会要求多陪陪他们，所以这会提醒作者要关注自己家的老人。故选B。
27．句意：最重要的是我应该更认真地听他们说话。
silently安静地；truly真地；cmpletely完全地；carefully仔细地。根据“listen t them mre”并结合所给的词可知，应是更仔细地听他们说话。故选D。
28．句意：13 岁时，我很容易只考虑自己。
wrry abut担心；talk abut谈论关于；hear abut听说；think abut考虑。根据后文“The vlunteering experience made me a better persn and made me think a lt mre abut ther peple and their needs.”可知，志愿者的经历让我成为一个更好的人，让我更多地考虑其他人和他们的需求。所以前文是考虑自己。故选D。
29．句意：这对我来说也很特别，因为我和爸爸会沿街散步，谈论任何事情。
walk散步；snack小吃；waste浪费；mess混乱。根据后文“alng the street”可知是沿着街道散步。故选A。
30．句意：因此，我不仅从帮助有需要的人中获得了很棒的感觉，而且与父亲的关系也得到了更好的改善。
situatin情况；relatin关系；imaginatin想象；cmpetitin比赛。根据“gt a my father”可知，是和爸爸有一个更好的关系。故选B。
第二部分非选择题(共40分)
三、语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空，使短文通顺、连贯。
【答案】
31．abut 32．t taste 33．hundreds 34．shelves 35．a 36．me 37．actively 38．if/whether 39．mre nervus 40．have passed
【解析】本文主要介绍了几个人初次尝试做的一些特别的事情。
31．句意：那是我第一次去，所以我对埃及食物一无所知。knw abut sth“了解某物”。故填abut。
32．句意：我的一个朋友给我看了Kfta，我迫不及待地想尝一些。can’t wait t d sth“迫不及待做某事”。故填t taste。
33．句意：刚开始，味道还好，但后来我就想喝几百杯水！hundreds f“好几百的”。故填hundreds。
34．句意：进入房间时，我注意到几群陌生人在柜子旁或一张长桌旁交谈。shelf为可数名词，根据“sme”可知此处应用其复数形式。故填shelves。
35．句意：一个长发女孩走过来，面带微笑说了声“你好”。smile为单数名词，且nice为辅音音素开头的单词，其前应用不定冠词a。故填a。
36．句意：她热情的欢迎让我倍感放松。made为动词，其后用人称代词I的宾格me作宾语。故填me。
37．句意： 当天晚些时候，我积极地和笔友们进行了交谈。had为动词，用副词actively修饰动词。故填actively。
38．句意：我哥哥结婚时，他问我能不能在他的婚礼上发言。根据“I culd make a speech (发言) at his wedding”可知，此处应用if或whether引导宾语从句，表示“是否”。故填if/whether。
39．句意：我站起身时，感觉更加紧张。much修饰比较级，根据“gt”可知此处应用形容词nervus的比较级mre nervus。故填mre nervus。
40．句意：到目前为止，我已经通过了几个公共演讲的测试了。根据“S far”可知句子应用现在完成时，主语为I，助动词用have，pass的过去分词为passed。故填have passed。
四、阅读与表达(共4小题，41~43小题每小题2分，44小题4分;满分10分)
阅读短文，然后根据内容回答问题。
April 22, 2024 marks the 55th Wrld Earth Day. This year’s theme is “Planet vs. Plastics” (全球战塑). S, I decided t try smething different: a whle day withut using any plastic. It sunded exciting, but it was quite hard.
My mrning started with a hmemade breakfast in a glass bwl. But later when I tried t rder juice as usual, I had t give up because f thse plastic cups. I faced a bigger prblem at the supermarket. Almst everything was wrapped (包装) in plastic—frm fruits and vegetables t meat. It made me realize that plastic is everywhere, making it hard t carry n with my n-plastic plan.
Plastic is widely used in ur daily life. It can be made int all kinds f things such as bags, bttles and tys. It’s tugh (牢固的) and it’s really light. S we depend heavily n it.
But there’s ne thing: Using t much plastic can be harmful t the envirnment. Humans use abut ne millin plastic bttles every minute, and mre than 5 trillin （万亿）plastic bags are used each year, accrding t a United Natins reprt. The wrld prduces 200 millin tns f plastic waste each year, but nly less than 10 percent has been recycled. Mst f them end up in the lakes, rivers and ceans, hurting animals and nature.
T make a difference, China stpped the prductin, sale and use f plastic shpping bags with a thickness f less than 0.025 mm in 2008. Frm 2010 t 2020, China recycled 170 millin tns f waste plastic. These have helped reduce plastic waste.
Let’s jin hands and make a clean and beautiful wrld.
41．What did the writer decide t d t supprt the Wrld Earth Day?
___________________________________________________________________________________________
42．Accrding t the passage, why is plastic useful but harmful? (N mre than 20 wrds.)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Hw many tns f plastic waste have been recycled in the wrld each year ?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
44．What can yu d t help reduce plastic waste?（write 30 wrds r mre）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】41．He decided t try smething different: a whle day withut using any plastic. 42．Because plastic is widely used in ur daily life, but using t much plastic can be harmful t the envirnment. 43. Less than 20 millin tns. 44．I will try my best nt t use plastic prducts.fr example,When I g shpping ,I wn’t use clth bags instead f plastic bags.I will use wd,glass r metal in my life.
【解析】本文简述了塑料的广泛使用及其对环境的影响，特别是塑料垃圾对自然和动物的危害。同时，提到了中国为减少塑料污染所采取的措施，并呼吁大家共同努力，保护环境，减少塑料使用。
41．根据“S, I decided t try smething different: a whle day withut using any plastic.”可知，作者决定尝试一些不同的东西：一整天不使用任何塑料。故填He decided t try smething different: a whle day withut using any plastic.
42．根据“Plastic is widely used in ur daily life.”及“But there’s ne thing: Using t much plastic can be harmful t the envirnment.”可知，因为塑料在我们的日常生活中被广泛使用，但使用过多的塑料会对环境有害。故填Because plastic is widely used in ur daily life, but using t much plastic can be harmful t the envirnment.
43.根据“The wrld prduces 200 millin tns f plastic waste each year, but nly less than 10 percent has been recycled. ”可知，每年全世界产生2亿吨塑料垃圾，而只有不到百分之十的垃圾被循环，即不到2千万吨垃圾被循环，故填Less than 20 millin tns.
44．开放性试题，言之有理即可。参考答案为：I will try my best nt t use plastic prducts.fr example,When I g shpping ,I wn’t use clth bags instead f plastic bags.I will use wd,glass r metal in my life.
五、书面表达（满分20分）
45.旅行，拓宽视野；阅读，滋养心灵。本月校园广播站“英语时光”栏目拟开展主题为“Reading r Travelling”的分享活动，请以“I like________（travelling/reading） mre”为题，用英语一篇发言稿。
要点如下：
1. Explain why yu like travelling r reading mre;
2. Share ne f yur travelling r reading experiences;
3. Offer advice n travelling r reading in summer hliday.
注意：
1. 词数90左右；短文开头结尾已给出；不计入总词数；
2. 内容需涵盖所有要点，可适当发挥；
3. 文中不得出现与考生相关的真实校名和姓名等信息。
I like_______(travelling/reading) mre
Gd mrning, dear teachers and friends!
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all fr tday’s sharing. Thanks fr listening!
【答案】例文
I like reading mre
Gd mrning, dear teachers and friends!
Reading is a lifelng jurney and plays an imprtant part in ur life. It can nt nly pen ur minds but als make us get mre useful knwledge that we can’t learn frm schl bks. I ften read bks abut histry and sme interesting nvels in my free time. The mre I read, the mre thughtful I will be. I didn’t use t read befre. I spent much time in playing games, watching TV r listening t music. Finally I realized it was bad fr me, s I tk up reading. Reading has made my life clurful and meaningful. I read bks at least three times a week nw.
If yu enjy reading, I think first yu shuld read the bks yu like. Secndly, yu need t develp gd reading habits. Finally, yu need t take reading ntes frequently.
That’s all fr tday’s sharing. Thanks fr listening!
【详解】
[总体分析]
①题材：本文是一篇发言稿；
②时态：时态为一般现在时和一般过去时；
③提示：写作要点已给出，注意不要遗漏提示中的要点，可适当添加细节，并突出写作要点。
[写作步骤]
第一步，按题目要求填入标题“I like travelling/reading mre”。
第二步，根据提示内容解释你为什么喜欢旅行或多读书，分享一次旅行或阅读经历，再提供暑假旅行或阅读方面的建议。
[亮点词汇]
①plays an imprtant part 扮演一个重要的角色
②spend much time in ding 花费很多时间做某事
③need t d sth. 需要做某事
[高分句型]
①It can nt nly pen ur minds but als make us get mre useful knwledge that we can’t learn frm schl bks.（nt nly…but als…句型，that引导的定语从句）
②If yu enjy reading, I think first yu shuld read the bks yu like.（if引导的条件状语从句）
Stp ne Beijing, the capital city f China
Day 1:
Arrived in Beijing by airplane
Checked in the Nvtel Beijing Peace Htel ( We chse it because it is just 15 minutes’ walk t the Frbidden City.) Day 2:
Walked thrugh ld streets and hutng
Learned traditinal crafts (手艺) like kite making and paper cutting Day 3 t 4:
Visited places f interest such as the Great Wall and the Summer Palace
Stp tw Xi’an, Shaanxi
Day 5:
◇Spent abut five hurs n the train ging there
◇Watched a light shw
Day 6:
Visited the Terractta Warrirs (兵马俑)
Visited the Xi’an City Wall
Mm and I went fr a bike ride n the wall (nly fr adults and kids ver 10 r taller than 1.4 meters) while Dad and my little sister Jane tk the sightseeing car.
Stp three Shanghai, a city mixing the new and the ld
Day 7:
Visited the new part f Shanghai in the mrning
Visited the ld buildings in the afternnDay 8:
B ught sme gifts fr ur friends and relatives
A．Yu can’t depend n Sra fr everything.
B．And remember that AI can make mistakes.
C．In fact, AI may need yu t learn mre.
D．With Sra, we can make better vides in the future.
E．It can make vides up t ne minute lng.
Is there anything special yu’ve dne fr the first time?
Australia Jun 1, 2024 11:55 AM
Barbara，USA JUN 2, 2024 10:30 PM
Abut a year ag, we went t an Egyptian restaurant. It was my first time, s I didn’t knw anything 34 Egyptian fd. One f my friends shwed me Kfta, and I culdn’t wait 35 (taste) sme. At first, it seemed OK, but then I’d like t drink 36 (hundred) f glasses f water! I wn’t d that again.
Ingrid, UK JUN 4, 2024 11:47AM
I still remember my first experience t meet my pen friends. When I came int the rm, I nticed grups f strangers talking, near sme 37 (shelf) r by a lng table. I ften felt shy when I was with strangers, s I stayed behind thers at first. A girl with lng hair came ver and said “Hell” with 38 nice smile. Her warm welcme made 39 (I) feel relaxed. Later that day, I had a talk with my pen friends 40 (active).
Hanif, Sweden JUN 7, 2024 1:07 PM
When my elder brther gt married, he asked me 41 I culd make a speech (发言) at his wedding. I’d never dne that befre, but I said, “Sure.” Befre the wedding, I thught f sme nice things t say. Easy! But n the day, just befre I had t speak, I started t shake. When I std up, I gt much 42 (nervus). My muth went dry and I almst frgt my wrds. Frm then n, I had lessns abut public speaking. S far I 43 (pass) several public speaking tests.
Shw mre
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