2024安徽省县中联盟高二上学期10月联考英语试题含解析

2023～2024学年安徽县中联盟高二10月联考

英语试题

考生注意：

1．满分150分，考试时间120分钟。

2．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。

第一部分  听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节  （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1．How is Carl?

A．He’s better now.                B．He feels very cold.                C．He hasn’t got well yet.

2．What is the woman probably doing?

A．Counting numbers.                B．Solving a maths problem.            C．Making a phone call.

3．What does the man mean?

A．He can’t reach there on time.

B．He will try to get there on time.

C．He is unwilling to take the woman there.

4．What did the speakers do?

A．They had final exams.            B．They found a job.                C．They went to a college.

5．How much did the woman pay for her sweater?

A．$ 48.                            B．$ 69.                            C．$ 96.

第二节  （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6．Where does the conversation take place?

A．At home.                        B．At a restaurant.                    C．In a supermarket.

7．What will the speakers do first after supper this evening?

A．See a film.                    B．Buy something for the man.        C．Walk in the shops and stores.

听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。

8．What did the man buy for his wife?

A．A dress.                        B．A skirt.                        C．A pair of glasses.

9．Where is the shop Mary’s?

A．In front of the speakers’ company.

B．Behind the speakers’ company.

C．Beside the man’s house.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10．Why does the man want to give up his job?

A．The pay is too low.                B．The hours are too late.            C．His office is far from his home.

11．What is the woman’s attitude to the man’s idea?

A．Unfavorable.                    B．Positive.                        C．Unconcerned.

12．What can we learn about the man?

A．He has decided to quit.            B．He has found a better job.            C．His present job is well paid.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13．Who are the speakers talking about?

A．Their student.                    B．Their friend.                    C．Their son.

14．How old is Bob?

A．17.                            B．16.                            C．15.

15．What does the woman think of Bob’s traveling alone?

A．Unnecessary.                    B．Worrying.                        C．Annoying.

16．Who left home to make a living at 17?

A．The woman                    B．The man.                        C．Bob.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17．Which of the following shows that Emma was a very special lady?

A．She worked hard.                B．She was an able lady.            C．She was a famous scientist.

18．What do we learn about Emma and Charles before they got married?

A．They were neighbors.

B．They came from Wedgwood family.

C．Charles’ mother was a relative of Emma’s father.

19．How many children did Emma Darwin have?

A．8.                            B．10.                            C．12.

20．What do we know about Charles Darwin?

A．He had no time to read science.

B．He was interested in music.

C．He didn’t do well in society

第二部分  阅读（共两节，满分50分）

第一节  （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Four Best Music Festivals to Attend Next Year

Something in the Water USA

This festival is organised by Pharrell Williams and around 50,000 visitors enjoyed the event this year. It always has an impressive star lineup (阵容) with the likes of Usher, Justin Timberlake, J Balvin, Dave Matthews Band and Calvin Harris headlining the festival in advance. Next year’s lineup is to be announced soon.

Dates: 28 — 30 April

Venue (场馆): Virginia Beach, Virginia

Tomorrowland, Belgium

There’s a reason why this festival draws crowds to the Belgian countryside annually. An electro and house music lover’s dream, the event is famous for not only its special stage design, but also activities like hidden nooks (角落) to be explored. Names like Dimitri Vegas & Like Mike, David Guetta, Nicky Romero, and Tiësto have been known to play here.

Dates: 21 — 30 July

Venue: Schorre Recreation Area, Boom

Glastonbury, UK

The annual music festival is one of the most famous ones people in the UK and around the world are looking forward to attending. Next year will see big names like Elton John take the stage. This year, the festival brought acts like Billie Eilish, Kendrick Lamar, Haim, and Megan Thee Stallion to the party.

Dates: 21 — 25 June

Venue: Worthy Farm, Pilton, Somerset

Amsterdam Dance Event, Amsterdam

A must-visit event for an electronic music lover, the Amsterdam Dance Event is entertainment-driven education for any learner of this kind of music. At the festival, there are many live performances and lectures, and bands such as Suzanne Ciani & Metropole Orkest, and Jameszoo’s Blind Group will play here. There are more than 1,000 events planned over 200 venues next year.

Dates: 18 — 22August

Venue: Across Amsterdam

1. Which music festival lasts the longest?

A. Something in the Water. B. Tomorrowland.

C. Glastonbury. D. Amsterdam Dance Event.

2. Where will you go if you are a fan of Elton John?

A. Amsterdam. B. Worthy Farm, Pilton, Somerset.

C. Virginia Beach, Virginia. D. Schorre Recreation Area, Boom.

3. What can visitors do at Amsterdam Dance Event?

A. Explore the countryside’s quiet places. B. Make entertainment speeches on stage.

C. Watch live electronic music performances. D. Get involved in its special stage design.

B

Months ago, a 76-year-old woman named Marie Boyer fell in her house. For days, she was incapable of moving. Because her windows were closed, no one could hear her cry out.

On the fourth day, her regular mail carrier, Lisa Sweeney, returned from vacation and noticed something wrong. Though she and Marie hadn’t had much conversation over the years, Lisa knew her customer’s habits. The mails in the mailbox, untouched garbage cans in front of the house and the car in the driveway were clear warning signs. She knocked on the door next to Marie’s, but the man in the house had been away on vacation too and didn’t know anything. “I just had a feeling that Marie was inside,” Lisa says. She called the police and continued on her route, but kept circling back to Marie’s house until the police arrived.

Rescuers broke in through a back window to discover Marie unconscious (不省人事的). Learning that Marie was still alive, Lisa burst into tears, so glad that her customer of 11 years had been rescued.

Since that August day, Marie has moved into an assisted-living facility, but Lisa visits her regularly and still brings her mail. They even celebrated Marie’s 77th birthday at a restaurant across the street. Lisa’s son has been known to stop by to see Marie too. The close connection forged that summer day continues stronger than ever.

On Thanksgiving Day, Lisa’s home held extra guests: Marie and her son, daughter-in-law and daughter. It was their first Thanksgiving together as a family since Marie’s own mother passed away. Lisa brought Marie over early to watch the programme on TV together as well as one of the turkeys frying outside. Marie also got in some quality animal time with Lisa’s six cats and one dog.

Due to Lisa’s offer to step forward, Marie is fortunate to have a new life. “Actually, it’s lucky for me too. My life has become more colorful and happier because I have a new family member: Marie,” Lisa says.

4. Why did Lisa knock on the door of Marie’s neighbor?

A. To ask about Marie’s habits. B. To tell him to call the police.

C. To remind him to collect his mails. D. To know what had happened to Marie.

5. Why did Lisa cry on that August day?

A. She was ashamed of her mistake. B. She was worried about the late mails.

C. She was scared of rescuers’ rude behaviour. D. She was too happy for Marie’s being saved.

6. What does the underlined word “forged” in paragraph 4 probably mean?

A. Destroyed. B. Built. C. Affected. D. Judged.

7. What do Lisa’s words in the last paragraph show?

A. She feels grateful for having Marie as her family.

B. Marie’s family treated her well after the accident.

C. It’s a little difficult for Marie to start a new life.

D. Family members should always support each other.

C

As summer approaches and tourism season begins, social media users will struggle to answer the age-old question: If you didn’t post about your vacation, did you really even go?

Though it may be difficult for some to escape work emails and update social media during vacation, the island of Ulko-Tammio in Finland is appealing to visitors to avoid their screens and explore nature wholeheartedly.

Claiming to be the world’s first phone-free tourist island, Ulko-Tammio is located in the Eastern Gulf of Finland and Finland has been named “world’s happiest country” for six years and, somewhat interestingly, is home to Nokia, the famous mobile phone brand.

“The island of Ulko-Tammio, located off the coast of Hamina, will be a phone-free area this summer,” an expert in island tourism at Visit Kotka-Hamina Mats Selin said. “We want to encourage holidaymakers to switch off their smart devices and to stop and fully enjoy the island.”

One of Finland’s 41 national parks, Ulko-Tammio is uninhabited by people, but is home to many rare birds and plants, which visitors can spot on a hike along the island’s nature trails or from the island’s bird tower.

Taking part in the campaign(运动) for tourists on Ulko-Tammio is voluntary and, since mobile network is still working on the island, the difficulty in avoiding smart devices will be ever-present.

However, the staff of Parks & Wildlife Finland, the company that manages the island, hopes that the campaign encourages tourists to stay away from smart devices and engage with the scenery and fellow visitors.

“Switching off your phone, exploring nature and meeting people face-to-face will surely improve your mood and well-being,” psychologist and Research Manager at the Finnish Institute for Health and Welfare Sari Castrén said. “We spend countless hours focusing on our social media feeds, so taking a short break from them means you have more time for new experiences.”

8. What can we learn about the island of Ulko-Tammio?

A. It is home to a world-famous smartphone brand.

B. It prevents tourists from using any smart devices.

C. It aims to encourage tourists to totally enjoy nature.

D. It has been a phone-free tourist island for six years.

9. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

A. Things recommended to watch on the island. B. The importance of the island in Finland.

C. The common way to explore national parks. D. Protected places for rare birds and plants.

10 What is a challenge for the island’s tourists to avoid using phones?

A. Fellow visitors’ sharing. B. Some staff’s support.

C. Functioning mobile network. D. Access to free mobile phones.

11. What’s Sari Castrén’s attitude toward the island’s campaign?

A. Unclear. B. Objective. C. Unconcerned. D. Positive.

D

One day, an anti-cancer agent could be a cell with specially equipped powerful balloons that pop when placed near an ultrasound beam(超声束) —killing surrounding cancer cells in its wake.

The key to this operation are tiny protein bubbles. If a microbe(微生物) wishes to rise to the surface, it can create a few bubbles, making its body more flowing and pushing it upward. If it wishes to drop, it can pop a few bubbles and do the opposite. The study’s authors wondered if they could put the shock waves from those bubbles to work against tumors(肿瘤).

First, the researchers had to test bubbles’ explosive capabilities. They placed them into a petri dish. After they attacked the dish with ultrasound, in a matter of mere seconds, they saw signs of widespread damage that showed the bubbles were responsible. Then, the researchers tested the process in living, cancer-stricken mice. The researchers put E.coli bacteria in to let the microbes create bubbles. After letting the bacteria circulate for five days, they turned on the ultrasound. By that time, the researchers found that those bacteria had settled deep inside of the tumors. Nearly two weeks after the ultrasound treatment, tumors that had been broken had grown three times more slowly than those that weren’t. And the mice who had received the bubble treatment survived, on average, more than twice as long as their counterparts.

“After decades, I just haven’t seen that come to fruition,” says Mark Borden, a biomedical engineer at the University of Colorado. Of course, making this research work in the lab is one challenge. They need to ensure that putting bubble-containing microbes into a human body won’t end up striking the immune system, or that they won’t cause damage to tissues outside the tumor. So, they’d need to further test the way on animals. But, if it does work out, it could add to the ever-growing toolbox that can be used against the threat of cancer. “It’s an attractive technology and I think it has a lot of potential,” says Borden.

12. What can the bubbles made by a microbe do?

A. Increase the microbe’s size. B. Drive the microbe to move upward.

C. Remove shock waves from the microbe. D. Protect the microbe from being damaged.

13. What happened to the cancer-stricken mice after they received the bubble treatment?

A. The tumors totally disappeared. B. They showed signs of suffering.

C. They had a big chance of survival. D. The tumors changed their appearance.

14. What is the researcher’s concern about the bubble treatment?

A. It might cost a lot of money. B. It might face technological problems.

C. It might do great harm to animals’ health. D. It might cause safety problems in humans.

15. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?

A. Microbe Bubbles May Damage Cancer Cells B. Microbe Bubbles May Serve a Lot of Functions

C. Bubbles May Protect Human’s Immune System D. We May Prevent Cancer Cells Producing Bubbles

第二节  （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Highly successful people don’t become successful overnight, and if they do, chances are that they don’t stay at the top without good daily habits to keep them on track. You may ask what those daily habits are. ____16____

Make a daily to-do list.

Successful people are busy. Just how do they keep track of what needs doing in their personal and business life? ____17____ You may stress about the small things, while you actually need to be focusing on the bigger responsibilities. So to help set you up for success, make a to-do list every day.

____18____

You may live a highly sedentary(久坐不动的) lifestyle, and this isn’t good for your health. When you are in pain or sick, going after success becomes even more challenging than when you are healthy and able. Successful people know that a healthy body is equal to a healthy mind. So get moving. Choose the stairs, park further away and walk to the grocery store, or make sure you work out at least once a day.

Work toward small milestones(里程碑).

It’s the small milestones that set you up to reach your goal or achieve success. So while you should keep the big picture in mind, keep working toward the smaller goals, too. ____19____ If you want to write a novel, ensure you write 100—300 words a day.

Spend quality time with those who matter.

____20____ They have people in their inner circle who matter to them. Quality time with your loved ones such as family and friends helps fill your cup and feed your soul, which gives you the strength to keep going and go after your dreams of success.

A. Get active.

B. The answer is quite simple: a to-do list.

C. Highly successful people don’t just work.

D. Set small and practical health goals regularly.

E. Your daily habit is to spend time on these small goals.

F. I have a list of answers to your question for you to choose from.

G. Luckily for you, I have some of the best ones to get you started right here.

第三部分  语言运用（共两节，满分30分）

第一节  （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

This morning after an evening fight with my three-year-old daughter, I couldn’t wait to get her to school. I was tired from the anger and her ____21____ to communicate because of her slow language development.

As I led her into the car, I felt ____22____. Nothing was right with our world. She was born when my family had been going through a lot of ____23____. Then my child’s language problem was ____24____, but doctors struggled to help her. I felt like we both needed to be ____25____.

I returned that afternoon as ____26____ with the little girl I loved as when I left. Walking toward the school’s playground gate, I spotted her preschool teacher racing to ____27____ me.

“You should have seen her today!” ____28____, his breathy words were supported by ____29____. “See that climber.” He _____30_____ a wooden piece of playground equipment that looked like a rock wall. I nodded. “Well, every day since she started school, she’s tried but _____31_____ to reach the top.” He took a breath. “But today she _____32_____ it!”

He expressed his joy like he’d seen her conquering（征服）Mount Everest! “She cheered and celebrated! I wish I’d recorded it!” His words gave me some _____33_____. My daughter had conquered her mountain. As she ran toward me, I _____34_____ something I hadn’t before. I saw her determination. I saw her strength. I saw a _____35_____.

21. A. attempt B. need C. inability D. desire

22. A. nervous B. peaceful C. hopeless D. curious

23. A. sufferings B. emotions C. efforts D. celebrations

24. A. prevented B. replaced C. solved D. identified

25. A. protected B. rescued C. balanced D. respected

26. A. disappointed B. honest C. strict D. pleased

27. A. greet B. hear C. praise D. escape

28. A. Originally B. Obviously C. Fortunately D. Eventually

29. A. complaint B. confidence C. excitement D. bravery

30. A. took up B. pointed to C. cut down D. worked out

31. A. determined B. rejected C. intended D. failed

32. A. missed B. ignored C. tried D. made

33. A. comfort B. luck C. imagination D. description

34. A. displayed B. recognized C. taught D. provided

35. A. player B. mother C. hero D. teacher

第二节  （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Giant Panda National Park, ____36____ lies in Central China stretching across Sichuan, Ningxia, and Shaanxi provinces, is in development ____37____ will include 67 existing panda reserves.

The giant panda is ____38____ symbol of China and one of the most adorable creatures across the globe. This national park ____39____（feature）a population of 1,864 giant pandas, accounting for 80% of the Chinese giant panda population. Apart from the small number of pandas located in zoos around the world, all other giant pandas can be found within China.

Connecting the 67 existing reserves and ____40____（establish）protected areas between them allows the pandas to travel between the different regions, strengthening the panda population. This is a focused effort ____41____（help）increase the panda population.

The combination of these over 60 panda reserves is a commitment by the Chinese government to protect the species. What makes people ____42____（amaze）is that the population is growing. The International Union for Conservation of Nature has upgraded the species ____43____ endangered to threatened. Although this improvement is ____44____（incredible）positive, there is much the world needs to do to help secure the ____45____（survive）of the species.

第四部分  写作（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（满分15分）

46. 假定你是李华，你打算邀请你的留学生好友Peter在本周六一同去参观你市的科技博物馆。请给他写封信，内容包括：

1．提出邀请；2．告知安排。

注意：

1．写作词数应为80左右；2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

参考词汇：科技博物馆the Science and Technology Museum

Dear Peter,

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Yours,

Li Hua

第二节  （满分25分）

47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

It was early spring and Nana was in the backyard with her grandchildren. Amy, Michael, and Justin were playing when Nana said, “I’m going to start planting my garden. Who wants to help me?”

“What are going to plant, Nana?” asked Amy. “I like big, yellow sunflowers.”

“I’m going to plant vegetables. That way we can have them to eat when they are ready” said Nana.

“How long does that take?” asked Michael. He liked vegetables sometimes, especially carrots.

“It will take a few months before anything is ready to eat,” answered Nana. The children were surprised.

“Months? Why would you do all that work and then have to wait so long?” asked Amy. “You should just go to the store and buy them.”

“Patience, my sweeties! Don’t you know food always tastes best when you grow it yourself?” replied Nana. “And if all of you come to help, it won’t be too much work.”

“I’ll help you, Nana,” offered Justin. He put down the soccer ball and went to look at the gardening tools Nana had laid out. “What do we do first?” Michael and Amy came over to look, too.

Nana taught Justin how to use a trowel (小铲子) to dig small rows of holes for the seeds. Next, Nana showed Amy how to pour the seeds into each hole. And it was Michael’s job to cover up the holes with soil. Finally, Amy wrote the vegetable names on sticks that Justin pushed into the ground. “This way we can remember which vegetable seeds we have planted,” said Nana.

When they had planted everything, the children took turns filling up the watering can so that Nana could make the soil nice and wet for the seeds to start to grow.

“Now we just water them a little every day, and with some time and sunshine, we’ll have some delicious things to eat in the summer,” said Nana.

注意:1. 续写词数应为150左右；

2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Whenever the grandchildren came to visit, they would dash into the garden.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Finally, Nana said it was time for the first harvest.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

听力：1～5 CCBAA   6～10 ACABB   11～15 ACCAB   16～20 BBCBC