2024年四川省乐山市夹江县中考二模英语试题（含听力）含答案

这是一份2024年四川省乐山市夹江县中考二模英语试题（含听力）含答案，文件包含2024年四川省乐山市夹江县中考二模英语试题含听力docx、英语答题卡pdf、九年级适应性试题听力部分20244mp3等3份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共17页， 欢迎下载使用。

本试题卷分第一部分(选择题)和第二部分(非选择题)，共 10 页。考生作答时，须将答案答在答题卡上，在本试题卷、草稿纸上答题无效。满分 150 分。考试时间 120 分钟。考试结束后，将本试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一卷(选择题，共 100 分)
注意事项：
1. 选择题必须使用 2B 铅笔将答案标号填涂在答题卡上对应题目标号的位置上。
2. 第一卷共三部分，共计 100 分。
第一部分：听力(共三节，满分 30 分)
做题时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有 5 秒钟的时间阅读有关小题；听完后，每小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
1. Where is the basketball?
A. On the table. B. Next t the table. C. Under the table.
2. What is the wman’s telephne number?
A. 69534281. B. 69354218. C. 96534812.
3. When did Betty visit the Science Museum?
A. Last Sunday. B. Last Saturday. C. This Saturday.
4. Where des the cnversatin take place?
A. At a cinema. B. At a library. C. At a hspital.
5. Hw des Tny usually g t schl?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On ft.
第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7 题。
6. What’s wrng with Bill?
A. He is nt gd at English.
B. His teacher desn’t like him.
C. He can’t speak English well.
7. Hw can Bill imprve his studies?
A. Give up. B. D it by himself. C. Ask fr help.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. What is the relatinship between Mrs. William and Annie?
A. Teacher and student. B. Dctr and patient. C. Mther and daughter.
9. What did Annie have fr breakfast?
A. Bread. B. Eggs. C. Water.
10. Hw ften shuld Annie take the medicine?
A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a day.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. What is Tny ging t d during the hliday?
A. G camping. B. G climbing. C. G swimming.
12. Why des Lucy have t stay at hme fr a few days?
A. Because she is t tired.
B. Because her parents bth wrk.
C. Because her parents have n mney.
13. Wh is Lucy ging with?
A. Her friends. B. Her parents. C. Her cusins.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 14 至 16 题。
14. When did Tm start mdel plane cllecting?
A. In Grade Three. B. In Grade Fur. C. In Grade Five.
15. Wh gave Tm his first mdel plane?
A. His mther. B. His father. C. His uncle.
16. Hw many mdel planes has Tm cllected by nw?
A. Abut tw hundred. B. Abut three hundred. C. Abut tw hundred and fifty.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. Hw lng was Mr. Smith gne?
A. Fr ne day. B. Fr ne week. C. Fr ne mnth.
18. When did the by burn the piece f paper？
A. In the afternn f the fifth day.
B. In the evening f the furth day.
C. In the afternn f the furth day.
19. The by put his hands int his pcket t _____.
A. tear the paper B. think f answers C. lk fr the paper
20. What did the man prbably think happened t Mr Smith?
A. He was sick. B. He was dead. C. He was at hme.
第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节 语法和词汇知识（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
从 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21. Jack ften watches ________ Eurpean TV shw fr nearly ________ hur after dinner.
A. a; the B. a; an C.an; an
22. — Dad, what shall we d ________ Grandma’s birthday?
— Hw abut making a cake?
A. fr B. f C. t
23.Yu shuld give yur parents a phne call if yu cme hme late, ________ they will wrry abut yu.
A. and B. but C. r
24. Wuld yu mind ________ me hw t slve this physics prblem ?
A. tell B. telling C. t tell
25. It’s ______ t say “thank yu” very ften, even t family member.
A. plite B. rude C. dangerus
26. The gvernment plans t ______mre jbs fr yung peple in western China.
A. avid B. brrw C. ffer
27. —I think Mr. Zhang may be in his ffice.
—N, he ________ be there. I saw him leave just nw.
A. can’t B. needn’t C. mustn’t
28. Amy lves music very much and she sings ________ than me.
A. beautifully B. mre beautifully C. mst beautifully
29. — ________ fine weather it is tday! Let’s g ut and enjy the sunshine!
—Sunds great!
A. What B. Hw C. That
30. I dn’t knw if yu ________ t Mary’s party next Sunday. If yu g, s will I.
A. g B. will g C. went
31. —A new shp ________ fr a week nearby. Let’s g and have a lk.
—Great idea. But I’ m tld it desn’t __________ n Mndays.
A. pened; pened B. has pened; pen C. has been pen; pen
32. —I’m ging t give a talk n the Mid-Autumn Festival t the exchange students.
—Great! But dn’t frget t tell them ________.
A. what shuld they eat at the festival
B. why peple enjy the full mn
C. hw d peple celebrate it
33. Trees and flwers ________ n the hills every year.
A. plant B. planted C. are planted
34. “Undergrund” is the nly wrd in the English language ________ begins and ends with the letters “ und ”.
A. that B. wh C. what
35. —Shall we g fr a walk?
—______ It’s t dark. We’d better stay at hme.
A. It’s a gd idea. B. I agree with yu. C. Dn’t be silly.
第二节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分）
阅读下列短文，掌握其大意，然后从 36~50 各题所给的三个或四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
We can see flying cars in TV shws and mvies. Many cmpanies are trying t 36 them, and nw the flying car has cme int ur life. The flying car is called AirCar. And it just finished a 35-minute test flight 37 tw airprts in Slvakia.
The AirCar was made by Stefan Klein. When Klein was a little by, he 38 a French mvie. In the mvie, there was a flying car and he was interested in it. And he dreamed f building a flying car ne day. Klein flew the car 39 n the test flight.
The AirCar is 40 and it csts arund £1.7 millin. It can change frm a car int a 41 in just 2 minutes and 15 secnds. S far, the AirCar has spent 40 hurs in the air, including its first test flight. During these test the AirCar’s tp speed was 190 km per hur. It can fly at height f 2,500 meters. It can 42 tw peple up t 200 kg.
Sme peple hpe that flying cars will ne day be a big part f everyday life. Wuld yu like t get ne?
36. A. build B. find C. accept
37. A. amng B. between C. beside
38. A. made B. bked C. watched
39. A. myself B. themselves C. himself
40. A. expensive B. cnvenient C. wnderful
41. A. bus B. plane C. ship
42. A. carry B. send C. hld
B
Once upn a time, there was a very talented tailr(裁缝). He lived in a very ld huse with his wife and kids. The tailr and his wife were s kind t their kids and the peple arund them. They were pr, but they never 43 abut helping thers all the time.
A wise man utside the twn heard abut the tailr. He traveled t the small twn ne mrning by himself. When he reached the twn, he asked the lcal peple where the tailr lived . Everyne knew the tailr’s huse. They shwed him the tailr’s 44 . When the wise man reached the huse, he asked the tailr if he culd sew(缝) him a trn(裂开的) piece f clth 45 tld him that he didn’t have any mney t pay him at the mment.
The tailr knew that the wise man was frm utside the twn but still culdn’t stp helping him. He tld the wise man that he culd fix his clth 46 any mney and added that he culd repay him nce he had mney .
The tailr was such a 47 persn . And it was time fr his reward (回报). The wise man tld the tailr that because f his kindness he wanted him t 48 his tailr. The wise man tld the tailr that he wuld give him a big amunt f mney, and let him sew lts f clthes. What the wise man tld the pr tailr made him and his family s 49 ... he kept telling his family,
“Gd luck will be n ur side ne day !” He als asked them t 50 stp helping peple in need.
43. A. thught B. frgt C. talked D. learned
44. A. place B. clthes C. way D. rad
45. A. s B. and C. but D. r
46. A. withut B. in C. fr D. t
47. A. kind B. prC. rich D. lucky
48. A. invite B. chse C. becme D. help
49. A. wrried B. happy C. angry D. funny
50. A. always B. ften C. usually D. never
第三部分：阅读理解（共两节，满分 40 分）
第一节（共 15 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 30 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的几个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Maybe yu want t exercise mre r start ging t bed earlier in the cming year. Here is sme advice that can help yu keep yur gals.
● Make a detailed (详细的)plan
If yur New Year’s plan is t exercise five days each week, a plan like “I’ll exercise n weekdays” wuld be t vague (模糊的). A detailed plan like “I’ll exercise at schl n weekdays during my lunch break” wuld be better.
● Get a little help frm yur friends
Tell a few friends abut yur gals s yu’ll feel ashamed if they check back later and find ut yu haven’t fllwed thrugh.
● ____________________________
If it’s nt fun t exercise r study, yu wn’t keep it easily. But if yu get fun frm yur exercise r study, yu’ll keep lnger. If yu can nly drink yur favurite juice during study hurs, yu’ll lk frward t studying.
● Give yurself mre chances
Yu planned t get t bed early every night, but ne Friday yu stayed up late. After that, yu may want t give up the early-t-bed plan. But giving yurself ne r tw mre chances can help yu get better results.
51. Hw many pieces f advice can yu find in the passage?
A. Fur. B. Three. C. Tw.
52. Which plan is the best accrding t the passage?
A. I’ll practise the pian n schl nights.
B. I’ll d hmewrk frm Mnday t Friday.
C. I’ll play ftball at schl after 6:00 every day.
53. What des the underlined wrd “ashamed” in the passage mean in Chinese?
A. 冷淡的 B. 骄傲的 C. 羞愧的
54. Which f the fllwing can be put in the blank？
A. Keep exercising B. Make it fun C. Begin studying
55. What’s the best title fr the article?
A. Hw t Make Friends
B. Hw t Celebrate the New Year
C. Hw t Make New Year’s Gals
B
In China, lts f students ften use much f their time t study their lessns, and dn’t help with husewrk at hme. Sme students dn’t think they need t d husewrk. Sme parents dn’t let their children d it. As a result, students are all in need f basic skills.
Luckily, things are changing. In 2021, many schls began t teach students life skills.
Guangming Middle Schl in Sichuan built sme farming clubs. There students learnt t plant vegetables. “At first I thught I culd nly grw sme vegetables here, but in fact, I learnt a lt abut vegetables,” said Chen Jia, a girl at the schl.
In Hpe Middle Schl, students have a special life skill class: They learn t make jiazi in different kinds f shapes. “I culdn’t make jiazi befre, but nw I am gd at ding it. I really lve my life skill class. It’s my favurite class,” said Zhang Yan, a by at the schl.
As we knw, learning life skills is as imprtant as learning Chinese and maths, because it helps us prepare fr ur future life. Bys and girls, d yu help yur parents d husewrk at hme? If nt, maybe yu shuld get started nw.
56. What d many Chinese students spend mst f their time ding accrding t the passage?
A. Ding husewrk. B. Grwing sme vegetables. C. Studying their lessns.
57. What des the underlined wrd “farming” in the paragraph 3 prbably mean?
A. Planting. B. Drawing. C. Cking.
58. What is Zhang Yan gd at nw?
A. Making jiazi. B. Learning Chinese. C. Planting vegetables.
59. Why is learning life skills as imprtant as learning Chinese and maths?
A. Because it is fun t learn life skills.
B. Because students need life skills in the future.
C. Because their parents tell their children t learn life skills.
60. What’s the article mainly abut?
A. Learning life skills. B. Helping with husewrk. C. Building clubs.
C
The ChatGPT App
On New Year's Day, many peple were enjying their hlidays. Edward Tian, a senir(毕业班学生),was wrking n a new app. He named it GPTZer.
Des its name sund familiar t yu? That's prbably because yu've heard abut ChatGPT, It's a ppular AI-pwered chatbt(聊天机器人). Give it a prmpt(提示), and it can d a lt f things fr yu. These include answering questins, explaining difficult ideas and writing stries.
“This technlgy is amazing,” says Tian. “I d believe it's the future. But we need t build the safeguards(保护措施) t enter that future. ”And then he came up with an idea n New Year's Day. What will it be like if he designed an app t help the public find ut whether a text was written by a machine r nt?
GPTZer was brn three days later. It has quickly reached a large number f users acrss the wrld. New technlgy is here t stay, but hw we use it depends n urselves. We shuld take gd use f it.
61. Accrding t the passage, ChatGPT can_________.
A. write stries B. d sme cleaning
C. lk after children D. shw yu all kinds f things
62. What can the new app GPTZer d?
A. It can answer yur questins.
B. It can slve difficult maths prblems.
C. It can tell whether the decisin is right r wrng.
D. It can tell whether the article was written by a machine r nt.
63. What d yu think f GPTZer?
A. It's helpful but expensive. B. It's helpful and ppular.
C. It's mdern but useless. D. It's smart and cheap.
64. What shuld we d t face new technlgy?
A. We shuld fllw thers. B. We shuld use it wisely.
C. We shuld give it up. D. We shuld try t use all the new technlgies.
65. Where can yu prbably find the passage?
A. In a newspaper. B. In a stry bk.
C. In a music magazine. D. In a travel guide bk.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文前方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
High-speed trains
It is great t travel by train. It is mre cmfrtable than taking a plane and faster than taking a bus. 66 . On a train, yu can sit and enjy beautiful views alng the way. 67 . Als, trains can run even in the rain and snw.
There is a very ppular kind f train-high-speed trains. Tw f the tp high-speed trains are
F'uxing trains and Hexie trains. 68 . But d yu knw which ne is faster? Fuxing trains are the fastest trains in China. They can g up t 400 km/h. 69 .
They have better seats , free Wi-Fi, mre charging prts(充电接口)and mre legrm(放脚空间). Hexie trains can g up t 350 km/h. 70 . They dn’t have as many special features(特征) as Fuxing trains, but they still take yu where yu need t g.
S, which train d yu like better, Fuxing r Hexie? N matter which ne yu chse, yu will have a great time travelling by train.
第二卷(非选择题，共50分)
注意事项：
1．必须使用0.5毫米黑色字迹签字笔在答题卡上题目所指示的答题区域内作答，答在试卷上无效。
2．第二卷共50分。
第四部分：写作（共四节，满分50分）
第一节 词汇（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
根据下列句子中所给的汉语或者首字母提示，在空格处填入一个单词，使句子通顺，意思正确。
71. When spring cmes, the g________ in the park turns green.
72. We didn’t knw whether she was dead r a________.
73. Yu’ll achieve n________ if yu give up s easily.
74. There was enugh _________ (食物) fr all.
75. In France, yu shuldn’t eat anything with yur hands ________ (除…之外) bread.
76. All f my classmates thught it was a ________(愚蠢的) mistake that I have ever made.
77. The ld man lives _________ (独自地)and his children ften cme t see him.
78. It was my grandma’s ________ (八十)birthday. We had a big family dinner.
79. The cakes in the restaurant ________(尝起来) nice, s they sell well.
80. China will cntinue t _________ (减轻) the burden (负担) n students at primary and secndary schls.
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填写一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Hw d yu say hell t smene yu knw? D yu smile? D yu tuch the ther persn? Actually, peple frm different 81 (culture) greet each ther differently. There are varius ways f greetings in this glbe. Here are sme interesting ways, which may be 82 (use)fr yu.
In China, many peple shake their hands when they meet. Smetimes they just smile 83 say “ni ha”, smething like “Hell” r “Hi”. While in Japan, peple ften bw their heads 84 (shw) respect. In India, Nepal and Bangladesh, peple bring their hands tgether 85 frnt f their heart and say “Namaste”. In Malaysia, yu put yur hand n yur heart and nd yur head. Smetimes yu als take the 86 (persn) hands in yur hands first.
When yu greet a grandmther r grandfather r anther 87 (ld) persn in Turkey, yu kiss their right hand and then place it n yur frehead. They d this in the Philippines, t. The Mari peple in New Zealand rub nses tgether. This is 88 (call) “hngi”. In the US and in ther cuntries, sme peple like using a “fist bump(拳头碰击)” t greet anther persn. Bth peple make a fist, push their arm frward 89 (slw) and tuch each ther’s fists.
But what if yu dn’t knw hw t greet thers in a strange cuntry? Just smile! Smile is the mst pwerful language in the wrld. It is als 90 universal language, which is widely used thrughut the wrld.
第三节 书面表达（满分25分）
邯郸初中生被害案件引发了人们对校园欺凌的热议，它损害了学生身心健康。为此，请以“Say n t schl bullying”为题给校报英语专栏写一篇短文并发表你的看法。内容包括：
1、严格要求自己，不嘲笑他人；
2、与同学友好相处，不打架；
3、被欺凌时向父母和老师求助；
4、勇敢地制止校园欺凌行为。
注意：
1. 词数：80词左右；
2. 应覆盖所有要点，可适当增加细节，使行文连贯；
3. 文章开头已给出，不计入总词数。
参考词汇：欺凌 bully n.& v.
Say n t schl bullying
Schl bullies happen in almst every schl. It hurts nt nly ur bdies but als ur minds. As students, we must say n t schl bullying.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
夹江县2024年初中学业水平适应性考试
英语参考答案
第一卷（满分100分）
第一部分：听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 CABAC 6-10 ACCAB 11-15 ABACB 16 -20 ABBCB
第二部分：英语知识运用（共30小题；毎小题1分；满分30分）
21-25 BACBA 26-30 CABAB 31-35 CBCAC
36-40 ABCCA 41-45 BABAC 46-50 AACBD
第三部分：阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
51-55 ACCBC 56-60 CAABA 61-65 ADBBA 66-70 ECBAD
第二卷（满分50分）
第四部分：写作（共四节）
第一节：词汇 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
71. grass 72. alive 73. nthing 74. fd 75. except
76. stupid/flish/silly 77. alne 78. eightieth 79. taste 80. reduce
第二节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
81.cultures 82.useful 83.and 84. t shw 85. in
86. persn’s 87.lder 88.called 89.slwly 90. a
第三节 书面表达（满分25分）
一、评分原则
1、本题总分为25分，按5档次给分。
2、评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3、评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法的准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
4、拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
5、如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点
1、严格要求自己，不嘲笑他人；
2、与同学友好相处，不打架；
3、被欺凌时向父母和老师求助；
4、勇敢地制止校园欺凌行为。
5、自己的看法或观点。
三、要点认定
1、考生必须有较完整的句子表达出要点。如只有关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为要点写出。
2、在表达要点的句子中，如果主谓结构有严重的语言错误（如语态、连动词或只写出情态动词而无主动词），可视为半个要点。
3、 围绕要点的发挥，如有语言错误，则扣语言分。
四、档次划分
注意：
1．原则上应按照考生所表达的要点数归档。如语言错误多，可降一档，如语言表达较好，可打该档最高分或上升一档。
2．在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定五个分值。
1—2个错误，取该档次分值的高线。
3—4个错误，取该档次分值的中线。
5个错误，取该档次分值的低线。
6个以上降一档，10个左右错误取其降档后的低线。
五、One Pssible Versin:
Say n t schl bullying
Schl bullies happen in almst every schl. It hurts nt nly ur bdies but als ur minds. As students, we must say n t schl bullying.
First, we shuld be strict with urselves. It's gd fr us t bey the schl rules. We shuldn’t abuse r laugh at thers. Then, we shuld be friendly t ur classmates and dn’t fight with them. If we are bullied by thers, we shuld ask ur teachers and parents fr help. When we meet the schl bullies, we shuld be brave t stp it.
I think schls and families shuld guide and educate students well. In this way, ur schl can becme safer and safer.
A. Als, Fuxing trains are mre cmfrtable than Hexie trains.
B. They can cver a lng distance in the blink (眨眼) f an eye.
C. Yu can use yur phne freely.
D. They are nt as fast as Fuxing trains, but they are als very cmfrtable.
E. It's als mre relaxing t take the train.
档次
得分
要点数
语言情况
五
21—25
5
语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。
四
16—20
4
语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。
三
11—15
3
语言有一些错误，尚能达意。
二
6—10
2
语言错误很多，影响表达。
一
1—5
1
只能写出与所要求内容有关的一些单词。