2023-2024学年第一学期湖南省常德市澧县六校联盟期末测试卷英语九年级试卷含答案
展开2.答题前,考生务必将自己的学校、班级、姓名、考试号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡相对应的位置上并认真填涂考试号下方相应的数字;
3.答选择题必须2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑,如需改动,请用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案:答非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔写在答题卡指定的位置上,不在答题区域内的答案律无效,不得用其他笔答题:
4.考生答题必须答在答题卡上,答在试卷和草稿纸上一律无效。
第一部分 听力理解(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
A)听对话回答问题
本部分共有10道小题,每小题你将听到一段对话,每段对话听两遍。在听每段对话前,你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目;听完后,你还有5秒钟的时间从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
1. Which festival are they talking abut?
2. What is Tm ding nw?
3. What time des Kitty g t bed?
4. Wh's Julie?
5. Which subject des Jimmy like best?
A. Histry. B. English. C. Maths.
6. Hw lng is the schl library pen?
A. Fr five hurs. B. Fr eight hurs. C. Fr nine hurs.
7. Where are they?
A. In a bkshp. B. In a clthes shp. C. In a ty shp.
8. Hw ften des Millie g t the Reading Club?
A. Twice a week. B. Once a week. C. Every day.
9. What des the by want t have fr breakfast tday?
A. Pizza. B. Ndles. C. Bread.
10. Hw much des the man need t pay?
A. Fifty yuan. B. Twenty yuan. C. Fifteen yuan.
B)听对话和短文回答问题
你将听到一段对话和两篇短文,各听两遍,听每段对话和短文前,你将有时间阅读相关小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,你还有5秒钟的时间从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听下面一段对话,回答第11至12小题。
11. What is Amy ding?
A. Listening t a sng. B. Listening t a stry. C. Listening t a talk.
12. Why des Tny like listening t stries?
A. Because they are special B. Because they are different. C. Because they are interesting.
听下面一篇短文,回答第13至15小题。请根据内容从所给的A.、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项,完成信息记录表。
13. A. fruit B. drinks C. vegetables
14. A. rusers B. shes C. glves
15. A. an MP4 B. a CD C. a birthday card
听下面一篇短文,回答第16至20小题。
16. What des Lucy need fr the fashin shw?
A. A designer. B. A by. C. A mdel.
17. What is the sweater made f?
A. Wl. B. Leather. C. Cttn
18. What clur is the skirt?
A. Pink. B. White. C. Black.
19. Which is NOT Lucy's design?
A. A cat. B. A pair f jeans. C. A pair f bts.
20. What are the clthes fit fr?
A. Sprts meetings. B. Parties. C. Fashin shws.
第二部分 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
请认真阅读下面各题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21. The twin sisters have different hbbies. One likes playing vilin and the ther likes playing basketball.
A. the; the B. the; a C. a; / D. the; /
22. ---______wman is Daniel's mther?
--- The ne in the red cat.
A. What B. Which C. Wh D. Where
23. --- This T-shirt lks very mdern. It's abut 800 yuan.
--- Srry, it's t _______.I dn't have enugh mney. Can I see anther ne?
A. expensive B. cheap C. different D. beautiful
24. --- Tm, when is ur parents' meeting?
---It begins _______tw 'clck _______the afternn f 9 December.
A. in; in B. at; in C. at; n D. in; n
25. --- Wuld yu like ______cla?
--- N, thanks. I dn't need ________ drinks nw.
A. sme; sme B. any; sme C. any; any D. sme; any
26. --- Oh, the dishes in this restaurant are very delicius.
--- Please enjy yurself, Millie! It is my _______ tday.
A. time B. treat C. mney D. fd
27. --- Millie, can yu help me answer the phne? I _______ the clthes.
---I'm cming!
A. wash B. washed C. washes D. am washing
28. ---Mum, there ____ n milk in the fridge.
---Oh, but there ____ three bttles f range juice.
A. are; is B. are; are C. is; are D. is; is
29. ---The price f Huawei P30 pr is very high.
---Yes. Gd things always ____ much.
A. cst B. spend C. take D. buy
30. --- Kitty, yu lk beautiful and mdern in this red dress!
---__________
A. Gd luck! B. Thanks a lt! C. That's all right! D. The same t yu!
第三部分 完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
请认真阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
The 15th day f the first mnth f the lunar calendar(农历)in China is the Lantern Festival.
It's an imprtant 31 in China. Chinese peple celebrate it in many ways. In the evening there are different 32 Shws in parks and streets. Lanterns are ften red 33 the Chinese think red stands fr(代表)happiness and gd luck. Peple 34 different lanterns ut f paper and ther things. Sme are in the 35 f rabbits, birds and bats. Sme are in the shapes f dragns and cartn stars. There are 36 lanterns here and there. In sme cities, such as Suzhu, there is 37 a big lantern shw at night, and many peple cme t enjy it every year.
38 are special fd fr the festival. Families always get tgether and 39 a big meal. After that, peple g ut t 40 . They ften sing and dance happily late until midnight.
31. A. time B. festival C. mnth D. week
32. A. flwer B. fashin C. lantern D. fd
33. A. because B. befre C. after D. when
34. A. d B. paint C. cut D. make
35. A. clurs B. sizes C. shapes D. names
36. A. few B. many C. little D. much
37. A. seldm B. never C. usually D. smetimes
38. A. Sweet dumplings B. Rice dumplings C. Mn cakes D. Turkeys
39. A. like B. make C. plan D. enjy
40. A. watch films B. make lanterns C. watch the mn D. have fun
笫四部分 阅读理解 (共 12小题;每小题 2分,满分 24分)
请认真阅读下列短文,从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑 。
A
If yu g t a fast fd restaurant, yu will prbably see a lt f children. Tday, sme children are t fat, and this is because f their bad eating habits(习惯). Mst children are fnd f fd with a lt f fat, il, salt and sugar. Peple call this kind f fd "junk fd".
We find many children eat unhealthily. Sme dn't have breakfast befre they g t schl. During the day, sme dn't have prper(正常的) fd fr lunch. They dn't like vegetables, and many f them dn't like t eat fruit. They lve t eat fd with a lt f salt, sugar r fat.
Parents tday wrry abut their children's eating habits. Sme dctrs advise(建议) children t eat healthily.
◆ Children shuldn't eat t much junk fd.
◆ Children shuld eat sme fruit and vegetables every day.
◆ Children shuld drink mre milk.
◆ Children shuld eat breakfast every day.
41. The underlined (划线的) phrase are fnd f in the first paragraph means_______.
A. dislike B. lve C. hate D. hpe
42. In this passage, dctrs advise teenagers t eat mre ______ .
A. fd with little salt and milk B. fd with much sugar and fat
C. vegetables and fruit D. cla and hamburgers
43. What's the best title fr this passage?
A. Keeping gd eating habits B. Eating unhealthy fd is bad
C. Eating fast fd is gd D. Eating healthily wrries parents
B
Many peple like t watch TV when they want t have a rest. They like watching sitcms(情景喜剧).
Sitcms can make us laugh ludly. Maybe yu didn't knw the wrd “sitcm” befre, but yu might knw the shws I lve my family, Hme with kids, Lve Apartment. They are sitcms.
Sitcms ften take place in the same place, such as a living rm r an ffice. The plts(故事情节) are ften abut the small prblems in ur life. Every character has a special persnality(个性). They make peple laugh when they talk t each ther.
Peple lve sitcms because they can turn hard things int smething funny. The character keep their sense f humr(幽默), even when they're having a bad day. They tell us that even when bad things happen, we can laugh them ff and life will g n.
44. Which f the fllwing isn't a sitcm?
A. I lve my family B. Hme with kids C. Frzen I D. Lve Apartment
45. Peple can knw _______ by watching sitcms.
A. hw t have a rest B. hw t talk t each ther
C. hw t laugh ludly D. hw t live happily
46. Accrding t the passage, why d peple like t watch sitcms?
A. Because the plts are abut the big prblems in ur life.
B. Because the characters ften make peple laugh.
C. Because sitcms ften take place in different places.
D. Because sitcms ften turn easy things int smething funny.
C
There is a China's first 3D printed bridge and it came int use in a park in Putu District, Shanghai n 1 January 2019.
The white bridge is abut l.2 metres tall, 15.25 metres lng and 3.8 metres wide. Shanghai Cnstructin Grup built it. It tk 35 days t finish building the bridge. This bridge can stay well fr abut 30 years under the sun and rain.
The bridge is very strng because it can carry 250 kilgrams per square metre (每平方米).That is t say,fur peple can walk n it at the same time per square metre.
A new 3D rbtic printing system (打印系统) was very imprtant in the building, The team started planning n the system ne and a half years ag. 3D printing needs fewer wrkers and des nt make dust r waste. If parts f the bridge becme damaged, the printing system can make them gd again.
This isn't the first 3D-printed bridge that made in China. Tngji University made the first tw 3D printed bridges f China in 2017. But engineers (工程师) just built thse tw bridges as an experiment (实验) , nt fr use.
47. Hw lng did it take Shanghai Cnstructin Grup t build the 3D printed bridge?
A. 35 days. B. 25 days. C. 20 days. D. 15 days.
48. The underlined wrd damaged in the furth paragraph means _______ .
A.新的 B.重要的 C.旧的 D.损坏的
49. Accrding t the last paragraph, what can we learn frm?
A. The 3D-printed bridge in Putu District is the first 3D-printed bridge.
B. Tngji University made tw 3D-printed bridges in 2017.
C. The engineers f Tngji University built the first tw bridges in the parks.
D. The students f Beijing University built the 3D-printed bridge as an experiment.
D
“Peter, where d yu live?" asks Wendy.
With the Lst Bys. They are children wh fall ut f their prams(婴儿车). We live in Neverland. I'm their captain(首领).
“What fun!" cries Wendy.
“Yes, it is," says Peter. "But we feel lnely. There are n girls there, nly bys! And n ne tells us stries.”
“Oh, pr yu!" cries Wendy. “I knw a lt f stries!"
Peter takes her hand and pulls her t the windw.
“Wendy, cme t Neverland with me and tell me stries!”
Of curse Wendy is very happy. But she says, "Oh dear, I can't. What abut Mther? And I can't fly." “I can teach yu," says Peter. “Yu can fly arund with me and talk t the stars. And' Wendy, there are mermaids(美人鱼) in Neverland!"
Peter is very clever. He knws the things that Wendy likes.
“Oh!” cries Wendy. "I'd lve t see a mermaid!”
“Wendy, yu can put us t bed at night," he says. “And mend ur clthes. And make pckets fr us."
“Oh! Hw exciting!" she says. “Can yu teach Jhn and Michael t fly, t?"
“If yu like," says Peter, withut much enthusiasm(热情).
Wendy ges and shakes(摇)Jhn and Michael.
“Wake up," she cries, “Peter Pan can teach us t fly."
Jhn pens his eyes and jumps ut f bed. Michael gets up, t.
50. Peter and the Lst Bys feel _____ in Neverland.
A. happy B.sad C. lnely D. afraid
51. Accrding t the passage which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Wendy lives in Neverland.
B. Peter wants Wendy t live in Neverland.
C. There aren't mermaids in Neverland.
D. The Lst Bys dn't like Iistening t stries.
52. Frm the passage, we can infer(推断)that____.
A. Wendy will be the captain in Neverland
B. The Lst Bys live in Neverland happily
C. Jhn and Michael will g t Neverland with Wendy
D. Peter ften tells the Lst Bys stries
第五部分 信息还原(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从对话后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。并在答题卡上将对应的选项涂黑。
A: Hell, Tmmy! Did yu see the film Amazing China?
B: N. What d yu think f it?
A: 53
B: I heard it is a dcumentary(记录片),and many peple like watching it. 54
A: It is abut China's success in the past years.
B: 55
A: Yes. But mst f the audience(观众)are 20-29 years ld.
B: Really? I can't believe it. Anything else?
A: 56
B:Oh, I want t see it. 57
A: Srry, I saw it last night. I think yu can ask Jim t g with yu.
B: OK. I'll call him later.
第六部分 词汇检测(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
根据下列句子及所给汉语注释或通过上下文,在答题卡上标有题号的横线上,写出空缺处各单词的正确形式。每空只写一词。
58. I dn't like this red T-shirt. Can I have a lk at ▲ (另一个)ne?
59. We'd better d ur best t help the children in pr ▲ (地区).
60. Xia Min is t fat, and he needs t ▲ (改变)his lifestyle.
61. This meal gives me energy fr the ▲ (整个的)afternn.
62. My grandma has a few bad ▲ (牙齿).She can't eat such hard fd.
63. The materials f the shw ▲ (包括)ld newspapers, CDs and ther things.
64. The by came int the rm withut ▲ (敲)n the dr and it made me very angry.
65. --- Yung peple like wearing jeans.
--- Yes, jeans are very ▲ amng them.
66. --- Jenny, what are yu ding in yur rm?
--- I am busy ▲ an email t my penfriend.
67. --- Is there a big ▲ at yur schl?
--- Yes. We can read different kinds f bks there.
第七部分 句子翻译(共5小题;每小题3分,满分15分)
将下列句子译成英语,并将所译句子写在答题卡上标有题号的横线上。
68.孩子们正在为这场时装秀作准备。
69.你想要试穿这件白色丝绸衬衫吗?
70.让我们带领父母们参观一下校园。
71.观看舞狮子是件有趣的事。
72.她每天花半小时做运动。
第八部分 阅读表达(共3小题:73题1分,74题2分,75题3分,满分6分)
阅读下面的短文并用英语回答问题,并将答案写在答题卡上标有题号的横线上。
D yu like running? D yu knw FUN RUN? Tday in China, yung peple have friends n QQ r Wechat(微信),and then they get tgether t run in the evening. It's a new sprt.
FUN RUN is gd fr yu. First, running can help yu t be healthy. Secnd, it's easy and cheap t run. Yu dn't need t buy any sprts equipment(设备).And in the evening, yu can run in a park, in the schl r just n a street. Many peple are very busy wrking r studying every day, s they dn't have free time t d sprts in the day. But in the evening, they have much time t run.
Here are sme imprtant things fr yu when yu want t have FUN RUN.
▲Wear a pair f sprts shes.
▲Listen t music if yu think it's bring t run.
▲Drink sme water after running.
▲Dn't run alne(单独).It's very imprtant.
73. What is FUN RUN?
74. Why is FUN RUN gd fr peple?
75. D yu want t have FUN RUN? Why r why nt?
第九部分 书面表达(共1题:满分20分)
假如你是Daniel,你将通过发送电子邮件的方
式与美国中学生Olivia进行交流。请根据下面表格
内的提示向他介绍你自己和你的寒假计划。
要求:1.词数90词左右。短文开头、结尾已经写好,不计入总词数;
2.短文须包括所有要点,不要逐词翻译,可适当发挥,使短文连贯、通顺;
3.文中不得提及真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
Dear Olivia,
My name is Daniel. I'm glad t knw yu!___________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Lking frward t yur reply!
Yurs,
Daniel
听力:
1-5:ACBBA 6-15:CABCC CACBB 16-25: ABCBB CACBC
June 27. milk 28. strawberries 29. useful 30. 241-8095 [来&源:中教^网%@~]
(单词形式错误每个扣0.5分)
选择填空:
31-45: ACCDB DABBC DABCA
完型填空:
46-55: CABCD CADAB
阅读理解:
56-65: BABDC CBCAD
单词拼写:
dictinary; 67. science; 68. watching; 69. relaxing; 70. knws;
February; 72. trip; 73. daughters; 74. Radi; 75. mdel
(形式错误每个扣0.5分)
完成句子:
after class; 77. Hw much; 78. think abut; 79. a gd eating habit/ gd eating habits
in the same class; 81. wants t be fat; 82. Cmputer is easy fr me.
短文填空:
prices; 84. in; 85. thirty; 86. buys; 87. s
读写综合:
信息归纳
America; 89. Brwn; 90. Basketball; 91. Jimmy; 92. Dancing
书面表达:
Dear Lisa,
I want t make friends with yu. Because I can teach yu t play the guitar. I am gd at it. But I can’t sing, dance r play the pian. I really hpe t learn frm yu. [来^*源:中%@教网&]
Oh, my name is Li Hua. I am a 13-year-ld student in Hngxing Middle Schl. My favrite subject is music. D yu wan t be my friends?
I hpe t hear frm yu sn.
Yurs,
Li Hua[中国~教@育出^版网]
评分标准:
要点分5分:
1.表明想和哪个人交朋友并说明原因;(2分)
2.自我介绍;(2分)
3.介绍一样自己最喜欢的事物。(1分)
二、语言分5分:
一般每两处语法错误、拼写错误、标点错误扣0.5分。分段不合理扣1分。书写不规范扣1分。思路、逻辑不清扣1-2分。其他未尽细则请参考中考评分标准。
A. And the film makes mre peple lve ur cuntry.
B. Wh is the directr(导演)?
C. I think it is wnderful.
D. I think the ld peple like it. very much, right?
E. Hw can I get there?
F. What is it abut?
G. Wuld yu like t g with me?
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