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2024年浙江省台州市中考3月一模英语试题
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这是一份2024年浙江省台州市中考3月一模英语试题，共9页。试卷主要包含了 全卷共10页等内容，欢迎下载使用。
亲爱的考生：
欢迎参加考试！请你认真审题，仔细答题，发挥最佳水平。 答题时，请注意以下几点：
1. 全卷共10页。 满分120分。 考试时间100分钟。
2. 答案必须写在答题纸相应的位置上，写在试题卷、 草稿纸上无效。
3. 答题前，请认真阅读答题纸上的“注意事项”，按规定答题。
卷 一
说明：本卷共四大题，50小题，满分75分。
第一部分 听力部分
一、 听力(本题有 15 小题，第一节每小题1分，第二、 三节每小题 1.5分； 共计20分)第一节：听小对话，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
1. Hw is the weather tday?
A. Rainy. B. Cludy. C. Sunny.
2. When did Lisa cme t China?
A. In 2001. B. In 2008. C. In 2018.
3. What is the wman's favrite fruit?
A. Apples. B. Bananas. C. Oranges.
4. Wh played the vilin at the art festival?
A. Je. B. Sara. C. Ella.
5. Where are the tw speakers?
A. Athme. B. At schl. C. At a shp.
第二节：听较长对话， 从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。听下面一段较长对话，回答第6~7两个小题。
6. Hw ften des Jenny practice dancing?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
7. What des the by like ding?
A. Dancing. B. Playing tennis. C. Swimming.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8~10三个小题。
8. Hw lng will the speakers stay in Hangzhu?
A. Fr ne week. B. Fr tw weeks. C. Fr three weeks.
9. Which place will the speakers visit n the third day?
A. The West Lake. B. Hangzhu Museum. C. Lingyi n Temple,
10. What des Sam think f the high-speed railway?
A. Cnvenient. B. Cmfrtable. C. Fast.
第三节：听独白，从题中所给的A、 B、 C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
11. Why is Natinal Vlunteer Week held every April?
A. T train new vlunteers.
B. T prvide jbs fr vlunteers.
C. T thank vlunteers fr their help.
12. What des the first tip tell yu t d?
A. Start slwly. B. Chse a partner. C. Take part in training.
13. What kind f partner is advised t chse?
A. A partner f the same age.
B. A partner with the same ideas.
C. A partner with the same interests.
14. Hw can an experienced partner help yu in vlunteering?
A. Build cnfidence.
B. Stp feeling stressed.
C. Get used t vlunteer wrk quickly.
15. Hw many tips are mentined?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、完形填空(本题有 15 小题，每小题1分； 共计15分)
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Every Saturday, Bibi hung ut at her grandma's laundry and dry-cleaning stre. Bibi lved being with her grandma but she wanted t d mre than just 16 and read.
Bibi had an idea t write dwn what peple brught and put a number n it. Bein g t shrt.she culdn't 17 certain tasks. But she still wanted t help.
“Why dn't yu draw a picture f custmers cming in? Yu're such a gd 18 Grandma jked.“Maybe that wuld help!”
Bibi went utside, seeing Stephanie and sme high schl students painting big letters n 19 up and dwn the street.
Bibi asked 20 they were ding that n windws, Stephanie explained they were painting fr a ftball game. Bibi wndered if the paint washed ff. Stephanie said yes, mentining it's just crnstarch, sap, and fd clring.
“I can help 21 !”Bibi called t Stephanie, her heart beating.“I can draw!”
“ 22 , Bibi, I run ut f paint.”Stephanie said.“I have t get hme. Thank yu all the same!”
23 , Bibi lked at Grandma's windws. 24 an idea jumped int Bibi's head. Wuld it wrk? Wuld Grandma agree?
25 asking permissin and brrwing a few dllars, Bibi bught materials. She and Grandma 26 ways and made hmema de windw paint tgether, then Bibi set t wrk.
She washed the windws, wrte her 27 , and filled in the letters with different clrs.Then came the 28 part. She really enjyed drawing!
When she was finished, Bibi went inside t get Grandma 29 she wanted t shw her.
When they came back ut, a grup f kids were gathered there.
“Great jb!”said ne girl.
“Perfect,”said anther.
AFTER THE GAME, BRING YOUR UNIFORMS HERE! the windw said.
Bibi had drawn a picture f the team's unifrms 30 int the water.
Grandma clapped and hugged Bibi. “This just might help,”she said. After the game, it did.
16. A. draw B. sing C. listen D. dance
17. A. talk abut B. deal with C. give up D. think abut
18. A. custmer B. artist C. singer D. player
19. A. grunds B. drs C. walls D. windws
20. A. when B. where. C. why D. hw
21. A. yu B. him C. her D. them
22. A. Sure B. Srry C. OK D. Great
23. A. Scared B. Satisfied C. Disappinted D. Prud
24. A. Gradually B. Certainly C. Suddenly D. Carefully
25. A. After B. Withut C. Befre D. Fr
26. A. frgt B. refused C. missed D. studied
27. A. hmewrk B. stry C. message D. diary
28. A. fun B. traditinal C. lucky D. tiring
29. A. thugh B. because C. until D. r
30. A. digging B. walking C. mving D. jumping
三、阅读理解(本题有 15 小题，每小题2分； 共计30分)
阅读下面材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Hey there, science-lving students! Dn't frget that tday is the 7th annual Natinal Science Reading Day!
This September 20, kids frm ages 3 t 17 are. invited t spend ne perid f the day reading abut science. These readings can be dne either individually(个人的) r as a whle classrm.And students can read abut science in many different ways. Yu can read:
·a nn-fictin bk ·a science-fictin nvel
·a scientist's bigraphy ·a science magazine
Hw t enter
Entering is simple! First, spend ne perid reading abut science. Then visit ur cntest site:wlkids.cm/sciencereadingday!
On the site, yu'll be asked t enter infrmatin abut either yurself r yur classrm. Then share either yur reading list r phts f yur reading. And yu're dne!
Great prizes
In ttal, there are abut $2,500 wrth f prizes t be wn. These include:
·Five individual prize packs f bks and magazines wrth $150
·Five classrm prize packs f bks and magazines wrth $350
Sunds great! S get ut there and enjy reading abut science. We can't wait t see yur entries!
31. Wh is invited t jin in the cntest?
A. A teacher aged 30. B. My 2-year-ld sister.
C. A grup f five university students. D. Class 3 frm a middle schl.
32. What is the crrect rder t enter the cntest?
a. Visit the cntest site.
b. Spend ne perid reading abut science.
c. Enter persnal r classrm infrmatin.
d. Sha re the reading list r phts f reading.
A. a-b-c-d B. a-d-c-b C. b-a-c-d D. b-c-a-d
33. What is the text?
A. A diary. B. An ad. C. A news reprt. D. A bk review.
B
Wh is yur favrite pet? Fr many yung peple, the answer is Shel Silyerstein. Shel's first bk Uncle Shelby's Stry f Lafcadi the. Lin Wh Sht Back was published in the 1960s,. and since then his children's bks have sld mre than 30 millin cpies! Yung peple recgnize that Shel really understd his readers.
Shel Silverstein was brn in Chicag, Illinis, in 1930. He began writing pems when he was yung. Althugh he was best knwn fr writing children's stries, Shel was creative in many ways. He began his career in the arts as a cartnist in his twenties. He als was a talented singer, sngwriter, cmpser, and illustratr. In fact, Shel illustrated all f his children's bks himself.This is ne reasn the pictures seem t match the pem s perfectly.
Where the Sidewalk Ends, first published in 1974, is ne f the mst belved children's bks f all time. But what makes Shel's petry s timeless and ppular? His pems are ften funny, and yung peple lve Shel's type f humr.
In ne pem, he tld the stry f a girl wh refused t take ut the garbage. It piled up higher and higher until it almst tk ver the twn. Many kids have experienced the feeling f nt wanting t d a chre. They lve the feeling f being ut f cntrl in the bk because they knw that it wuld never happen that way in real life.
Shel als liked t play with language in his petry. He ften used skills like Alliteratin in his wrk. Alliteratin is the use f wrds that begin with the same sunds. In the pem abut the girl wh refused t take ut the garbage, the character's name is Sarah Cynthia Sylvia Stut. This type f Alliteratin can make petry fun t read alud.
In1999, Shel Silverstein died in his hme in Key West Flrida: Children and adults will miss his special humr and incredible imaginatin. As the media's wrds g,“Where there is a library,there are Shel's bks.”
34. When did Shel Silverstein becme a cartnist?
A. In the 1940s. B. In the 1950s. C. In the 1960s. D. In the 1970s!
35. What kind f persn is Shel Silverstein?
A. Fun and talkative. B. Kind and creative.
C. Talented and humrus. D. Clever and friendly.
36. What des the underlined wrd“illustrate”in Paragraph 2 prbably mean?
A. Draw pictures. B. Read stries. C. Write sngs. D. Tell jkes.
37. Which f the fllwing sentence is an example f Allileratin?
A. Tell me I'm clever. Tell me I'm kind.
B. Mandy's m m made muthwatering mncakes.
C. I made myself a snwball as perfect as culd be.
D. The garbage reached acrss the state frm New Yrk t the Glden Gate.
C
①That future is almst here.“I think it's ging t happen. Definitely in ten years... and hpefully much, much faster,”said Sebastian Thrun in 2021. At that time, his yung cmpany Kitty Hawk Crpratin was wrking n develping a flying car knwn as eVTOL, r Electrnic Vertical Take-Off and Landing vehicle(车辆).
②Flying t wrk r schl sunds unbelievable. Nt nly is it fun t fly, but “there wuld never be traffic again, because the sky is very, very large,”says Thrun. He als thinks eVTOLs culd be greener than cmmn cars.“We g much faster, we g in a straight line, we fly n less energy,”he says.
③S far, thugh, flying cars haven't taken ff as a prduct. Will their day cme? There are still many prblems t slve. Their high price means mst peple wn't be able t affrd ne. S,sme cmpanies are develping them as air taxis that peple culd pay t ride. The main prblem with flying cars is safety. Accidents in the air are dangerus t bth the passengers and anyne n the grund beneath. T make eVTOLs safer, many develpers are aiming t make them self-flying——n human pilt required.
④Anther prblem is space. Mst aircraft need lng runways t take ff and land. Lifting straight up and dwn like a helicpter slves this prblem. But eVTOLs still need special spaces,called vertiprts, fr take-ff and landing. Finding places t put these culd be tricky, especially in crwded cities. But maybe sme culd g n tp f buildings.
⑤What d yu think? Wuld yu enjy riding t schl r t visit a friend in a self-flying taxi?Are flying cars a gd idea, r shuld we find ther ways t get arund in the near future?
38. What is Sebastian Thrun's pinin abut the future f flying cars?
A. He thinks it will never happen.
B. He thinks it will happen in the next century.
C. He is nt sure abut the future f flying cars.
D. He believes it will happen in ten years and faster.
39. Why are sme cmpanies develping Mying cars as air taxis?
A. T slve safety prblems. B. T make them chapr.
C. T prvide rides fr peple. D. T cmpete with cmmn cars.
40. What is the pssible structure f the passage?
41. What is prbably the best title f the passage?
A. Is a Flying Car Yur Dream Car? B. WI II Future Flying Cars Need Drivers?
C. The Exclting Wrld f Electric Taxls D. The Histry f Alr Travel Technlgles
D
Shuld I g fr a hamburger r a piece f bread? D I paint my rm blue r pink? Peple make chices ev ery day but it can smetimes lead t feeling scarcd and unsure. When yu're able t make decisins, accept and learn frm them. This can give yu a sense f calm.
Sme decisins, like what t buy r when yu g ut, aren't very serius, but thers can influence yur health, schl and relatinships. It is imprtant t take time t make a decisin,especially when chsing makes yu feel nervus. Hwever, if yu ignre(忽视) decisin-making,yu will be in truble. As yu grw up, making decisins becmes an imprtant part f life.
When it cmes t making difficult decisins, it can be helpful t break dwn yur thinking.Yu culd start by listing the different chices, then weigh up the gd and bad sides f each chice.
Teacher and health expert, Anita Garai says:“Listen t yur bdy, especially if yur thughts are nt clear r yu feel wrried.”Garai says peple shuld fllw their true feelings and listening t their hearts can help a lt,“Try t catch yur first excitement, befre yur mind questins things,”she says. Althugh cnsidering ther peple's feelings can be a part f decisin-making, Garai says yu shuldn't make wrng decisins in rder t please thers.
Many peple wrry if they can make the “right” decisin. Garai says, “There's nt always a right chice and a wrng chice. Different ways lead t different experiences.”
If yur chice leads t disappintment, try t think abut whether yu wuld make a different decisin in the future.
42. Hw des the writer lead int the tpic?
A. By telling stries. B. By giving examples.
C. By asking questins. D. By sharing experiences.
43. What is Paragraph 2 mainly abut?
A. Why decisin-making is imprtant.
B. Hw lng it takes t make decisins.
C. Hw yu feel when making decisins.
D. What decisins yu make when ging ut.
44. What des Expert Garai advise yu t d when making decisins?
A. T keep yurself excited B. T please thers arund yu.
C. T fllw yur wn feelings. D. T listen t t yur best friends.
45. What is the main purpse f the passage?
A. T help readers learn hw t make decisins.
B. T encurage readers t make right decisins.
C. T share different feelings f making decisins.
D. T intrduce different kinds f decisins in ur daily life.
四、任务型阅读(本题有5小题，每小题2分； 共计10分)
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的 A-B 五个选项中选择正确的选项(其中一项是多余选项) , 将其序号填入46-49题, 并回答第 50题。
Why nt find a new friend in 2024——yurself! Being treated with kindness, respect and lve are things yu wuld expect frm a gd friendship and yu shuldn't have t g far t find them. 46
What des self-lve mean? 47 . Imagine yur best friend is wrried r upset, then think abut hw yu'd supprt them and try t make them feel better. Speaking t yurself with kindness. Be as kind t yurself as yu are t thers.
48 Because learning t lve wh yu are imprves yur self-respect. The mental health charity Yung Minds says this makes yu believe in yurself and feel that yu deserve(值得)having gd things——such as kind friends and fun experiences.
49 Start t be kind, especially if yu make a mistake. Instead f being angry, tell yurself that everyne gets things wrng smetimes. Try nt t cmpare yurself t thers. Fcus n yurself instead. Writing dwn yur strengths and asking yur family and friends fr their thughts.This will help yu see the psitives in yur life.
A. Why des it matter?
B. Hw t better yurself?
C. Start by being yur wn friend.
D. Self-lve can help schlwrk.
E. It means taking really gd care f yur bdy and mind.
50. Hw will yu better yurself in 2024?(Answer in n mre than 15 wrds)
卷 二
说明：本卷共三大题，26小题； 满分45分。
五、词汇运用(本题有 15 小题，每小题1分； 共计15分)
A. 根据下刻句子及所给首字母或汉语注释，写出空缺处各单词的正确形式，每空只写一词。
51. Natinal Day is n the first day f O .
52. Jack was l fr schl. He explained t his teacher that he didn't catch the bus.
53. During ur vísit t the z, we learned interesting facts f animals and enjyed .
54. On Mid-Autumn Festival, families get tgether t a the mn and share mncakes.
55. On a clear night, yu culd see thusands f s shining in the sky and dancing n the water belw.
56. (无论什么) yu d, d it a hundred percent.
57. He (明智地) chse t listen t his parents' advice.
58. I am ging t be a (医生) when I finish my cllege.
59. I like all fruits (除了) fr bananas because they taste t sweet fr me.
60. Eric made sure t have (足够的) exercise every day by running arund.
B. 根据短文内容，用方框中所给词的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。
big piece take care f patiently grw
Cmmunity gardens are special places where peple gather t grw vegetables, fruits, and flwers. A garden might be 61 than a ftball field, r it might fit n a rftp. Big r small,cmmunity gardens are ften divided int small 62 f land, ne fr each gardener r family.These gardens can be great fr families wh dn't have rm fr 63 plants at hme, r wh just like gardening with ther peple. It's fun t see hw thers 64 their small garden s and what they like t eat!. There's s much fr new gardeners t learn. It takes many weeks fr a garden t grw 65 . But by the end f the seasn, cmmunity gardeners can pick delicius vegetables with their new friends!
六、语法填空(本题有 10 小题，每小题1分； 共计10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Kun Opera is a kind f traditinal Chinese pera 66 has been arund. fr ver 600 years. It is cnsidered t be ne f 67 (ld) frms f Chinese peras. The 68 (ne)recrd f Kun Opera ges back 69 . the 14th century in the Yuan Dynasty. The Kunshan area in Jiangsu Prvince is the birthplace f Kun Opera. Kun Opera became 70 natinal art frm in the 16th century. In the fllwing 200 years, between the Ming Dynasty and the Qing Dynasty,Kun Opera 71 (welcme) arund the cuntry, becming an imprtant part f Chinese culture. Sadly, Kun Opera 72 fall) little by little since the 18th century. With the rise f ther peras such as Peking Opera, Kun Opera started 73 (lse) its grund. In the 20th century, Kun Opera almst died ut. Thanks t verseas Chinese Kun Opera grups and 74 (fan), sme Kun Opera pieces and skills remained. 75 (recent), the rise f“zhe zi xi”culd keep this kind f art alive. Instead f acting the whle piece f ne play fr a lng time, nw the artists can perfrm ne r several interesting pieces n their wn.
七、书面表达(本题有 1小题； 共计20分)
76. 假设你是李华，寒假期间参与了班级组织的社会实践活动。 请你写一篇英语短文，向校英语报投稿，分享此次活动的经历和感受。文章包括以下内容要点：
注意：(1) 短文必须包括表格中的所有信息，可适当发挥；
(2) 文中不得出现真实人名、校名等相关信息；
(3) 词数: 80~100。标题和开头已给出, 不计入总词数。
A Day at the Library
During the winter break, I had a great time jining in a special scial practice activity.
台州市 2024年九年级教学质量评估试题
英语参考答案和评分标准
一、 听力(1~5 题每小题1分，6~15 题每小题1.5分。 选错答案、 多选或不选一律不给分)
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. B
10. A 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B
二、完形填空(每小题1分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分)
16. A 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C
25. A 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. D
三、阅读理解(每小题2分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分)
31. D 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. B
40. D 41. A 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. A
四、任务型阅读(每小题2分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分)
46. C 47. E 48. A 49. B
50. One pssible versin:
I'm ging t d mre exercise t keep healthy.
五、词汇运用(每小题1分，写错答案一律不给分，首字母大小写错误扣0.5 分)
51. Octber 52. late 53. urselves 54. admire 55. stars
56. Whatever 57. wisely 58. dctr 59. except 60. enugh
61. bigger 62. pieces 63. grwing 64. take care f 65. patiently
六、语法填空(每小题1分，写错答案一律不给分，首字母大小写错误扣0.5 分)
66. that/which 67. the ldest 68. first 69. t 70. a
71. was welcmed 72. has fallen 73. t lse/lsing 74. fans 75. Recently
七、书面表达(20分)
76. One pssible versin:
A Day at the Library
During the winter break, I had a great time jining in a special scial practice activity. Our class rganized a visit t Taizhu Library n Saturday, February 3rd, and it was an unfrgettable experience!
First, we wrked tgether t rganize bks n the library shelves. It was like slving a big puzzle, and I enjyed every mment f it. After that, we made clrful bkmarks which wuld encurage peple t read mre bks. But the mst amazing part was reading stries t yung kids. I culd see in their eyes that they were ging n a different jurney with each new bk.
This experience gave me a great sense f pride. Our small effrts made a big difference.
When
Saturday, February 3rd
Where
Taizhu Library
What I did
help rganize bks, make bkmarks...
Hw I felt
a sense f pride
亲爱的考生：
欢迎参加考试！请你认真审题，仔细答题，发挥最佳水平。 答题时，请注意以下几点：
1. 全卷共10页。 满分120分。 考试时间100分钟。
2. 答案必须写在答题纸相应的位置上，写在试题卷、 草稿纸上无效。
3. 答题前，请认真阅读答题纸上的“注意事项”，按规定答题。
卷 一
说明：本卷共四大题，50小题，满分75分。
第一部分 听力部分
一、 听力(本题有 15 小题，第一节每小题1分，第二、 三节每小题 1.5分； 共计20分)第一节：听小对话，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
1. Hw is the weather tday?
A. Rainy. B. Cludy. C. Sunny.
2. When did Lisa cme t China?
A. In 2001. B. In 2008. C. In 2018.
3. What is the wman's favrite fruit?
A. Apples. B. Bananas. C. Oranges.
4. Wh played the vilin at the art festival?
A. Je. B. Sara. C. Ella.
5. Where are the tw speakers?
A. Athme. B. At schl. C. At a shp.
第二节：听较长对话， 从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。听下面一段较长对话，回答第6~7两个小题。
6. Hw ften des Jenny practice dancing?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
7. What des the by like ding?
A. Dancing. B. Playing tennis. C. Swimming.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8~10三个小题。
8. Hw lng will the speakers stay in Hangzhu?
A. Fr ne week. B. Fr tw weeks. C. Fr three weeks.
9. Which place will the speakers visit n the third day?
A. The West Lake. B. Hangzhu Museum. C. Lingyi n Temple,
10. What des Sam think f the high-speed railway?
A. Cnvenient. B. Cmfrtable. C. Fast.
第三节：听独白，从题中所给的A、 B、 C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
11. Why is Natinal Vlunteer Week held every April?
A. T train new vlunteers.
B. T prvide jbs fr vlunteers.
C. T thank vlunteers fr their help.
12. What des the first tip tell yu t d?
A. Start slwly. B. Chse a partner. C. Take part in training.
13. What kind f partner is advised t chse?
A. A partner f the same age.
B. A partner with the same ideas.
C. A partner with the same interests.
14. Hw can an experienced partner help yu in vlunteering?
A. Build cnfidence.
B. Stp feeling stressed.
C. Get used t vlunteer wrk quickly.
15. Hw many tips are mentined?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、完形填空(本题有 15 小题，每小题1分； 共计15分)
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Every Saturday, Bibi hung ut at her grandma's laundry and dry-cleaning stre. Bibi lved being with her grandma but she wanted t d mre than just 16 and read.
Bibi had an idea t write dwn what peple brught and put a number n it. Bein g t shrt.she culdn't 17 certain tasks. But she still wanted t help.
“Why dn't yu draw a picture f custmers cming in? Yu're such a gd 18 Grandma jked.“Maybe that wuld help!”
Bibi went utside, seeing Stephanie and sme high schl students painting big letters n 19 up and dwn the street.
Bibi asked 20 they were ding that n windws, Stephanie explained they were painting fr a ftball game. Bibi wndered if the paint washed ff. Stephanie said yes, mentining it's just crnstarch, sap, and fd clring.
“I can help 21 !”Bibi called t Stephanie, her heart beating.“I can draw!”
“ 22 , Bibi, I run ut f paint.”Stephanie said.“I have t get hme. Thank yu all the same!”
23 , Bibi lked at Grandma's windws. 24 an idea jumped int Bibi's head. Wuld it wrk? Wuld Grandma agree?
25 asking permissin and brrwing a few dllars, Bibi bught materials. She and Grandma 26 ways and made hmema de windw paint tgether, then Bibi set t wrk.
She washed the windws, wrte her 27 , and filled in the letters with different clrs.Then came the 28 part. She really enjyed drawing!
When she was finished, Bibi went inside t get Grandma 29 she wanted t shw her.
When they came back ut, a grup f kids were gathered there.
“Great jb!”said ne girl.
“Perfect,”said anther.
AFTER THE GAME, BRING YOUR UNIFORMS HERE! the windw said.
Bibi had drawn a picture f the team's unifrms 30 int the water.
Grandma clapped and hugged Bibi. “This just might help,”she said. After the game, it did.
16. A. draw B. sing C. listen D. dance
17. A. talk abut B. deal with C. give up D. think abut
18. A. custmer B. artist C. singer D. player
19. A. grunds B. drs C. walls D. windws
20. A. when B. where. C. why D. hw
21. A. yu B. him C. her D. them
22. A. Sure B. Srry C. OK D. Great
23. A. Scared B. Satisfied C. Disappinted D. Prud
24. A. Gradually B. Certainly C. Suddenly D. Carefully
25. A. After B. Withut C. Befre D. Fr
26. A. frgt B. refused C. missed D. studied
27. A. hmewrk B. stry C. message D. diary
28. A. fun B. traditinal C. lucky D. tiring
29. A. thugh B. because C. until D. r
30. A. digging B. walking C. mving D. jumping
三、阅读理解(本题有 15 小题，每小题2分； 共计30分)
阅读下面材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Hey there, science-lving students! Dn't frget that tday is the 7th annual Natinal Science Reading Day!
This September 20, kids frm ages 3 t 17 are. invited t spend ne perid f the day reading abut science. These readings can be dne either individually(个人的) r as a whle classrm.And students can read abut science in many different ways. Yu can read:
·a nn-fictin bk ·a science-fictin nvel
·a scientist's bigraphy ·a science magazine
Hw t enter
Entering is simple! First, spend ne perid reading abut science. Then visit ur cntest site:wlkids.cm/sciencereadingday!
On the site, yu'll be asked t enter infrmatin abut either yurself r yur classrm. Then share either yur reading list r phts f yur reading. And yu're dne!
Great prizes
In ttal, there are abut $2,500 wrth f prizes t be wn. These include:
·Five individual prize packs f bks and magazines wrth $150
·Five classrm prize packs f bks and magazines wrth $350
Sunds great! S get ut there and enjy reading abut science. We can't wait t see yur entries!
31. Wh is invited t jin in the cntest?
A. A teacher aged 30. B. My 2-year-ld sister.
C. A grup f five university students. D. Class 3 frm a middle schl.
32. What is the crrect rder t enter the cntest?
a. Visit the cntest site.
b. Spend ne perid reading abut science.
c. Enter persnal r classrm infrmatin.
d. Sha re the reading list r phts f reading.
A. a-b-c-d B. a-d-c-b C. b-a-c-d D. b-c-a-d
33. What is the text?
A. A diary. B. An ad. C. A news reprt. D. A bk review.
B
Wh is yur favrite pet? Fr many yung peple, the answer is Shel Silyerstein. Shel's first bk Uncle Shelby's Stry f Lafcadi the. Lin Wh Sht Back was published in the 1960s,. and since then his children's bks have sld mre than 30 millin cpies! Yung peple recgnize that Shel really understd his readers.
Shel Silverstein was brn in Chicag, Illinis, in 1930. He began writing pems when he was yung. Althugh he was best knwn fr writing children's stries, Shel was creative in many ways. He began his career in the arts as a cartnist in his twenties. He als was a talented singer, sngwriter, cmpser, and illustratr. In fact, Shel illustrated all f his children's bks himself.This is ne reasn the pictures seem t match the pem s perfectly.
Where the Sidewalk Ends, first published in 1974, is ne f the mst belved children's bks f all time. But what makes Shel's petry s timeless and ppular? His pems are ften funny, and yung peple lve Shel's type f humr.
In ne pem, he tld the stry f a girl wh refused t take ut the garbage. It piled up higher and higher until it almst tk ver the twn. Many kids have experienced the feeling f nt wanting t d a chre. They lve the feeling f being ut f cntrl in the bk because they knw that it wuld never happen that way in real life.
Shel als liked t play with language in his petry. He ften used skills like Alliteratin in his wrk. Alliteratin is the use f wrds that begin with the same sunds. In the pem abut the girl wh refused t take ut the garbage, the character's name is Sarah Cynthia Sylvia Stut. This type f Alliteratin can make petry fun t read alud.
In1999, Shel Silverstein died in his hme in Key West Flrida: Children and adults will miss his special humr and incredible imaginatin. As the media's wrds g,“Where there is a library,there are Shel's bks.”
34. When did Shel Silverstein becme a cartnist?
A. In the 1940s. B. In the 1950s. C. In the 1960s. D. In the 1970s!
35. What kind f persn is Shel Silverstein?
A. Fun and talkative. B. Kind and creative.
C. Talented and humrus. D. Clever and friendly.
36. What des the underlined wrd“illustrate”in Paragraph 2 prbably mean?
A. Draw pictures. B. Read stries. C. Write sngs. D. Tell jkes.
37. Which f the fllwing sentence is an example f Allileratin?
A. Tell me I'm clever. Tell me I'm kind.
B. Mandy's m m made muthwatering mncakes.
C. I made myself a snwball as perfect as culd be.
D. The garbage reached acrss the state frm New Yrk t the Glden Gate.
C
①That future is almst here.“I think it's ging t happen. Definitely in ten years... and hpefully much, much faster,”said Sebastian Thrun in 2021. At that time, his yung cmpany Kitty Hawk Crpratin was wrking n develping a flying car knwn as eVTOL, r Electrnic Vertical Take-Off and Landing vehicle(车辆).
②Flying t wrk r schl sunds unbelievable. Nt nly is it fun t fly, but “there wuld never be traffic again, because the sky is very, very large,”says Thrun. He als thinks eVTOLs culd be greener than cmmn cars.“We g much faster, we g in a straight line, we fly n less energy,”he says.
③S far, thugh, flying cars haven't taken ff as a prduct. Will their day cme? There are still many prblems t slve. Their high price means mst peple wn't be able t affrd ne. S,sme cmpanies are develping them as air taxis that peple culd pay t ride. The main prblem with flying cars is safety. Accidents in the air are dangerus t bth the passengers and anyne n the grund beneath. T make eVTOLs safer, many develpers are aiming t make them self-flying——n human pilt required.
④Anther prblem is space. Mst aircraft need lng runways t take ff and land. Lifting straight up and dwn like a helicpter slves this prblem. But eVTOLs still need special spaces,called vertiprts, fr take-ff and landing. Finding places t put these culd be tricky, especially in crwded cities. But maybe sme culd g n tp f buildings.
⑤What d yu think? Wuld yu enjy riding t schl r t visit a friend in a self-flying taxi?Are flying cars a gd idea, r shuld we find ther ways t get arund in the near future?
38. What is Sebastian Thrun's pinin abut the future f flying cars?
A. He thinks it will never happen.
B. He thinks it will happen in the next century.
C. He is nt sure abut the future f flying cars.
D. He believes it will happen in ten years and faster.
39. Why are sme cmpanies develping Mying cars as air taxis?
A. T slve safety prblems. B. T make them chapr.
C. T prvide rides fr peple. D. T cmpete with cmmn cars.
40. What is the pssible structure f the passage?
41. What is prbably the best title f the passage?
A. Is a Flying Car Yur Dream Car? B. WI II Future Flying Cars Need Drivers?
C. The Exclting Wrld f Electric Taxls D. The Histry f Alr Travel Technlgles
D
Shuld I g fr a hamburger r a piece f bread? D I paint my rm blue r pink? Peple make chices ev ery day but it can smetimes lead t feeling scarcd and unsure. When yu're able t make decisins, accept and learn frm them. This can give yu a sense f calm.
Sme decisins, like what t buy r when yu g ut, aren't very serius, but thers can influence yur health, schl and relatinships. It is imprtant t take time t make a decisin,especially when chsing makes yu feel nervus. Hwever, if yu ignre(忽视) decisin-making,yu will be in truble. As yu grw up, making decisins becmes an imprtant part f life.
When it cmes t making difficult decisins, it can be helpful t break dwn yur thinking.Yu culd start by listing the different chices, then weigh up the gd and bad sides f each chice.
Teacher and health expert, Anita Garai says:“Listen t yur bdy, especially if yur thughts are nt clear r yu feel wrried.”Garai says peple shuld fllw their true feelings and listening t their hearts can help a lt,“Try t catch yur first excitement, befre yur mind questins things,”she says. Althugh cnsidering ther peple's feelings can be a part f decisin-making, Garai says yu shuldn't make wrng decisins in rder t please thers.
Many peple wrry if they can make the “right” decisin. Garai says, “There's nt always a right chice and a wrng chice. Different ways lead t different experiences.”
If yur chice leads t disappintment, try t think abut whether yu wuld make a different decisin in the future.
42. Hw des the writer lead int the tpic?
A. By telling stries. B. By giving examples.
C. By asking questins. D. By sharing experiences.
43. What is Paragraph 2 mainly abut?
A. Why decisin-making is imprtant.
B. Hw lng it takes t make decisins.
C. Hw yu feel when making decisins.
D. What decisins yu make when ging ut.
44. What des Expert Garai advise yu t d when making decisins?
A. T keep yurself excited B. T please thers arund yu.
C. T fllw yur wn feelings. D. T listen t t yur best friends.
45. What is the main purpse f the passage?
A. T help readers learn hw t make decisins.
B. T encurage readers t make right decisins.
C. T share different feelings f making decisins.
D. T intrduce different kinds f decisins in ur daily life.
四、任务型阅读(本题有5小题，每小题2分； 共计10分)
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的 A-B 五个选项中选择正确的选项(其中一项是多余选项) , 将其序号填入46-49题, 并回答第 50题。
Why nt find a new friend in 2024——yurself! Being treated with kindness, respect and lve are things yu wuld expect frm a gd friendship and yu shuldn't have t g far t find them. 46
What des self-lve mean? 47 . Imagine yur best friend is wrried r upset, then think abut hw yu'd supprt them and try t make them feel better. Speaking t yurself with kindness. Be as kind t yurself as yu are t thers.
48 Because learning t lve wh yu are imprves yur self-respect. The mental health charity Yung Minds says this makes yu believe in yurself and feel that yu deserve(值得)having gd things——such as kind friends and fun experiences.
49 Start t be kind, especially if yu make a mistake. Instead f being angry, tell yurself that everyne gets things wrng smetimes. Try nt t cmpare yurself t thers. Fcus n yurself instead. Writing dwn yur strengths and asking yur family and friends fr their thughts.This will help yu see the psitives in yur life.
A. Why des it matter?
B. Hw t better yurself?
C. Start by being yur wn friend.
D. Self-lve can help schlwrk.
E. It means taking really gd care f yur bdy and mind.
50. Hw will yu better yurself in 2024?(Answer in n mre than 15 wrds)
卷 二
说明：本卷共三大题，26小题； 满分45分。
五、词汇运用(本题有 15 小题，每小题1分； 共计15分)
A. 根据下刻句子及所给首字母或汉语注释，写出空缺处各单词的正确形式，每空只写一词。
51. Natinal Day is n the first day f O .
52. Jack was l fr schl. He explained t his teacher that he didn't catch the bus.
53. During ur vísit t the z, we learned interesting facts f animals and enjyed .
54. On Mid-Autumn Festival, families get tgether t a the mn and share mncakes.
55. On a clear night, yu culd see thusands f s shining in the sky and dancing n the water belw.
56. (无论什么) yu d, d it a hundred percent.
57. He (明智地) chse t listen t his parents' advice.
58. I am ging t be a (医生) when I finish my cllege.
59. I like all fruits (除了) fr bananas because they taste t sweet fr me.
60. Eric made sure t have (足够的) exercise every day by running arund.
B. 根据短文内容，用方框中所给词的适当形式填空，每词限用一次。
big piece take care f patiently grw
Cmmunity gardens are special places where peple gather t grw vegetables, fruits, and flwers. A garden might be 61 than a ftball field, r it might fit n a rftp. Big r small,cmmunity gardens are ften divided int small 62 f land, ne fr each gardener r family.These gardens can be great fr families wh dn't have rm fr 63 plants at hme, r wh just like gardening with ther peple. It's fun t see hw thers 64 their small garden s and what they like t eat!. There's s much fr new gardeners t learn. It takes many weeks fr a garden t grw 65 . But by the end f the seasn, cmmunity gardeners can pick delicius vegetables with their new friends!
六、语法填空(本题有 10 小题，每小题1分； 共计10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Kun Opera is a kind f traditinal Chinese pera 66 has been arund. fr ver 600 years. It is cnsidered t be ne f 67 (ld) frms f Chinese peras. The 68 (ne)recrd f Kun Opera ges back 69 . the 14th century in the Yuan Dynasty. The Kunshan area in Jiangsu Prvince is the birthplace f Kun Opera. Kun Opera became 70 natinal art frm in the 16th century. In the fllwing 200 years, between the Ming Dynasty and the Qing Dynasty,Kun Opera 71 (welcme) arund the cuntry, becming an imprtant part f Chinese culture. Sadly, Kun Opera 72 fall) little by little since the 18th century. With the rise f ther peras such as Peking Opera, Kun Opera started 73 (lse) its grund. In the 20th century, Kun Opera almst died ut. Thanks t verseas Chinese Kun Opera grups and 74 (fan), sme Kun Opera pieces and skills remained. 75 (recent), the rise f“zhe zi xi”culd keep this kind f art alive. Instead f acting the whle piece f ne play fr a lng time, nw the artists can perfrm ne r several interesting pieces n their wn.
七、书面表达(本题有 1小题； 共计20分)
76. 假设你是李华，寒假期间参与了班级组织的社会实践活动。 请你写一篇英语短文，向校英语报投稿，分享此次活动的经历和感受。文章包括以下内容要点：
注意：(1) 短文必须包括表格中的所有信息，可适当发挥；
(2) 文中不得出现真实人名、校名等相关信息；
(3) 词数: 80~100。标题和开头已给出, 不计入总词数。
A Day at the Library
During the winter break, I had a great time jining in a special scial practice activity.
台州市 2024年九年级教学质量评估试题
英语参考答案和评分标准
一、 听力(1~5 题每小题1分，6~15 题每小题1.5分。 选错答案、 多选或不选一律不给分)
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. B
10. A 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B
二、完形填空(每小题1分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分)
16. A 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C
25. A 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. D
三、阅读理解(每小题2分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分)
31. D 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. B
40. D 41. A 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. A
四、任务型阅读(每小题2分，选错答案、多选或不选一律不给分)
46. C 47. E 48. A 49. B
50. One pssible versin:
I'm ging t d mre exercise t keep healthy.
五、词汇运用(每小题1分，写错答案一律不给分，首字母大小写错误扣0.5 分)
51. Octber 52. late 53. urselves 54. admire 55. stars
56. Whatever 57. wisely 58. dctr 59. except 60. enugh
61. bigger 62. pieces 63. grwing 64. take care f 65. patiently
六、语法填空(每小题1分，写错答案一律不给分，首字母大小写错误扣0.5 分)
66. that/which 67. the ldest 68. first 69. t 70. a
71. was welcmed 72. has fallen 73. t lse/lsing 74. fans 75. Recently
七、书面表达(20分)
76. One pssible versin:
A Day at the Library
During the winter break, I had a great time jining in a special scial practice activity. Our class rganized a visit t Taizhu Library n Saturday, February 3rd, and it was an unfrgettable experience!
First, we wrked tgether t rganize bks n the library shelves. It was like slving a big puzzle, and I enjyed every mment f it. After that, we made clrful bkmarks which wuld encurage peple t read mre bks. But the mst amazing part was reading stries t yung kids. I culd see in their eyes that they were ging n a different jurney with each new bk.
This experience gave me a great sense f pride. Our small effrts made a big difference.
When
Saturday, February 3rd
Where
Taizhu Library
What I did
help rganize bks, make bkmarks...
Hw I felt
a sense f pride
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