高考英语阅读理解专项训练

这是一份高考英语阅读理解专项训练，共47页。

阅读理解
When you bite into a loaf of bread, you’re eating a little slice of history, with roots that stretch back for millennia. But this basic and important food, which has dominated tables for thousands of years, is in a dangerous decline.
According to a study, 32 percent of the purchased bread is being dumped in the UK. And in France-a country whose breads are internationally well-known-young people are cutting 30 percent less than a decade ago.
Traditionally, bread has been a cornerstone of many cultures around the world. Wherever wheat was grown, bread was sure to follow. Its roles were just as varied as its origins. Bread could be used as an appetizer, a palate(味蕾)cleaner, a post-meal palate cleaner-even as an entire meal itself. As its popularity grew, so too did its symbolic value, Christianity adopted bread as are presentation of Christ during religious ceremonies. “Breaking bread” with someone became a common symbol of friendship. The French even used to bring baguettes(法棍面包)home as a symbol of love to the family.
But recently, the world’s love with bread came to fade. Some guess that the fast pace of modern life is changing people’s eating habits. Others believe it’s a reflection of health concerns. Bread is rich in complex carbobydrates(碳水化合物), a fact that could alienate anyone who practices a low-carbon or gluten-free(不含麸质物的)lifestyle.
The shift against bread is also associated with its mass production. Extra yeast(酵母)and additives are added to the dough, to extend its shelf life. In the process, bread ends up being blanched(变白)and nutritious stripped.
But dedicated bakers around the world have rushed forward to rescue bread’s good reputation. They say no to mass production-in-favor-of-baking-flavorful loaves the old-fashioned way. British baker Mark Newman is a good example. His loaves take up to 18 hours from start to finish. “In terms of nutrition and eating satisfaction, a handmade loaf of real bread and mass-produced bread are completely different products.” he said. Artisanal bakers hope to build on the popular enthusiasm to grow their industry. With a little luck-and some fresh, whole grains-bread might return to its traditional glory.
1．From the traditional view, bread ______.
A．could be mass produced
B．was not used for religious purposes
C．symbolized some close relationships
D．could not be served before a big meal
2．In the mass prod action of bread, what’s the purpose of over using yeast and additives?
A．To blanch bread. B．To help bread keep longer.
C．To speed the process of production. D．To make bread more nutritious.
3．What is the structure of the passage?
A．①②→③→④⑤→⑥ B．①→②→③④→⑤⑥
C．①②→③④→⑤→⑥ D．①→②③→④⑤⑥
4．What is the main idea that the writer wants to convey?
A．Bread is becoming less consumed.
B．Handmade bread enjoys great popularity nowadays.
C．Bread plays an important role throughout the world.
D．Bread has along history as main food dominating tables.

As a child, I was proud of my southern origin. My own voice reflected my family’s past and present-part northern Mississippi, part Tennessee, all southern. There was no sound I loved more than my grandmother’s accent: thick, sweet, warm.
While growing up, I began to realize outside of our region, southerners were often dismissed as uncultured and ignorant. I was ready to leave behind my tiny town in West Tennessee, starting a new life and jumping at big chances in some far-off cities. In that embarrassing space between “teen” and “adult”, my accent was a symbol of everything I thought I hated about my life in the rural South. I feared it would disqualify me from being a noted magazine writer. I would have to talk less “country”. So I killed a piece of myself. I’m ashamed of it, but I’m more ashamed that I tried to kill that part of someone else-change Emily’s accent.
I met Emily in college. She was determined to work for the student newspaper, which was where I spent most of my waking hours, and we became friends. She, unlike me, accepted her roots. Early in our friendship, her mother asked where I was from, assuming it was somewhere up north. Then I felt my efforts paid off and even wanted to ignore the mistake.
Emily is two years younger and she cared about my opinion. I advised her to be more like me and hide her signature Manchester accent. I stressed that throughout our college years, often by making fun of her vowel (元音) sounds. I told myself I was helping her achieve her dream of working as a reporter. Now, I see that it was actually about justifying my hiding part of myself.
Grandma Carolyn used to tell me, “Girl, don’t forget where you come from.” Now I truly understand that. Many things have faded from memory, but this sticks in my mind with uncomfortable clarity. Now that I am grown and have left the South, it’s important to me.
5．What made the author want to leave her hometown?
A．Appeal of convenience in cities.
B．Her dream of becoming a writer.
C．Outside prejudice against southerners.
D．Her desire for the northern accent.
6．How did the author feel about the mistake of Emily’s mother?
A．Upset. B．Pleased. C．Ashamed. D．Surprised.
7．Why on earth did the author try to change Emily’s accent?
A．To prove herself right. B．To help Emily be a reporter.
C．To make herself influential. D．To protect Emily’s self-dignity.
8．What message does the text want to convey?
A．Stay true to your roots. B．Never do things by halves.
C．Hold on to your dreams. D．Never judge a person by his accent.

Our brains have an “auto-correct” feature that we use when re-interpreting (重新解释) ambiguous sounds, according to new research. The study sheds light on how the brain uses information gathered after the discovering of an initial sound to aid speech comprehension. The findings point to new ways we use information and context to aid in speech comprehension.
“What a person thinks they hear does not always match the actual signals that reach the ear,” explains lead author Laura Gwilliams. “This is because the brain re-evaluates the interpretation of a speech sound at the moment each following speech sound is heard in order to update interpretations as necessary,” Gwilliams says.
It’s well known that the perception of a speech sound is determined by its surrounding context — in the form of words, sentences and other speech sounds. This plays out in everyday life — when we talk, the actual speech we produce is often ambiguous. For example, when a friend says she has a “dent (凹痕)” in her car, you may hear “tent”. Although this kind of ambiguity happens regularly, we, as listeners, are hardly aware of it. “This is because the brain automatically resolves the ambiguity for us — it picks an interpretation and that’s what we perceive to hear,” explains Gwilliams. “The way the brain does this is by using the surrounding context to narrow down the possibilities of what the speaker may mean.”
In the study, the researchers sought to understand how the brain uses this following information to adjust our perception of what we initially heard. To do this, they conducted a series of experiments in which the subjects listened to isolated syllables and similarly sounding words. Their results produced three primary findings: The brain’s primary auditory cortex (听觉皮层) is sensitive to how ambiguous a speech sound is at just 50 milliseconds after the sound’s appearance. The brain “replays” previous speech sounds while interpreting the following ones, suggesting re-evaluation as the rest of the word unfolds. The brain makes commitments to its “best guess” of how to interpret the signal after about half a second.
9．What is the study mainly about?
A．Why people make unclear sounds. B．How brains understand unclear words.
C．How brains tell apart useful information. D．Why some people process information faster.
10．What does the author want to show by giving the example in paragraph 3?
A．It is normal for people to make unclear sounds.
B．People are more likely to mishear their friends.
C．People can understand others even if they mishear a word.
D．People are likely to mistake a word for something familiar.
11．What do we know about the unclear words in the experiments?
A．They seemed to be useless. B．They were noticed instantly.
C．They led to misunderstanding. D．They stopped us thinking further.
12．What does the underlined part “the signal” in the last paragraph refer to?
A．The previous speech sound. B．The similarly sounding word.
C．The unclearly sounding word. D．The following speech sound.

Born in 1926, Princess Elizabeth Alexandra Mary was not originally chosen for the special position. However, that changed in 1936, when her father’s brother Edward Ⅷ gave up being the king and her father, George Ⅵ, took his place as the king. Suddenly, the 10-year-old was the heiress(女继承人).
Elizabeth’s royal(王室的)duties didn’t stop her interest in technology. During World War II, the princess wanted her father to allow her to do something for her country. Her father finally agreed to let her volunteer for the British Army, where she became a driver and trained in auto mechanics.
It was a pioneering move: Not only was she the first member of her family ever to serve in the military, but the sight of a woman taking apart engines and changing tires signalled a sea change in social and gender roles that would continue throughout the future queen’s lifetime.
In 1952, Elizabeth became queen of her country upon her father’s death. Her rule was modern from the very start. The new queen’s birth had roughly happened at the same time as the development of television, and during planning for her coronation(加冕礼)she broke with tradition and allowed the BBC to broadcast the event over live TV. It was the first coronation ever televised, and it literally created must-see TV.
Elizabeth came to power as the atomic age kicked into full swing, and she helped introduce the nation to those nuclear advances. In 1956, she opened the world’s first complete nuclear power station, Calder Hall. But the technology came with risk: The next year, a reactor at a nearby nuclear power plant, Windscale, caught fire, which was Great Britain’s worst nuclear disaster.
The queen also launched live broadcasts of royal addresses and permitted royal use of the Internet. Besides, she was one of the first people to ride through the Channel Tunnel, the undersea railway linking Britain to the rest of Europe.
13．After World War Ⅱ broke out, how did Elizabeth support her country?
A．By encouraging women to volunteer. B．By using her influence to stop the war.
C．By getting away from her royal duties. D．By joining the army to serve her country.
14．What does the author think of Elizabeth’s move during World War Ⅱ?
A．Normal. B．Significant. C．Unnecessary. D．Unreasonable.
15．What does the queen’s decision about her coronation indicate?
A．She didn’t really want to be queen.
B．She loved watching TV very much.
C．She liked adopting new technology.
D．She didn’t consider her coronation modern.
16．What can we learn about Elizabeth in paragraph 5?
A．She considered nuclear power important for her country.
B．She was satisfied with her country’s nuclear advances.
C．She didn’t show much interest in nuclear power.
D．She considered nuclear power dangerous.

National parks in Canada
Nahanni National Park
An adventure destination at the northern tip of the Earth and one of the first four Natural World Heritage Sites, the park covers an area of about 4,700 square kilometers. It is a vast, unexplored land, still preserving the original landscape of wilderness, mountains, canyons, and cliffs. There are countless roads in the world, but none of them reach there. You can only get into the park by small plane!
Best time: June to August.
Wood Buffalo National Park
As its name suggests, the park is a protected area for wood bison (美洲野牛). Thousands of wood bison live in the park, and many people come for them. It is the largest national park in Canada and the second largest in the world, with over 44,000 square kilometers of land bigger than Switzerland, where animals can play.
Best time: June to August.
Sambaa Deh Falls Territorial Park
Sambaa Deh Falls is a must visit! The rapids rolling between the rocks, the huge mist and the loud roar will take your breath away. Up the waterfall, there is also the beautiful Coral (珊瑚) Falls, and if Sambaa Deh Falls is a strong young man, Coral Falls is a beautiful young girl. Every year, a large number of coral fossils flow down the Coral Falls. Would you like to pick one up?
Best time: August and September.
Ivvavik National Park
Stretching from the British Mountains to the Arctic coast and ending with Alaska’s Brooks Range, Ivvavik National Park is a wonderful expanse of mountainous district. Plus! The park also contains many cultural sites of great significance to the aboriginal (土著的) people of the North. You can find answers to your aboriginal curiosity here.
Best time: March and April.
17．Which park can only be reached by air?
A．Ivvavik National Park. B．Wood Buffalo National Park.
C．Sambaa Deh Falls Territorial Park. D．Nahanni National Park.
18．Which is the best time to visit Sambaa Deh Falls Territorial Park?
A．September. B．June. C．March. D．January.
19．What can visitors do at Ivvavik National Park?
A．Collect coral fossils. B．Watch the wood bison.
C．Experience aboriginal culture. D．Enjoy the beauty by plane.

P. T. Usha is an Indian athlete. Her success story is an inspiration to women all across the world.
She was born in a poor family in Kerala in 1964. She was unable to enjoy her childhood because of her family’s poverty. Usha was always interested in sports and took part in a variety of contests from a young age. She easily defeated the school champion, who was three years older than her, in a school race.
She received Rs. 250 scholarships from the Government of Kerala in 1976. Later coach OM Nambiar gave her an award in a match event. In an interview, he stated that he felt she had the ability to be a great short-distance runner so he began coaching Usha. She won a variety of medals in the sports contests she competed in under his guidance. Usha won six medals at the interstate meet for juniors in 1978. She won 14 medals at the Kerala State College Meet. Usha had both the best and a little tough time during the 1984 Olympics.
At the games, she established new Commonwealth marks by running 56.81 seconds in the heats and 55.54 seconds in the semi-finals, and she advanced to the final. She finished fourth in the final with a time of 55.42 seconds. She was just 0.01 second slower than the bronze model.
Usha won six medals in the 1985 Jakarta Asian Championships, five gold and one bronze. She established a record for the most gold medals won at a single event in the championships’ history. She won four gold medals in the Asian Games in 1986. She became the first woman president of Indian Olympic Association.
P. T. Usha’s sporting career and moments of glory are imprinted in the minds of many people. P. T. Usha is still an inspiration to female athletes all over the world.
20．What does the paragraph 2 mainly talk about?
A．P. T. Usha’s early life. B．P. T. Usha’s success.
C．P. T. Usha’s family. D．P. T. Usha’s education.
21．Why did OM Nambiar decide to train P. T. Usha?
A．He was requested by her. B．He believed her athletic talent.
C．He wanted to achieve his dream. D．He wanted to help her earn money.
22．What kind of person is P. T. Usha?
A．A person who is very interested in swimming. B．A person who sets an example to males.
C．A person bringing hopes to the world. D．A person with amazing achievements.
23．How is the text developed?
A．By space. B．By time order. C．By comparison. D．By listing reasons.

Most of us take the task of buying a cup of coffee for granted, as it seems simple enough. However, we have no idea just how stressful tasks like this can be for people who suffer from disabilities. That’s why it’s so heart-warming to see a story like this in which a barista (咖啡师) does something small to make life a little easier for someone who is deaf.
Ibby Piracha lost his hearing when he was only two years old, and he now goes to his local cafe in Leesburg, Virginia to order a cup of coffee at least three times a week. Though all the baristas who work there have his order memorized, Ibby always write his order on his phone and shows it to the barista.
One day, however, one of the baristas did something that changed everything! After Ibby ordered his coffee, he was amazed when barista Krystal pane handed him a note in response. “I’ve been learning sign language just so you can have the same experience as everyone else,” the note read. Krystal then asked Ibby in sign language what he would like to order.
Ibby was touched that she would learn sign language just to help him feel welcome. “I was just so moved that she actually wanted to learn sign language. It is really a totally different language and it was something that she wanted to do because of me. Because I was a deaf customer. I was very, very impressed,” Ibby said.
Krystal had spent hours watching teaching videos so that she could learn enough sign language to give Ibby the best customer service that she could! “My job is to make sure people have the experience they expect and that’s what I gave him,” Krystal says.
Ibby posted a photo of Krystal’s note online, and it quickly went viral, getting hundreds of likes and comments that praised Krystal for her kind action.
24．What can we learn about Ibby Piracha from paragraph 2?
A．He was born deaf. B．He lives a hard life.
C．He loves to order take-out food. D．He visits the cafe regularly.
25．Why did Krystal learn sign language?
A．To serve Ibby better. B．To attract more customers.
C．To give Ibby a big surprise. D．To make herself more popular.
26．Which of the following can best describe Krystal?
A．Kind and considerate. B．Honest and responsible.
C．Sociable and humorous. D．Ambitious and sensitive.
27．What message does the author want to convey in the text?
A．Two heads are better than one. B．A small act makes a difference.
C．One good turn deserves another. D．Actions speak louder than words.

Even though people have been disabled playing sports like rugby and football, extreme sports take the whole ordeal (磨难) to the next level. Sports like downhill cycling are very dangerous because one would be going downhill, over rocky or dirt zones, through forests, even at potentially deadly speeds. A slip-up could be your downfall.
Nobody who gets into extreme sports goes with the desire to do harm to themselves. With that, athletes train for years and years before they attempt anything extreme. To most people, extreme sports are extreme simply because they take more skill than what an average person has. An athlete with skill and training makes an extreme thing become a daily routine, which does not wipe out the danger, but greatly reduces it.
Even when there is a lot of skill involved, things might not go the athlete’s way, not at all. Luck and circumstances have a lot to do with how things develop, whether above 8, 000 meters or in a wood, going downhill. In some places, crossing the street is an extreme sport, considering how wild traffic can get.
Some view parkour, the sports of running, jumping and climbing under, around and through buildings, as an extreme sport, while it is more of a life philosophy, where the athlete does not have to do anything remotely dangerous. Free soloing, which means climbing a rock or ice face without safety gear, is absolutely deadly, where one slip means almost certain death, depending on the height, of course. Skateboarding is relatively safe, but if you constantly find ridiculous places to practice on, like the fence of a bridge, then things can get very complicated. The extreme part depends on the athlete.
To summarize, yes, extreme sports are dangerous, but the danger depends on the athlete, their choice of sport, direction in which they take it, as well as the circumstances. Some things are out of our control, while others we can influence through exercise and healthier risk choices.
28．What does Paragraph 2 mainly talk about regarding extreme sports?
A．Extreme sports differ from one another.
B．Skill matters a lot in maintaining safety.
C．Athletes’ luck is a key factor that influences safety.
D．Extreme sports are more dangerous than regular sports.
29．Why are several extreme sports listed in Paragraph 4?
A．To explain danger depends on the athlete.
B．To show free soloing is the most dangerous.
C．To compare which one involves the most skill.
D．To demonstrate how to choose an extreme sport.
30．What is the author’s attitude towards the danger of extreme sports?
A．Objective. B．Doubtful.
C．Intolerant. D．Unconcerned.
31．Which of the following is the best title of the text?
A．Do Extreme Sports Test Your Courage?
B．Why Should Extreme Sports Be Banned?
C．Are Extreme Sports Really That Dangerous?
D．Why Do We Take to Extreme Sports So Much?

A team of researchers from several institutions in the UK and one in Estonia has created a type of buoy(浮标)that has proven to be effective at frightening seabirds, thus preventing them from getting caught in gillnets - a type of vertical fishing net that is made of a material that makes it nearly invisible underwater.
Every year, hundreds of thousands of seabirds die when they get caught in gillnets. Some estimates suggest that up to a half-million birds are caught in them each year. Over the years, researchers have created devices to prevent the birds from trying to catch fish near or in gillnets, but those didn’t work well.
To find a way that would work for all seabirds, the researchers first studied seabirds in a general sense, looking to find things that they would avoid. They noted that seabirds avoided eye contact with other creatures. Then the researchers came up with a simple idea - they put a small pole to a regular buoy and then attached a pair of googly eyes(金鱼眼) to the top of it. They made the eyes big enough so that even birds with poor eyesight, such as geese, would see them. Adding to the effectiveness of the device, waves made the eyes move back and forth. And the wind made the buoy spin very slowly, making sure that birds from every direction would get a good look at the eyes.
To test their idea, the researchers selected several sites near gillnets and counted how many birds approached and how many attempted to catch fish near the nets. They then set up their googly-eyed buoys and once again counted birds. Over the course of 62 days, they found the number of birds that tried to catch fish near the gillnets dropped by approximately 25% for a distance of up to 50 meters. They also found that the birds were less likely to fish near where the buoys had been for up to three weeks after they had been removed.
32．What is the function of Paragraph 2?
A．Introducing a new topic to discuss.
B．Providing background information.
C．Summarizing the previous paragraph.
D．Pointing out the main idea of the text.
33．Why did the researchers make the googly eyes big?
A．To clearly observe seabirds’ eye contact.
B．To ensure all the seabirds can see them.
C．To effectively identify the right direction.
D．To allow them to survive the strong wind.
34．What does the researchers’ test result mainly suggest?
A．The new device still needs improving.
B．Gillnets are a death valley for seabirds.
C．The googly-eyed buoy proves effective.
D．Seabirds hardly catch fish near the nets.
35．What is the text mainly about?
A．A device keeping seabirds safe from gillnets.
B．A way to help seabirds catch fish effectively.
C．A googly-eyed buoy guiding seabirds to hunt.
D．A group of researchers interested in seabirds.

Orion Jean is a kid on a mission. His goal is to spread kindness and inspire others to do the same.
It all started last year when Orion’s elementary school teacher suggested that the then 9-year-old enter the National Kindness Speech Contest. “I decided that I was just going to give it a shot and see how it would go,” Orion tells us. He gave a speech about how kindness could “change a nation,” and won the competition, receiving a $500 cash prize.
He quickly realized he wasn’t going to use all of that money. “I’m a kid,” he says, “I have everything that I could ever want. But there are people who don’t.”
Orion, who says his parents always taught him that “kindness is a virtue that we should all try to possess,” came up with the idea of the Race to Kindness campaign - a series of events to help others. Orion describes the campaign as “just an idea where I would spread kindness and people would be able to join the race by spreading kindness in their own communities.” He decided to start by helping children with health problems in the hospital, saying, “What better way to amuse a kid than a toy?” So, he used his winnings to buy as many toys as possible and launched a toy fair to gather more. He collected over 600 toys, which were donated to the Children’s Health Hospital in Dallas in 2021.
But Orion was just getting started. After the toy fair, he launched an ambitious “Race to 100, 000 meals” to help food-insecure people in his community. Race to Kindness partnered with a local nonprofit organization to help get 100, 000 meals donated and to feed people who might not have had a meal for Thanksgiving. The result? “We were able to not only reach but also surpass our goal of 100, 000 meals,” he says.
In May 2022, the kindness activist decided to launch “Race to 500, 000 Books” to help families who couldn’t afford books or live in “book deserts”. When asked why he thinks of books, “I’m a huge book fan,” Orion shares, “and studies show that children who have books in their homes do better academically.”
36．What does the underlined words “give it a shot” mean in Paragraph 2?
A．Have a try. B．Give a hand.
C．Get a big head. D．Have second thoughts.
37．What helps Orion bring about the idea of the Race to Kindness campaign?
A．His great passion for racing.
B．His unused toys all over the place.
C．Family education from his childhood.
D．Heartbreaking scenes in the hospital.
38．Which of the following can best describe the young boy Orion?
A．Creative and childish. B．Kind and straightforward.
C．Easy-going and sympathetic. D．Generous and enterprising.
39．What is most likely to be discussed in the following paragraph of the passage?
A．How the studies affect academic performance.
B．The final outcome of Orion’s toy-gathering event.
C．Orion’s future career planning after his graduation.
D．The achievement of the Race to 500, 000 Books campaign.

How to watch Cubs and White Sox exhibition games?
Want to watch the Chicago Cubs and White Sox (two baseball teams) “summer camp” exhibitions? Here’s what you need to know.  
When do the Cubs and White Sox play?
The teams are scheduled to play practice games against each other at 7:05 p. m. Sunday at Wrigley Field and at 7:10 p. m. Monday at Guaranteed Rate Field.
On Wednesday night, the Cubs host the Minnesota Twins at 6:05 and the Sox welcome the Milwaukee Brewers at 7:10 as a prelude(前奏) to season openers set for next Friday.
What channels will the Cubs and White Sox be on?
If you live in the Cubs TV market, you’ll find their games on Marquee Sports Network, its app and website, assuming you subscribe to a cable, satellite or streaming service that has a carriage arrangement (转播权)with the new channel.
Sox games are on NBC Sports Chicago, its app and website if you have a service that has a carriage arrangement. Both channels will have both Cubs-Sox exhibitions. Although they will be blacked out inside the Chicago TV market and the Indiana TV market, ESPN also will carry Sunday’s Cubs-Sox rehearsal and MLB Network will have Wednesday’s Twins-Cubs battle.
Where will announcers(播音员)call the games from?
ESPN’s Jon Sciambi, Chipper Jones and Rick Sutcliffe (who’s an occasional Marquee contributor) will work Sunday’s game remotely from their homes the way the network has handled its coverage of South Korean ball games.
NBC Sports Chicago’s Jason Benetti and Steve Stone will announce all of the Sox games, including Sunday’s at Wrigley, from their booth setup at Guaranteed Rate Field, as they will all season regardless of where the games are played. Ditto for Marquee’s Len Kasper and Jim Deshaies working at Wrigley Field regardless of where the Cubs are.
The home team’s TV crew will be responsible for producing a videotape everyone can share. So games from Wrigley will be produced by Marquee and games from Guaranteed Rate Field will be produced by NBC Sports Chicago.
40．How many games will the Cubs have before season openers?
A．One. B．Two. C．Three. D．Four.
41．Where can the audience watch Cubs-Sox exhibitions?
A．On MLB Network.
B．In the Indiana TV market.
C．In the Chicago TV market.
D．On Marquee Sports Network.
42．What do we know about the announcers?
A．They are all good baseball players.
B．They only announce practice games.
C．They don’t have to be at the game site.
D．They will help produce videotapes for players.

Night light from street lamps and phones change the body clock, therefore weakening the body’s ability to control blood sugar levels and raising the risk of diabetes (糖尿病) by more than a quarter, new research has found.
The research was based on almost 100,000 men and women in China who were exposed to artificial light while it was dark outside. Those exposed the most were 28 per cent more likely to develop this condition because of the interference (干预) the light had on the body’s production of melatonin (褪黑激素) which affects our sleep patterns.
Evidence is growing that 24/7 lifestyles are seriously damaging our health by interfering with the production of melatonin. Long-time exposure to residential outdoor artificial light was linked to a rise in blood sugar levels. It was also associated with poorer function of the cells which control blood sugar.
Lead author Dr. Yu Xu, of Ruijin Hospital, Shanghai, said, “Despite over 80 per cent of the world’s population being exposed to light pollution at night, this problem has gained limited attention from scientists until recent years.”
The study estimated more than nine million cases of diabetes in Chinese adults can be attributed to it. A total of 98,658 participants underwent interviews to provide medical, household income, education, way of life, and family history information. Body weight and height were measured to calculate BMI, and blood samples were taken to obtain levels of both fasting and after-meal glucose (葡萄糖).
Participants were assigned an average artificial outdoor light exposure level for the location using satellite images. They were divided into five groups based on highest to lowest exposure. On average, for every 42 people living in regions with the most light pollution, there was one more case of diabetes.
Dr. Xu said, “Exposure to artificial light at night is a common environmental risk factor in modern societies.” More than 99 per cent of people in the US and Europe live under light-polluted skies. Earth’s 24-hour day-night cycle has resulted in most organisms, including humans, having an inbuilt circadian (昼夜的) timing system, but light pollution has been found to change the circadian rhythm of insects, birds and other animals, resulting in early death and loss of biodiversity.
43．How can artificial light affect people’s health?
A．It can harm people’s eyesight.
B．It can affect people’s sleep patterns.
C．It can weaken the function of brain cells.
D．It can increase the production of melatonin.
44．What information about the participants was collected?
A．Work. B．Sleep. C．Lifestyle. D．Marriage.
45．What helped with the study?
A．Previous findings. B．High technology.
C．International assistance. D．Artificial chemicals.
46．What can we infer from the last paragraph?
A．Artificial light is harming the world.
B．People are fighting against pollution.
C．The waste of electricity is the primary issue.
D．Most light pollution is from the US and Europe.

The invasive (入侵的) species, also called introduced species or foreign species, is any nonnative species that significantly changes or damages the ecosystem it invades. Such species may arrive in new areas through natural migration, but they are often introduced by the activi-ties of other species. Human activities, such as those involved in global commerce and the pet trade, are considered to be the most common ways in which invasive plants, animals, microbes, and other organisms are transported to new habitats.
Most introduced species do not survive extended periods in new habitats, because they do not possess the necessary adaptations to adjust to the challenges posed by their new surroundings. Some introduced species may become invasive when they possess a built-in competitive advantage over native species in invaded areas. They change native food chains and in some cases even get to the top of the food chains, which means the ecosystem lacks natural enemy capable of keeping them in check. Under these circumstances, new arrivals can get the chance to reproduce in large numbers.
The ecological damage that tends to follow such invasions often reduces the ecosystem’s biodiversity and causes economic harm to people who depend on the ecosystem’s biological re-sources. Invasive species may be so good at catching preys that victim populations decline over time, and many victim species die out in the affected ecosystem. Other invasive species, in contrast, may prevent native species from obtaining food, living space, or other resources. Over time, invasive species can effectively replace native ones, often forcing the localized extinction of many native species. Invasive plants and animals may also serve as disease carri-ers that spread parasites (寄生虫) and viruses that may further do harm to the invaded area.
47．How do introduced species mainly travel to a new place?
A．Through natural reproduction. B．Through natural migration.
C．Through human activities. D．Though social interactions.
48．What happens to most introduced species in new habitats?
A．They become extinct worldwide. B．They survive from any challenges.
C．They dominate the new world. D．They die off in a short period.
49．What does the underlined word “preys” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A．Creatures that are hunted and eaten.
B．Species that die out in a new place.
C．Species at the top of food chains.
D．Creatures at the bottom of food chains.
50．Which can be a suitable title for the text?
A．Invasive Species Around the World
B．Invasive Species and Their Impact
C．The Ways Invasive Species Spread
D．The Classification of Introduced Species

A newly released TV drama has won viewers’ hearts, with many saying it’s quite “soul-healing” in this time full of anxiety and competition. It has not only improved the local tourism, but also presented the charm of some intangible cultural heritage(非物质文化遗产)items in Dali. Let’s take a look at a few.
Jianchuan wood carving
Jianchuan wood carving has a history of more than 1,000 years. It was listed as a national intangible cultural heritage in 2011. The carvings usually include pictures like flowers, plants and so on, which are widely used in their architecture as well as arts and crafts for decoration. The TV show also points that the traditional craft of wood carving faces challenges. The show discusses how machines are taking place of handwork, because they are more effective and less costly.
Tie-dyeing
Tie-dyeing is a traditional staining(着色)technique among the folks. The tie-dyeing technique of the Bai ethnic(民族的)group had grown in popularity as early as in the Tang dynasty, and it was listed as a national intangible cultural heritage in 2006. Now the tie-dyeing has mixed modern artistic elements, producing more products such as clothing, bags and tissue boxes.
Three-course tea
Three-course tea is a tea serving tradition of the Bai ethnic group. It was listed as a national intangible cultural heritage in 2014. It has been an important tradition during special events such as weddings and festivals. What’s more, people usually drink this kind of tea during special occasions.
51．What can we learn about Jianchuan wood carving?
A．It costs little. B．It is out of date.
C．It faces many difficulties. D．The machine has taken place of it.
52．When was tie-dyeing listed as a national intangible cultural heritage?
A．In 2006. B．In 2008. C．In 2011. D．In 2014.
53．What does the author think of the three-course tea?
A．It’s a common way for relaxation. B．It’s popular among all the people.
C．It’s served in Bai people’s daily life. D．It’s a tradition during special events.

Teenagers whose non-cognitive (非认知的) skills are poorly developed are more likely to suffer from health problems later in life, according to a new research by a group of experts from the University of Manchester.
Rose Atkins of that university, along with her colleagues set out to investigate noncognitive skills as they are one of the least explored determining factors of health and well-being, despite the fact that evidence surrounding their importance is growing quickly.
These skills are conscientiousness (尽责性), which tells how hardworking, careful and stubborn an adolescent is, and neuroticism (神经质), which shows how worried, unhappy and fearful an adolescent is,
The researchers used data on a group of individuals who were followed throughout their life and carried out statistical analysis to study the relationship between adolescent non-cognitive skills and later -life health. The non- cognitive skills were reported by teachers, based on the behavior of students at age 16.
The study found that individuals whose adolescent conscientiousness is higher deal with stress in adulthood better, and are at a lower risk of some diseases. And individuals whose adolescent neuroticism is higher have a poorer, health related quality of life in adulthood and are at a greater risk of some diseases.
The researchers conclude that policies to improve adolescent conscientiousness and reduce adolescent neuroticism would offer the most long-term health benefits to those with the poo-rest health, “There is a growing body of evidence that suggests school-based interventions to improve non-cognitive skills can have lasting positive effects on important life outcomes,” said Rose. “Extra-curricular activities and work experience have also been shown to improve these skills. Having a greater focus on the improvement of non- cognitive skills at both primary and secondary school levels would be a positive policy decision, However, these skills are also determined by factors like family income, parental education, and parental investment. There-tore, more complex public policy is needed to reduce social inequality.”
54．What can be inferred about non-cognitive skills?
A．They can fall into three categories.
B．They are mainly developed in childhood.
C．Their importance has been totally ignored.
D．Their impact on health doesn’t get enough attention.
55．How did the researchers do their research?
A．They carried out a large survey.
B．They collected data from individuals.
C．They followed 16-year-old individuals.
D．They compared data from other research.
56．What do the researchers think their findings suggest?
A．Improving teens’ non- cognitive skills isn’t that challenging.
B．Schools should reduce the time for extra-curricular activities.
C．Measures should be taken to improve teens’ non-cognitive skills.
D．Social inequality is the major cause of poor non-cognitive skills.
57．What is the main idea of the text?
A．Teens’ health in later life can be predicted.
B．Teachers can improve students’ non-cognitive skills,
C．The importance of non-cognitive skills is being recognized.
D．Non-cognitive skills in adolescents affect their health in later life.

Blue light is short in wavelength and high in energy. Aside from the sun, it can also come from artificial sources like electronic devices and indoor lighting. “Blue light is what makes the sky blue on a sunny day and what gives your smartphone screen its bright and clear background,” says Susan Massick, an expert at The Ohio State University Wexner Medical Center.
Given that overexposure to UV light causes serious damage like skin cancer, it’s important to explore how blue light can affect the skin as well.
Blue light goes through the skin and deeper into the skin than UV rays, but prolonged or repeated exposure to either can lead to skin damage and accelerated skin aging, says Massick.
If you’re concerned about the potential damage to your skin from blue light caused by electronic devices, Massick suggests decreasing your screen time. This may be challenging because remote work is increasing, but you can also increase the distance between you and your screen, lower the brightness or turn on Night Mode, she adds.
It might be best to minimize screen time at night since the use of blue light emitting from electronic devices can also disrupt the body’s circadian rhythm (昼夜节律) — the light fools the brain that it’s daytime, making it difficult to fall and remain asleep. Cutting on screen use may result in better quality sleep than using electronic devices at bedtime with Night Mode.
The impact of artificial blue light exposure on sleep is important to consider because people who sleep seven to nine hours a night have significantly lower skin aging scores, according to a Clinical and Experimental Dermatology study.
Regardless of screen use, Massick recommends you use sunscreen and skin care products to help combat the damage of visible light and ultraviolet light to the skin as part of your daily routine.
58．Why does the author use the quote of Susan Massick in Paragraph 1?
A．To give an example. B．To clarify a concept.
C．To present a finding. D．To support an argument.
59．What is the main focus of the text regarding blue light and its impact on the skin?
A．The sources of blue light harmful to the skin.
B．The potential damage of blue light on the skin.
C．The comparison between blue light and UV rays.
D．The role of blue light in regulating sleep patterns.
60．Why is minimizing screen time at night recommended?
A．It helps improve the quality of sleep.
B．It increases the body’s circadian rhythm.
C．Blue light exposure at night prevents skin aging.
D．Night Mode on electronic devices reduces blue light emission.
61．What can we infer from Paragraph 6?
A．Longer exposure to blue light can lead to better quality sleep.
B．Sleep plays an essential role in the maintenance of healthy skin.
C．Artificial blue light exposure has a much greater impact than natural blue light.
D．Exposure to artificial blue light has less impact on people with insufficient sleep.

The best literary festivals 2023 across the UK to book now
Kite Festival
9-11 June
New last year, this literary festival held in the grounds of spectacular stately home Kirtlington Park in Oxfordshire is the first of its kind, combining music and breakthrough ideas to create a unique programme featuring live performances and interactive discussions. Over the Kite Festival weekend, you’ll find award-winning authors sharing their insights on crafting stories and electronic pop legends headlining on the Saturday night.
Primadonna
28-30 July
Held at the Museum of East Anglian Life in Suffolk, Primadonna prides itself on creating a space for works by women and those whose voices might not otherwise be heard. There are insightful workshops covering everything, including sessions on how to get your foot in the door of the publishing world. The family-friendly event also has plenty to keep kids occupied, from craft activities to entertaining talks from big-name writers.
Queen’s Park Book Festival
2-3 September
Queen’s Park Book Festival is the only one in the capital to be held in a public park, making it a low-key affair that feels more like a garden party than a full-blown festival. Alongside writers’ discussions on their latest works, you’ll find performance poetry events hosted by hip-hop verse maestro Poetcurious and nightly parties once the sun sets.
Henley Literary Festival
30 September-8 October
Henley is home to an impressive literary festival, which takes places over a week in October at various venues throughout the town, including the grand riverside private members’ club Phyllis Court and the historic town hall. Alongside main events featuring famous writers, there’s also a hugely popular children’s festival, where little bookworms get the chance to come face-to-face with their favourite authors.
62．Which festival promotes less-read writers?
A．Kite Festival. B．Primadonna.
C．Queen’s Park Book Festival. D．Henley Literary Festival.
63．Where can visitors enjoy performances?
A．Kite Festival & Primadonna.
B．Primadonna & Henley Literary Festival.
C．Kite Festival & Queen’s Park Book Festival.
D．Queen’s Park Book Festival & Henley Literary Festival.
64．What is the main purpose of the passage?
A．To introduce a special book festival.
B．To promote local activities for families.
C．To inform readers of some literary events.
D．To provide introductions about famous authors.

What he believes was Philadelphia’s first 5K Earth Day Trash Walk came to Terrill Haigler in a moment of morning inspiration.
One day, Haigler, better known as “Ya Fav Trashman” on social media, thought about how he could combine trash pickup, helping the homeless, and a bit of fitness. Coinciding with Earth Day weekend, the event hopefully would bring volunteers from across the city to walk through Kensington, a Philly neighborhood suffering from drug and homelessness issues, and clean up while bathed in the sun.
The idea turned into reality on Saturday morning, when 200 volunteers picked up 8 tons of trash, collected 503 bags of litter, and distributed 200 hot meals to those experiencing homelessness in Kensington, all while laughing and smiling along the 3.2-mile route.
Volunteers, wearing running sneakers and carrying trash pickers and bags, walked, jogged, and skipped through the streets while cleaning up. As part of the event, the Pennsylvania Horticultural Society had pledged (承诺) to plant a tree in a black or brown community over the next five years for every bag of trash collected. Haigler was “ecstatic (狂喜的)” to be able to tell the society that more than 500 trees would be planted.
Saturday’s walk is the latest in Haigler’s constant push to raise awareness of what sanitation workers (环卫工人) do to try to keep Philly streets clean and to help his city in creative ways.
Haigler first came to fame during the pandemic, when garbage began to pile up as sanitation workers called out sick due to COVID-19. On his account, he posted videos and host live sessions to teach residents about his job and all its difficulties.
Soon, Haigler turned from spreading awareness to community activism, holding a food drive for frontline workers during the pandemic and raising $32,000 to purchase protective equipment for his team. In 2021, Haigler stepped down from his job and now runs a nonprofit to bridge the gap between the community and the city’s sanitation team.
65．What inspired Terrill Haigler to organize the Philadelphia 5K Earth Day Trash Walk?
A．A wish to celebrate the Earth Day.
B．A plan to provide hot meals to the homeless.
C．A desire to encourage more people to go jogging.
D．A need to clean the city while helping the homeless.
66．How did Pennsylvania Horticultural Society involve in the event?
A．They distribute hot meals to the homeless.
B．They provided volunteers with running sneakers.
C．They promised to help green the local communities.
D．They offered trash pickers and bags to the volunteers.
67．What is the main purpose of the nonprofit by Terrill Haigler?
A．To teach people about environmental issues.
B．To promote physical exercise in the community.
C．To tackle the issues of drug addiction and homelessness.
D．To promote understanding between citizens and sanitation workers.
68．Which of the following words can best describe Terrill Haigler?
A．A team player. B．A Mr. Initiative. C．An early bird. D．A green hand.

One swallow (燕子) may not make a summer but seeing or hearing birds does improve mental wellbeing, researchers have found.
The study, led by academics from King’s College London, also found that everyday encounters with birds boosted the mood of people with depression, as well as the wider population.
The researchers said the findings suggested that visits to places with a wealth of birdlife, such as parks and canals, could be prescribed by doctors to treat mental health conditions. They added that their findings also highlighted the need to better protect the environment and improve biodiversity in urban, suburban and rural areas in order to preserve bird habitats.
The study, published in the journal Scientific Reports, tracked 1,292 participants’ everyday encounters with birds last year via a smartphone app called Urban Mind.
Over the course of two weeks, the participants, from the UK, Europe, the US, China and Australia, were required at random intervals to record how they were feeling, including whether they were happy or stressed, whether they could see trees, and whether they could see or hear birds.
The researchers found that participants’ average mental wellbeing scores increased when they saw or heard birds, including among those who disclosed they had been diagnosed with depression.
This beneficial effect also lasted beyond the moment of encountering birds, with higher levels of mental wellbeing noted by participants who did not see or hear birds the next time they recorded their mood.
However, this positive effect did not persist if the participants did not encounter birds during the subsequent assessment of their mood, which the researchers said indicated “a possible causal link effect of birdlife on mental wellbeing”.
Andrea Mechelli, professor of early intervention in mental health at King’s College London, said, “We need to create and support environments, particularly urban environments, where bird life is a constant feature. To have a healthy population of birds, you also need plants, you also need trees. We need to nurture the whole ecosystem within our cities.”
He added that the positive effect of bird encounters on people with depression was significant because many “interventions that help so-called ‘healthy people’ don’t work for individuals with mental health issues”.
Mechelli said, “We know exercise makes everyone feel better. But it’s incredibly challenging to motivate someone with depression to exercise. Whereas contact with bird life is something that, perhaps, is feasible.”
69．Which of the following will the researchers probably agree with?
A．People will feel better if they go to parks every day.
B．Greater value should be attached to conserving birds and their habitats.
C．A large population of people with depression encounter birds every day.
D．Doctors treating mental illnesses should visit places with a wealth of birds.
70．Why does the author mention the participants in paragraph 5?
A．To clarify a doubt about the research process.
B．To analyze the data of the research participants.
C．To give a further explanation of the research method.
D．To provide more supporting evidence for the research results.
71．What does the underlined word “feasible” mean in the last paragraph?
A．Practical. B．Difficult. C．Advisable. D．Reasonable.
72．Which of the following can be the best title for the text?
A．Regular Visits to Parks Boost Our Mental Wellbeing
B．Bird and Birdsong Encounters Improve Mental Health
C．Human Activities Have a Great Impact on Bird Species
D．Bird Habitat Protection Changes People and the Planet

SOURCE Global is one of the many companies around the world harvesting water from the air. Named Hydropanels, its devices are powered by built-in solar panels (太阳能电池板).
Atmospheric water generators (AWGs), like SOURCE’s, are machines that produce water from the surrounding air. These devices have been around for about ten years and traditionally they’re based on condensation — cooling water vapor (蒸汽) to collect water drops. This process, however, can use a lot of electricity and only work in places with a high amount of water contained in the air. These are what caused SOURCE to develop a more flexible and practical solution.
Its solar panels power a fan that draws in the air. Inside the device, the air travels through a special material that traps the water vapor to produce water. As it is collected, chemical elements, magnesium and calcium, are added to the water to improve its taste and provide possible health benefits.
In Dubai, where the company’s largest water farm is located, it produces 1.5 million liters of water every year. SOURCE has fixed its Hydropanels around the world at hospitals, schools and worksites that have difficulties accessing water. SOURCE plans to create a plastic-free bottled water brand (品牌) and sell it to hotels and holiday centers at about the same price as other bottled water brands. Its next partnership will be in Saudi Arabia’s Red Sea coast, where a development company is aiming to build 18 hotels that will serve SOURCE’s water.
Over 2 billion people live in countries experiencing high water stress and while many companies working on AWGs hope their devices will help solve this problem, that would be unlikely, according to Keith Hays with Bluefield Research, a company that addresses water challenges. High upfront costs mean it takes around 10 years for AWGs to be cost-competitive, he says and they generally produce a small part of the water that a well or seawater desalination (脱盐) system can supply. Vahid Fotuhi with SOURCE understands the challenges, but he says that Hydropanels help reduce the use of plastics and the environmental footprint, and their selling points remain strong.
73．What does the underlined word “These” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A．The disadvantages of using electricity. B．The expectations of future growth.
C．The features of condensation. D．The limitations of AWGs.
74．What is paragraph 3 mainly about?
A．The working process of Hydropanels.
B．The need for water collected from the air.
C．The importance of applying renewable energy.
D．The reason for adding chemical elements to water.
75．What is one of SOURCE’s plans?
A．To create a brand to sell plastic-free bottled water.
B．To build 18 hotels equipped with Hydropanels.
C．To produce 1.5 million liters of water every year.
D．To fix its Hydropanels at hospitals and schools.
76．What does Vahid Fotuhi think of Hydropanels?
A．They are highly competitive in price.
B．They produce fresher water than wells.
C．They offer clear environmental benefits.
D．They play a key role in reducing water stress.




参考答案：
1．C 2．B 3．A 4．A

【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍的是面包曾是人们餐桌上的主要食物。而现在由于各种原因，面包的消耗下降了很多，但是仍有很多人为挽救面包的良好声誉在付诸努力。
1．细节理解题。根据第三段““Breaking bread” with someone became a common symbol of friendship. The French even used to bring baguettes(法棍面包)home as a symbol of love to the family.(与某人“掰面包”成了友谊的常见象征。法国人甚至把法棍带回家，作为对家人爱的象征。)”可知，面包曾象征着人们之间的友谊和对家庭的爱等亲密关系。故选C。
2．细节理解题。根据倒数第二段“Extra yeast(酵母)and additives are added to the dough, to extend its shelf life.(额外的酵母和添加剂被添加到面团中，以延长其保质期。）”可知，这样做是为了延长其保质期。故选B。
3．推理判断题。第一段“But this basic and important food, which has dominated tables for thousands of years,is in a dangerous decline.(但是，这种几千年来一直占据餐桌主导地位的基本而重要的食物正在危险地衰落。）”和第二段“According to a study, 32 percent of the purchased bread is being dumped in the UK.(根据一项研究，32%的购买面包被倾倒在英国。）”主要介绍了面包在人们生活中的地位下降了；第三段“Traditionally, bread has been a cornerstone of many cultures around the world.(传统上，面包是世界各地许多文化的基石。）”主要介绍了面包曾是很多文化的重要组成，具有很多象征意义；第四段“Some guess that the fast pace of modern life is changing people’s eating habits.(有人猜测，现代生活的快速节奏正在改变人们的饮食习惯。）”和第五段The shift against bread is also associated with its mass production.(对面包的抵制也与其大规模生产有关。）”主要分折了现在面包的消耗量下降的原因；第六段“But dedicated bakers around the world have rushed forward to rescue bread’s good reputation.(但是，全世界敬业的面包师都争先恐后地挽救了面包的良好声誉。）”介绍了一些面包筹为挽救面包的地位向做出的努力。可知，这篇文章的结构是①②→③→④⑤→⑥。故选A。
4．主旨大意题。根据第二段“According to a study, 32 percent of the purchased bread is being dumped in the UK. And in France-a country whose breads are internationally well-known-young people are cutting 30 percent less than a decade ago.(根据一项研究，32%的购买的面包在英国被丢弃。而在以面包闻名国际的法国，年轻人的消费比十年前减少了30%。)”及全文可知，文章主要介绍的是面包曾是人们餐桌上的主要食物。而现在由于各种原因，面包的消耗下降了很多，但是仍有很多人未来挽救了面包的良好声誉在付诸努力。可知作者想要传达的主要思想是面包的消耗越来越少。故选A。
5．C 6．B 7．A 8．A

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章讲述作者因为别人的偏见以及追求更好的生活改变自己的口音，但后来才意识到这样做抹杀了自己身份的一部分，也明白了要坚守本根。
5．细节理解题。根据第二段的“While growing up, I began to realize outside of our region, southerners were often dismissed as uncultured and ignorant. I was ready to leave behind my tiny town in West Tennessee, starting a new life and jumping at big chances in some far-off cities.(在成长过程中，我开始意识到，在我们的地区之外，南方人经常被认为是没有文化和无知的。我准备离开我在西田纳西州的小镇，开始新的生活，并在一些遥远的城市抓住大好机会)”可知，作者决定离开南部的家乡是因为其他人认为南方人没文化、无知，即外部对南方人的偏见。故选C。
6．推理判断题。根据第三段的“Early in our friendship, her mother asked where I was from, assuming it was somewhere up north. Then I felt my efforts paid off and even wanted to ignore the mistake.(在我们的友谊之初，她妈妈问我来自哪里，以为是北方的某个地方。然后我觉得我的努力得到了回报，甚至想忽略这个错误)”推知，当被Emily的妈妈误会来自北方时，作者是非常开心的。故选B。
7．推理判断题。根据第二段的“I feared it would disqualify me from being a noted magazine writer. I would have to talk less “country”. So I killed a piece of myself. (我担心这会使我失去成为著名杂志作家的资格。我就得少说些“乡村”了。所以我抹杀了自己身份的一部分)”，第三段的“She was determined to work for the student newspaper, which was where I spent most of my waking hours(她决心为校报工作，而我醒着的大部分时间都在那里度过的)”以及倒数第二段的“I advised her to be more like me and hide her signature Manchester accent. I stressed that throughout our college years, often by making fun of her vowel (元音) sounds. I told myself I was helping her achieve her dream of working as a reporter. (我建议她更像我，隐藏她标志性的曼彻斯特口音。在我们的大学生活中，我经常通过取笑她的元音来强调这一点。我告诉自己，我是在帮她实现当记者的梦想)”可知，作者通过改变自己的口音获得了在校报工作的机会。由此推知，作者努力改变Emily的口音是为了证明自己是对的，即改变南方口音就有可能获得好工作。故选A。
8．推理判断题。通读全文，并结合第二段的“I’m ashamed of it, but I’m more ashamed that I tried to kill that part of someone else-change Emily’s accent.(我很惭愧，但我更惭愧的是我试图抹杀别人的那部分——改变艾米丽的口音)”和最后一段“Grandma Carolyn used to tell me, “Girl, don’t forget where you come from.” Now I truly understand that. Many things have faded from memory, but this sticks in my mind with uncomfortable clarity. (卡罗琳奶奶过去常对我说：“女孩，别忘了你来自哪里。”现在我真的明白了。许多事情已经从记忆中消失了，但这件事却以令人不安的清晰印象留在了我的脑海中)”可知，文章想要传达的信息是：坚守本根。故选A。
9．B 10．C 11．B 12．C

【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要说明了根据一项新研究，我们的大脑在重新解释模棱两可的声音时会使用一种“自动纠正”功能。文章介绍了研究开展的过程以及发现。
9．细节理解题。根据第一段“Our brains have an “auto-correct” feature that we use when re-interpreting (重新解释) ambiguous sounds, according to new research. The study sheds light on how the brain uses information gathered after the discovering of an initial sound to aid speech comprehension. (根据一项新研究，我们的大脑在重新解释模棱两可的声音时会使用一种“自动纠正”功能。这项研究揭示了大脑是如何利用发现一个初始声音后收集的信息来帮助理解语言的)”可知，这项研究的主要内容是大脑如何理解不清晰的词语。故选B。
10．推理判断题。根据第三段“It’s well known that the perception of a speech sound is determined by its surrounding context — in the form of words, sentences and other speech sounds. This plays out in everyday life — when we talk, the actual speech we produce is often ambiguous. For example, when a friend says she has a “dent (凹痕)” in her car, you may hear “tent”. Although this kind of ambiguity happens regularly, we. as listeners, are hardly aware of it. “This is because the brain automatically resolves the ambiguity for us — it picks an interpretation and that’s what we perceive to hear,” explains Gwilliams. “The way the brain does this is by using the surrounding context to narrow down the possibilities of what the speaker may mean.” (众所周知，对语音的感知是由周围环境决定的——以单词、句子和其他语音的形式。这在日常生活中也会发生——当我们说话的时候，我们实际说的话往往是模棱两可的。例如，当一个朋友说她的车有一个凹痕时，你可能会听到“tent”。虽然这种模棱两可经常发生，但我们。作为听众，我们几乎意识不到这一点。“这是因为大脑自动为我们解决了模糊性——它选择了一种解释，这就是我们所听到的，”Gwilliams解释说。“大脑这样做的方式是利用周围的环境来缩小说话人可能想要表达的可能性。”)”可推知，作者想通过第三段的例子说明即使听错了一个词，人们也能听懂别人说的话。故选C。
11．细节理解题。根据最后一段“Their results produced three primary findings: The brain’s primary auditory cortex (听觉皮层) is sensitive to how ambiguous a speech sound is at just 50 milliseconds after the sound’s appearance. The brain “replays” previous speech sounds while interpreting the following ones, suggesting re-evaluation as the rest of the word unfolds. The brain makes commitments to its “best guess” of how to interpret the signal after about half a second. (他们的研究结果产生了三个主要发现：大脑的初级听觉皮层(初级听觉皮层)在声音出现50毫秒后就对语音的歧义程度很敏感。大脑在解释接下来的声音时“重播”之前的声音，暗示随着单词的展开重新评估。大脑会在半秒后做出“最佳猜测”来解释信号)”可知，实验中不清楚的单词很快就被注意到了。故选B。
12．词句猜测题。根据划线词上文“Their results produced three primary findings: The brain’s primary auditory cortex (听觉皮层) is sensitive to how ambiguous a speech sound is at just 50 milliseconds after the sound’s appearance. The brain “replays” previous speech sounds while interpreting the following ones, suggesting re-evaluation as the rest of the word unfolds.”可知，他们的研究结果产生了三个主要发现：大脑的初级听觉皮层在声音出现50毫秒后就对语音的模糊程度很敏感。大脑在解释接下来的声音时“重播”之前的声音，暗示随着单词的展开重新评估。大脑会在半秒后做出“最佳猜测”来解释发音不清楚的单词。故划线词意思“发音不清楚的单词”。故选C。
13．D 14．B 15．C 16．A

【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。主要讲述了伊丽莎白女王的人生事迹。
13．细节理解题。根据第二段中的“During World War II, the princess wanted her father to allow her to do something for her country. Her father finally agreed to let her volunteer for the British Army, where she became a driver and trained in auto mechanics.(在第二次世界大战期间，公主希望她的父亲允许她为她的国家做些事情。她的父亲最终同意让她自愿参加英国军队，在那里她成为了一名司机，并接受了汽车维修培训。)”可知，在二战时，伊丽莎白公主要为国家做点什么，她的父亲最终同意她参加了英国军队，由此可知，二战爆发后，伊丽莎白公主通过参军为国效力。故选D项。
14．推理判断题。根据第三段“It was a pioneering move: Not only was she the first member of her family ever to serve in the military, but the sight of a woman taking apart engines and changing tires signalled a sea change in social and gender roles that would continue throughout the future queen’s lifetime.(这是一个开拓性的举动:她不仅是她家族中第一个在军队服役的成员，而且看到一个女人拆卸发动机和更换轮胎的景象标志着社会和性别角色的巨大变化，这种变化将持续到未来女王的一生。)”可知，作者把她在二战时的举动描述为是一个开坧性的举动，她成了家族里第一位服役成员，也是第一位女拆卸发动机的女性，标志着社会和性别角色的重大变化的，由此可推断，作者认为她在二战期间的举办意义重大。故选B项。
15．推理判断题。根据倒数第三段中的“The new queen’s birth had roughly happened at the same time as the development of television, and during planning for her coronation(加冕礼)she broke with tradition and allowed the BBC to broadcast the event over live TV. It was the first coronation ever televised, and it literally created must-see TV.(新女王的出生与电视的发展大致同步，在筹划她的加冕典礼期间，她打破了传统，允许英国广播公司(BBC)通过电视直播这一事件。这是第一次电视转播的加冕典礼，它创造了必看的电视节目。)”可知在伊丽莎白女王加冕时，她打破常规，允许BBC通过电视直播加冕礼，这是第一次电视转播加冕礼，由此可推断，伊丽莎白女王对加冕礼的决定暗示了她喜欢釆用新技术。故选C项。
16．推理判断题。根据第5段中的“Elizabeth came to power as the atomic age kicked into full swing, and she helped introduce the nation to those nuclear advances. In 1956, she opened the world’s first complete nuclear power station, Calder Hall.(伊丽莎白上台时，原子时代正如火如荼地展开，她帮助把国家引入了那些核进展。1956年，她启用了世界上第一个完整的核电站——考尔德霍尔核电站。)”可知，伊丽莎白女王在原子时代兴起时，她帮助把核进展引入英国并且开启了世界上第一个核电站，由此可推断，她认为核能对她的国家来说很重要。故选A项。
17．D 18．A 19．C

【导语】这是一篇应用文。文章介绍了四个加拿大的国家公园的特色，以及最佳参观时间。
17．细节理解题。根据第一部分的“There are countless roads in the world, but none of them reach there. You can only get into the park by small plane!(世界上有无数条路，但没有一条通往那里。你只能乘小飞机进入公园!)”可知，Nahanni National Park只能通过坐飞机到达。故选D。
18．细节理解题。根据第三部分的“Best time: August and September.(最佳时间：八月和九月)”可知，参观Sambaa Deh Falls Territorial Park的最佳时间是八月和九月。故选A。
19．细节理解题。根据最后一部分的“The park also contains many cultural sites of great significance to the aboriginal (土著的) people of the North. You can find answers to your aboriginal curiosity here.(该公园还包含许多对北方原住民具有重要意义的文化遗址。你可以在这里找到对原住民好奇心的答案)”可知，游客可以在Ivvavik National Park体验土著文化。故选C。
20．A 21．B 22．D 23．B

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要介绍了印度运动员P. T. Usha的个人经历以及成就。
20．主旨大意题。根据第二段“She was born in a poor family in Kerala in 1964. She was unable to enjoy her childhood because of her family’s poverty. Usha was always interested in sports and took part in a variety of contests from a young age. She easily defeated the school champion, who was three years older than her, in a school race. (1964年，她出生在喀拉拉邦的一个贫困家庭。由于家境贫寒，她无法享受童年时光。Usha一直对体育很感兴趣，从小就参加了各种比赛。在一次学校赛跑中，她轻松击败了比她大三岁的学校冠军)”可知，第二段主要讲了P. T. Usha的早年生活。故选A。
21．细节理解题。根据第三段“Later coach OM Nambiar gave her an award in a match event. In an interview, he stated that he felt she had the ability to be a great short-distance runner so he began coaching Usha. (后来，教练OM Nambiar在比赛中给了她一个奖项。在一次采访中，他说他觉得她有能力成为一名优秀的短跑运动员，所以他开始指导Usha)”可知，OM Nambiar决定训练P. T. Usha是因为他相信她的运动天赋。故选B。
22．细节理解题。根据倒数第二段“Usha won six medals in the 1985 Jakarta Asian Championships, five gold and one bronze. She established a record for the most gold medals won at a single event in the championships’ history. She won four gold medals in the Asian Games in 1986. She became the first woman president of Indian Olympic Association. ( Usha在1985年雅加达亚洲锦标赛上获得6枚奖牌，5枚金牌和1枚铜牌。她创造了世锦赛历史上在单一项目中获得最多金牌的记录。她在1986年的亚运会上获得了四枚金牌。她成为印度奥林匹克协会的第一位女主席)”可知，P. T. Usha是有惊人成就的人。故选D。
23．推理判断题。根据第二段“She was born in a poor family in Kerala in 1964. (1964年，她出生在喀拉拉邦的一个贫困家庭)”；第三段“She received Rs. 250 scholarships from the Government of Kerala in 1976. (1976年，她从喀拉拉邦政府获得了250卢比的奖学金)”；“Usha won six medals at the interstate meet for juniors in 1978. (1978年，乌莎在州际青少年比赛中赢得了六枚奖牌)”以及“She won 14 medals at the Kerala State College Meet. Usha had both the best and a little tough time during the 1984 Olympics.(在1984年奥运会上，乌莎经历了最好的时刻，也经历了一些艰难的时刻)”以及倒数第二段“Usha won six medals in the 1985 Jakarta Asian Championships, five gold and one bronze. She established a record for the most gold medals won at a single event in the championships’ history. She won four gold medals in the Asian Games in 1986. She became the first woman president of Indian Olympic Association.( Usha在1985年雅加达亚洲锦标赛上获得6枚奖牌，5枚金牌和1枚铜牌。她创造了世锦赛历史上在单一项目中获得最多金牌的记录。她在1986年的亚运会上获得了四枚金牌。她成为印度奥林匹克协会的第一位女主席)”可推知，文章是按照时间顺序展开的。故选B。
24．D 25．A 26．A 27．B

【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述的是Ibby的故事，Ibby是个聋哑人，他在买咖啡的时候遇到了一位服务员Krystal，Krystal告诉他，她正在学习手语，希望能够让Ibby拥有和其他人同样的购物体验。
24．细节理解题。根据文章第二段“Ibby Piracha lost his hearing when he was only two years old, and he now goes to his local cafe in Leesburg, Virginia to order a cup of coffee at least three times a week.(Ibby Piracha两岁时失聪，现在他每周至少三次去弗吉尼亚州利斯堡当地的咖啡馆点一杯咖啡。)”可知，Ibby Piracha经常去一家咖啡馆。故选D。
25．细节理解题。根据文章第三段“After Ibby ordered his coffee, he was amazed when barista Krystal pane handed him a note in response. “I’ve been learning sign language just so you can have the same experience as everyone else,” the note read. Krystal then asked Ibby in sign language what he would like to order.(在Ibby点了咖啡后，他惊讶地看到咖啡师Krystal Pane递给他一张纸条作为回应。纸条上写道：“我一直在学习手语，这样你就能和其他人有同样的体验。”然后Krystal用手语问Ibby他想点什么。)”可知，Krystal学习手语是为了更好地为Ibby服务，让他能和其他人有同样的体验。故选A。
26．推理判断题。根据文章第三段“After Ibby ordered his coffee, he was amazed when barista Krystal pane handed him a note in response. “I’ve been learning sign language just so you can have the same experience as everyone else,” the note read. Krystal then asked Ibby in sign language what he would like to order.(在Ibby点了咖啡后，他惊讶地看到咖啡师Krystal Pane递给他一张纸条作为回应。纸条上写道：“我一直在学习手语，这样你就能和其他人有同样的体验。”然后Krystal用手语问Ibby他想点什么。)”以及最后一段“Ibby posted a photo of Krystal’s note online, and it quickly went viral, getting hundreds of likes and comments that praised Krystal for her kind action.( Ibby在网上发布了克里斯托纸条的照片，并迅速走红，得到了数百个赞和评论，称赞krystal的善举。)”可知，Krystal之所以学习手语是为了让Ibby能和其他人有同样的体验，而人们也为她的善举点赞。所以可推测Krystal是个心地善良而又善解人意的人。故选A。
27．推理判断题。根据文章第一段“That’s why it’s so heart-warming to see a story like this in which a barista (咖啡师) does something small to make life a little easier for someone who is deaf.(这就是为什么看到这样一个咖啡师做了一件小事让聋哑人的生活变得更轻松的故事是如此温暖人心。)”以及文章第四段“Ibby was touched that she would learn sign language just to help him feel welcome. “I was just so moved that she actually wanted to learn sign language. It is really a totally different language and it was something that she wanted to do because of me. Because I was a deaf customer. I was very, very impressed,” Ibby said.( Ibby很感动，她会学习手语，只是为了让他感到受欢迎。“我很感动，她真的想学手语。这真的是一种完全不同的语言，她想做这件事是因为我。因为我是个聋子顾客。我非常非常印象深刻，” Ibby说。)”可知，文章主要想表达的是一个小举动却让Ibby印象深刻，并让他心里充满温暖。故选B。
28．B 29．A 30．A 31．C

【导语】本文是一篇议论文。文章论述了作者对于极限运动危险性的认识。
28．主旨大意题。根据第二段中的“To most people, extreme sports are extreme simply because they take more skill than what an average person has. An athlete with skill and training makes an extreme thing become a daily routine. That does not wipe out the danger, but it greatly reduces it.(对大多数人来说，极限运动之所以是极限运动，仅仅是因为它们需要比普通人更多的技巧。一个运动员运用技巧和训练是一个极端的事情被提上日程。这并不能完全消除危险，但可以大大减少危险)”可知，第二段主要讨论了在极限运动中，运动员的技巧在保障自身安全的过程中是非常重要的。故选B。
29．推理判断题。根据第四段“Some view parkour, the sports of running, jumping and climbing under, around and through buildings, as an extreme sport, while it is more of a life philosophy, where the athlete does not have to do anything remotely dangerous. Free soloing, which means climbing a rock or ice face without safety gear, is absolutely deadly, where one slip means almost certain death, depending on the height, of course. Skateboarding is relatively safe, but if you constantly find ridiculous places to practice on, like the fence of a bridge, then things can get very complicated. The extreme part depends on the athlete.(一些人把跑酷（跑、跳、爬建筑物下面、周围和穿过建筑物的运动）视为一种极限运动，但它更像是一种生活哲学，运动员不必做任何危险的事情。自由独攀，也就是在没有安全装备的情况下攀爬岩石或冰面，绝对是致命的，一次滑倒几乎就意味着死亡，当然，这取决于高度。滑板相对安全，但如果你经常找一些可笑的地方练习，比如桥的栅栏，那么事情就会变得非常复杂。极限部分取决于运动员)”可推知，在第4段中，列举了几种极限运动来解释危险取决于运动员。故选A。
30．推理判断题。根据最后一段“To summarize, yes, extreme sports are dangerous, but the danger depends on the athlete, their choice of sport, direction in which they take it, as well as the circumstances. Some things are out of our reach of control, while others we can influence through exercise and healthier risk choices.(总之，是的，极限运动是危险的，但危险取决于运动员，他们对运动的选择，他们采取的方向，以及环境。有些事情是我们无法控制的，而有些事情我们可以通过锻炼和更健康的风险选择来影响)”可推知，作者对极限运动的看法是客观的。故选A。
31．主旨大意题。根据最后一段“To summarize, yes, extreme sports are dangerous, but the danger depends on the athlete, their choice of sport, direction in which they take it, as well as the circumstances. Some things are out of our reach of control, while others we can influence through exercise and healthier risk choices.(总之，是的，极限运动是危险的，但危险取决于运动员，他们对运动的选择，他们采取的方向，以及环境。有些事情是我们无法控制的，而有些事情我们可以通过锻炼和更健康的风险选择来影响)”及前文论述可知，作者认为极限运动的危险和很多因素都有关，不能简单地把极限运动和危险等同起来。由此可知，Are Extreme Sports Really That Dangerous?(极限运动真的那么危险吗？)适合作本文最佳标题。故选C。
32．B 33．B 34．C 35．A

【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了研究人员发明的一种金鱼眼浮标，这种装置可以防止海鸟靠近渔网，从而避免因为被渔网缠住淹死。
32．推理判断题。根据第二段“Every year, hundreds of thousands of seabirds die when they get caught in gillnets. Some estimates suggest that up to a half-million birds are caught in them each year. Over the years, researchers have created devices(装置)to prevent the birds from trying to catch fish near or in gillnets, but those didn't work well.(每年，成千上万的海鸟被刺网捕获而死亡。据估计，每年有多达50万只鸟被捕获。多年来，研究人员发明了一些装置来防止鸟类试图在刺网附近或刺网中捕鱼，但效果并不好。)”可知，每年都会有海鸟因为被渔网缠住而淹死，虽然多年来研究者一直致力于解决这个问题，但结果不尽人意。由此可推断，第二段的主要作用是介绍新的装置被发明的背景。故选B项。
33．细节理解题。根据第三段“They made the eyes big enough so that even birds with poor eyesight，such as geese, would see them.(他们把眼睛做的很大，甚至视力很弱的天鹅都能看到他们。)”可知，研究人员制作大的金鱼眼是为了确保所有的海鸟都能看见金鱼眼浮标。故选B项。
34．推理判断题。根据最后一段“ They also found that the birds were less likely to fish near where the buoys had been for up to three weeks after they had been removed.(他们也发现鸟类不能会在那些装置被放了三周后再移除的地方捕食)”可知，金鱼眼浮标的使用降低了海鸟被渔网缠住的风险，而且海鸟也会有意识地避开曾经放置了金鱼眼浮标的地区。由此可推断，金鱼眼浮标有效地阻止了海鸟靠近渔网从而避免被渔网缠住。故选C项。
35．主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是文章第一段“...has created a type of buoy(浮标)that has proven to be effective at frightening seabirds, thus preventing them from getting caught in gillnets(创造了一种浮标，被证明在吓走海鸟方面有作用，因此就能阻止它们被网缠住)”可知，本文主要介绍了研究人员发明的一种防止海鸟被渔网缠住的金鱼眼浮标。故选A项。
36．A 37．C 38．D 39．D

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要介绍了一个有使命感的孩子Orion Jean，他认为善良是一种美德，并以身行善，发起了一系列慈善活动，帮助了很多有需要的人。
36．词句猜测题。根据划线部分下文“see how it would go(看看会怎么样)”可知，Orion觉得试一试（参加慈善演讲比赛），看看结果会是什么样的。因此猜测，划线部分意为“试一试”。故选A。
37．细节理解题。根据第四段的“Orion, who says his parents always taught him that “kindness is a virtue that we should all try to possess,” came up with the idea of the Race to Kindness campaign - a series of events to help others.(Orion说，他的父母总是告诉他“善良是一种美德，我们都应该努力拥有”，于是他想出了“Race to Kindness”活动的主意——通过一系列活动来帮助他人)”可知，小时候Orion所受的家庭教育让他有了“Race to Kindness”活动的主意。故选C。
38．推理判断题。根据第四段的“So, he used his winnings to buy as many toys as possible and launched a toy fair to gather more. (所以，他用他的奖金买了尽可能多的玩具，并发起了一个玩具博览会来收集更多的玩具)”可知，Orion用自己的奖金买玩具送给别人，由此推知他很慷慨；根据第五段的“But Orion was just getting started. After the toy fair, he launched an ambitious “Race to 100, 000 meals” to help food-insecure people in his community.(但Orion才刚刚起步。玩具展结束后，他发起了一项雄心勃勃的“Race to 100, 000 meals”，以帮助他所在社区的粮食不安全的人)”以及最后一段的“In May 2022, the kindness activist decided to launch “Race to 500, 000 Books” to help families who couldn’t afford books or live in “book deserts”. (2022年5月，这位慈善活动家决定发起“Race to 500, 000 Books”，以帮助那些买不起书或生活在“书沙漠”中的家庭)”可知，Orion不断发起慈善活动，由此推知他非常有进取心。综上，故选D。
39．推理判断题。根据最后一段的“In May 2022, the kindness activist decided to launch “Race to 500, 000 Books” to help families who couldn’t afford books or live in “book deserts”. (2022年5月，这位慈善活动家决定发起“Race to 500, 000 Books”，以帮助那些买不起书或生活在“书沙漠”中的家庭)”推知，下文很有可能陈述“Race to 500, 000 Books”这项活动所取得的成就，例如该活动收集到多少本书，或者给多少孩子送去了书，以及对书籍对这些孩子的影响等。故选D。
40．C 41．D 42．C

【导语】这是一篇应用文。文章介绍了芝加哥小熊队和白袜队的赛事安排和观看方法。
40．细节理解题。根据When do the Cubs and White Sox play?部分的“The teams are scheduled to play practice games against each other at 7:05 p. m. Sunday at Wrigley Field and at 7:10 p. m. Monday at Guaranteed Rate Field.(两队将于周日下午7点05分在瑞格利球场和周一晚上7点10分在保证率球场进行练习赛。)”和“On Wednesday night, the Cubs host the Minnesota Twins at 6:05 and the Sox welcome the Milwaukee Brewers at 7:10 as a prelude(前奏) to season openers set for next Friday.(周三晚上，小熊队将在6:05迎战明尼苏达双城队，而白袜队将在7:10迎战密尔沃基酿酒人队，这是下周五赛季揭幕战的序幕。)”可知，芝加哥小熊队在赛季揭幕战前还有3场比赛。故选C。
41．细节理解题。根据What channels will the Cubs and White Sox be on?部分的“If you live in the Cubs TV market, you’ll find their games on Marquee Sports Network, its app and website, assuming you subscribe to a cable, satellite or streaming service that has a carriage arrangement (转播权)with the new channel.( 如果你住在小熊队电视市场，你会在Marquee Sports Network的应用程序和网站上看到他们的比赛，前提是你订阅了有线电视、卫星电视或流媒体服务，并与新频道签订了传输协议。)”和“Sox games are on NBC Sports Chicago, its app and website if you have a service that has a carriage arrangement. Both channels will have both Cubs-Sox exhibitions.(如果你的服务有运输安排，那么红袜队的比赛可以在NBC芝加哥体育频道的应用程序和网站上观看。两个频道都将播放小熊队与白袜队的比赛。)”可知，观众可以在Marquee Sports Network这个频道观看两队的比赛。故选D。
42．推理判断题。根据Where will announcers(播音员)call the games from?部分的“ESPN’s Jon Sciambi, Chipper Jones and Rick Sutcliffe (who’s an occasional Marquee contributor) will work Sunday’s game remotely from their homes the way the network has handled its coverage of South Korean ball games.( ESPN的Jon Sciambi, Chipper Jones和Rick Sutcliffe(他是Marquee的临时撰稿人)将在家中远程运行周日的比赛，就像该网络处理韩国球赛的报道一样。)”可知，播音员不一定要在比赛现场。故选C。
43．B 44．C 45．B 46．A

【导语】这是一篇说明文，一项研究表明，人造光会影响人们的健康。
43．细节理解题。根据第二段中“Those exposed the most were 28 per cent more likely to develop this condition because of the interference (干预) the light had on the body’s production of melatonin (褪黑激素) which affects our sleep patterns.(暴露在人造光下最多的人患这种疾病的可能性要高出28%，因为光线会干扰人体分泌褪黑激素，从而影响我们的睡眠模式)”可知，人造光会影响人们的睡眠模式，从而增加患病几率，故选B。
44．细节理解题。根据第五段中“A total of 98,658 participants underwent interviews to provide medical, household income, education, way of life, and family history information.(共有98,658名参与者接受了访谈，以提供医疗、家庭收入、教育、生活方式和家族史等信息)”可知，参与者的生活方式信息被收集，故选C。
45．细节理解题。根据倒数第二段中“Participants were assigned an average artificial outdoor light exposure level for the location using satellite images.(研究人员利用卫星图像为参与者分配了该地点的平均室外人工光照水平)”可知，该研究利用了高科技的帮助。故选B。
46．推理判断题。根据最后一段“Dr. Xu said, ‘Exposure to artificial light at night is a common environmental risk factor in modern societies.’ More than 99 per cent of people in the US and Europe live under light-polluted skies. Earth’s 24-hour day-night cycle has resulted in most organisms, including humans, having an inbuilt circadian (昼夜的) timing system, but light pollution has been found to change the circadian rhythm of insects, birds and other animals, resulting in early death and loss of biodiversity.(徐博士说：‘在现代社会，夜间暴露在人造光下是一个常见的环境风险因素。’在美国和欧洲，超过99%的人生活在光污染的天空下。地球24小时的昼夜循环导致包括人类在内的大多数生物都有一个内在的昼夜节律计时系统，但人们发现光污染会改变昆虫、鸟类和其他动物的昼夜节律，导致过早死亡和生物多样性丧失)”可知，人造光是一个常见的环境风险因素，很多人生活在光污染之下，且它会导致物种死亡和生物多样性丧失，故人造光正在危害世界。故选A。
47．C 48．D 49．A 50．B

【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要讲的是外来物种的定义及其对新环境的影响。
47．细节理解题。根据第一段“Human activities, such as those involved in global commerce and the pet trade, are considered to be the most common ways in which invasive plants, animals, microbes, and other organisms are transported to new habitats.(人类活动，例如涉及全球商业和宠物贸易的活动，被认为是入侵植物、动物、微生物和其他生物被转移到新栖息地的最常见方式。)”可知，引进的物种主要是通过人类活动传播到一个新的地方，故选C。
48．细节理解题。根据第二段的“Most introduced species do not survive extended periods in new habitats, because they do not possess the necessary adaptations to adjust to the challenges posed by their new surround-ings.(大多数引进的物种不能在新的栖息地长时间生存，因为它们没有必要的适应能力来适应新环境带来的挑战。)”可知，进入新栖息地的大多数引进物种会在短时间内死亡。故选D。
49．词句猜测题。根据最后一段的“Invasive species may be so good at catching(入侵物种可能非常善于捕捉)”和“many victim species die out(许多受害物种灭绝了)”可知，preys指的是被猎杀和吃掉的生物。故选A。
50．主旨大意题。根据第一段的“The invasive (入侵的) species, also called introduced species or foreign species, is any nonnative species that significantly changes or damages the ecosystem it invades.(入侵物种，也被称为引进物种或外来物种，是任何非本地物种显著改变或破坏其入侵的生态系统。)”，第二段的“They change native food chains and in some cases even get to the top of the food chains, which means the ecosystem lacks natural enemy capable of keeping them in check.(它们改变了当地的食物链，在某些情况下甚至到达了食物链的顶端，这意味着生态系统缺乏能够控制它们的天敌。)”和第三段的“The ecological damage that tends to follow such invasions often reduces the ecosystem’s biodiversity and causes economic harm to people who depend on the ecosystem’s biological resources.(这种入侵往往会造成生态破坏，往往会减少生态系统的生物多样性，并对依赖生态系统生物资源的人们造成经济损害。)”可知，本文主要讲的是外来物种的定义及其对新环境的影响，因此最恰当的题目是B选项“Invasive Species and Their Impact(入侵物种及其影响)”，故选B。
51．C 52．A 53．D

【导语】本文是说明文。文章介绍了一部新上映的电视剧赢得了观众的心，这个节目不仅改善了当地的旅游业，而且展现了的一些非物质文化遗产的魅力。文章详细介绍了其中的三种。
51．细节理解题。根据第二段的“The TV show also points that the traditional craft of wood carving faces challenges. (电视节目还指出，传统的木雕工艺面临挑战。)”可知，简川木雕面临很多困难。故选C。
52．细节理解题。根据第三段的“The tie-dyeing technique of the Bai ethnic(民族的)group had grown in popularity as early as in the Tang dynasty, and it was listed as a national intangible cultural heritage in 2006.(白族扎染技艺早在唐代就已流行起来，并于2006年被列为国家级非物质文化遗产。)”可知，在2006年白族扎染被列为国家非物质文化遗产。故选A。
53．细节理解题。根据最后一段的“It has been an important tradition during special events such as weddings and festivals. What’s more, people usually drink this kind of tea during special occasions.(这一直是一个重要的传统。更重要的是，人们通常在特殊的场合喝这种茶。)”可知，作者认为三道茶是特殊场合的一种传统。故选D。
54．D 55．B 56．C 57．D

【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要讲的是青少年的非认知能力会影响他们后期的身体健康。
54．推理判断题。根据第二段的“Rose Atkins of that university, along with her colleagues set out to investigate noncognitive skills as they are one of the least explored determining factors of health and well-being, despite the fact that evidence surrounding their importance is growing quickly.(该大学的Rose Atkins和她的同事们开始调查非认知技能，因为它们是对健康和幸福的决定因素中探索最少的因素之一，尽管有关它们重要性的证据正在迅速增加。)”可知，非认知技能对健康的影响没有得到足够的重视。故选D。
55．细节理解题。根据第四段的“The researchers used data on a group of individuals who were followed throughout their life and carried out statistical analysis to study the relationship between adolescent non-cognitive skills and later -life health.(研究人员使用了一组人的数据，这些人一生都在接受跟踪调查，并进行了统计分析，以研究青少年非认知技能与晚年健康之间的关系。)”可知，研究人员从个人那里收集数据来进行研究，故选B。
56．细节理解题。根据最后一段的“Having a greater focus on the improvement of non- cognitive skills at both primary and secondary school levels would be a positive policy decision, However, these skills are also determined by factors like family income, parental education, and parental investment.(在小学和中学阶段更加关注非认知技能的提高将是一个积极的政策决定，然而，这些技能也由家庭收入、父母教育和父母投资等因素决定。)”可知，研究人员认为他们的发现说明应该采取措施提高青少年的非认知技能。故选C。
57．主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是第一段的“Teenagers whose non-cognitive (非认知的) skills are poorly developed are more likely to suffer from health problems later in life, according to a new research by a group of experts from the University of Manchester.(曼彻斯特大学的一组专家进行的一项新研究表明，非认知能力发育不良的青少年在以后的生活中更容易出现健康问题。)”可知，本文主要讲的是青少年的非认知技能会影响他们以后的健康。故选D。
58．B 59．B 60．A 61．B

【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要讲的是蓝光对人的不好的影响以及减少这种影响的方法。
58．推理判断题。根据第一段的““Blue light is what makes the sky blue on a sunny day and what gives your smartphone screen its bright and clear background,” says Susan Massick, an expert at The Ohio State University Wexner Medical Center.(俄亥俄州立大学韦克斯纳医学中心的专家Susan Massick说：“在阳光明媚的日子里，蓝光使天空变蓝，也使你的智能手机屏幕呈现明亮清晰的背景。”)”可知，Susan Massick的话说明了什么是蓝光，因此作者在第一段中引用了Susan Massick的话的目的是澄清一个概念。故选B。
59．主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是第二段的“Given that overexposure to UV light causes serious damage like skin cancer, it’s important to explore how blue light can affect the skin as well.(鉴于过度暴露在紫外线下会导致皮肤癌等严重损害，探索蓝光对皮肤的影响也很重要。)”和第三段的“Blue light goes through the skin and deeper into the skin than UV rays, but prolonged or repeated exposure to either can lead to skin damage and accelerated skin aging, says Massick.(Massick说，蓝光能穿透皮肤，比紫外线更深入皮肤，但长时间或反复暴露在这两种光线下都会导致皮肤损伤，加速皮肤衰老。)”可知，文章主要的焦点在于蓝光对皮肤的潜在伤害，故选B。
60．细节理解题。根据倒数第三段的“Cutting on screen use may result in better quality sleep than using electronic devices at bedtime with Night Mode.(减少对屏幕的使用可能比在睡前使用电子设备的夜间模式带来更好的睡眠质量。)”可知，建议尽量减少晚上看屏幕的时间是因为这有助于提高睡眠质量。故选A。
61．推理判断题。根据第六段的“The impact of artificial blue light exposure on sleep is important to consider because people who sleep seven to nine hours a night have significantly lower skin aging scores, according to a Clinical and Experimental Dermatology study.(根据一项临床和实验皮肤病学研究，人工蓝光对睡眠的影响是很重要的，因为每晚睡7到9个小时的人皮肤老化得分明显较低。)”可知，从第6段我们可以推断出睡眠对保持皮肤健康起着至关重要的作用。故选B。
62．B 63．C 64．C

【导语】本文是一篇应用文，主要介绍的是2023年英国最好的文学节的相关信息。
62．细节理解题。根据Primadonna部分的“Held at the Museum of East Anglian Life in Suffolk, Primadonna prides itself on creating a space for works by women and those whose voices might not otherwise be heard.(Primadonna在Suffolk的Museum of East Anglian Life举办，它为自己创造了一个空间，展示女性和那些原本可能听不到他们声音的人的作品。)”可知，Primadonna会推广被较少阅读的作家，故选B。
63．细节理解题。根据Kite Festival部分的“New last year, this literary festival held in the grounds of spectacular stately home Kirtlington Park in Oxfordshire is the first of its kind, combining music and breakthrough ideas to create a unique programme featuring live performances and interactive discussions.(去年，这个文学节在牛津郡壮观的富丽堂皇的柯特灵顿公园举行，这是第一个这样的文学节，将音乐和突破性的想法结合起来，创造了一个独特的节目，包括现场表演和互动讨论。)”和Queen’s Park Book Festival部分的“Alongside writers’ discussions on their latest works, you’ll find performance poetry events hosted by hip-hop verse maestro Poetcurious and nightly parties once the sun sets.(除了作家们对他们最新作品的讨论，你还会发现嘻哈诗歌大师Poetcurious举办的表演诗歌活动和日落后的夜间派对。)”可知，游客在Kite Festival和Queen’s Park Book Festival中可以欣赏表演。故选C。
64．推理判断题。根据标题“The best literary festivals 2023 across the UK to book now(2023年英国最好的文学节现在开始预订)”可知，本文主要介绍的是2023年英国最好的文学节的相关信息，因此目的是告知读者一些文学事件。故选C。
65．D 66．C 67．D 68．B

【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲的是Terrill Haigler组织费城5K地球日垃圾步行活动的故事。
65．细节理解题。根据文章第二段“One day, Haigler, better known as “Ya Fav Trashman” on social media, thought about how he could combine trash pickup, helping the homeless, and a bit of fitness. (Haigler在社交媒体上更广为人知的名字是“Ya Fav Trashman”。有一天，他想到了如何把捡垃圾、帮助无家可归者和健身结合起来。)”可知他组织这次活动是为了在帮助无家可归者的同时清理城市垃圾，所以帮助无家可归者同时打扫城市的需求激发了Terrill Haigler组织费城5K地球日垃圾行走的活动。故选D项。
66．细节理解题。根据文章第四段“As part of the event, the Pennsylvania Horticultural Society had pledged to plant a tree in a black or brown community over the next five years for every bag of trash collected.(作为活动的一部分，Pennsylvania Horticultural Society承诺在未来五年内，每收集一袋垃圾就在一个黑人或棕色人种社区种一棵树。)”可知 Pennsylvania Horticultural Society通过承诺帮助绿化当地社区来参与这项活动。故选C项。
67．推理判断题。根据文章第七段“In 2021, Haigler stepped down from his job and now runs a nonprofit to bridge the gap between the community and the city’s sanitation team.( 2021年，Haigler辞去了他的工作，现在经营着一家非营利组织，旨在弥合社区和城市卫生团队之间的差距。)”可知 Terrill Haigler经营的非营利组织旨在促进市民与环卫工人之间的理解。故选D项。
68．推理判断题。根据文章第二段“One day, Haigler, better known as “Ya Fav Trashman” on social media, thought about how he could combine trash pickup, helping the homeless, and a bit of fitness.( Haigler在社交媒体上更广为人知的名字是“Ya Fav Trashman”。有一天，他想到了如何把捡垃圾、帮助无家可归者和健身结合起来。)”以及第五段“Saturday’s walk is the latest in Haigler’s constant push to raise awareness of what sanitation workers (环卫工人) do to try to keep Philly streets clean and to help his city in creative ways.( Haigler一直在努力提高人们对环卫工人的认识，以保持费城街道的清洁，并以创造性的方式帮助他的城市，周六的步行是他的最新努力。)”以及最后一段“Soon, Haigler turned from spreading awareness to community activism, holding a food drive for frontline workers during the pandemic and raising $32,000 to purchase protective equipment for his team. In 2021, Haigler stepped down from his job and now runs a nonprofit to bridge the gap between the community and the city’s sanitation team.(很快，Haigle从传播意识转向社区活动，在疫情期间为一线工作人员举办了食品募捐活动，并筹集了3.2万美元为他的团队购买防护设备。2021年，Haigle辞去了他的工作，现在经营着一家非营利组织，旨在弥合社区和城市卫生团队之间的差距。)”及文章其他段落内容可知Terrill Haigler一直在积极主动地传播意识，举办各种社区活动，同时又勇于创新，乐于助人，所以可以推测他是一个主动积极、 勇于创新、乐于助人的人，所以B项A Mr. Initiative.能最好地描述Terrill Haigler。故选B项。
69．B 70．C 71．A 72．B

【导语】这是一篇说明文。研究发现每天与鸟类接触可以改善抑郁症患者以及更广泛人群的情绪，文章介绍了研究开展的过程以及发现和鸟类接触对抑郁症患者的积极影响是显著的。
69．细节理解题。根据第三段“They added that their findings also highlighted the need to better protect the environment and improve biodiversity in urban, suburban and rural areas in order to preserve bird habitats.(他们补充说，他们的研究结果还强调，为了保护鸟类栖息地，需要更好地保护环境，改善城市、郊区和农村地区的生物多样性)”可知，研究人员可能会同意应该更加重视保护鸟类及其栖息地。故选B。
70．推理判断题。根据第五段“Over the course of two weeks, the participants, from the UK, Europe, the US, China and Australia, were required at random intervals to record how they were feeling, including whether they were happy or stressed, whether they could see trees, and whether they could see or hear birds.(在两周的时间里，来自英国、欧洲、美国、中国和澳大利亚的参与者被随机要求记录下他们的感受，包括他们是快乐还是有压力，他们是否能看到树，以及他们是否能看到或听到鸟的声音)”可推知，作者在第5段提到参与者是为了进一步解释研究方法。故选C。
71．词句猜测题。根据第二段“The study, led by academics from King’s College London, also found that everyday encounters with birds boosted the mood of people with depression, as well as the wider population.(这项由伦敦国王学院的学者领导的研究还发现，每天与鸟类接触可以改善抑郁症患者以及更广泛人群的情绪)”和最后一段“Whereas contact with bird life is something that, perhaps, is feasible.(而接触鸟类生活可能是feasible)”可知，每天与鸟类接触可以改善抑郁症患者以及更广泛人群的情绪，所以与鸟类接触对于抑郁症患者来说是可行的。故划线词意思是“可行的”，故选A。
72．主旨大意题。根据第一段“One swallow (燕子) may not make a summer but seeing or hearing birds does improve mental wellbeing, researchers have found.(研究人员发现，一只燕子可能不会构成一个夏天，但看或听鸟确实能改善心理健康)”结合文章介绍了研究开展的过程以及发现和鸟类接触对抑郁症患者的积极影响是显著的。可知，B选项“鸟与鸟鸣的相遇能改善心理健康”最符合文章标题。故选B。
73．D 74．A 75．A 76．C

【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了SOURCE Global公司的一个特殊制水设备，该设备名为Hydropanels，该设备是由内置太阳能电池板供电。
73．词义猜测题。根据前文“This process, however, can use a lot of electricity and only work in places with a high amount of water contained in the air. (然而，这个过程会消耗大量的电力，而且只能在空气中含有大量水分的地方工作)”可知，传统上基于冷凝-冷却水蒸汽来收集水滴的方法会消耗大量的电力，由此导致SOURCE开发更灵活和实用的解决方案。故划线词指代的是传统的AWG的局限性。故选D。
74．主旨大意题。根据第三段中“Its solar panels power a fan that draws in the air. Inside the device, the air travels through a special material that traps the water vapor to produce water. As it is collected, chemical elements, magnesium and calcium, are added to the water to improve its taste and provide possible health benefits.(它的太阳能电池板为风扇提供动力，从而吸入空气。在设备内部，空气通过一种特殊的材料，这种材料可以捕获水蒸气，从而产生水。在收集的过程中，化学元素，镁和钙，被添加到水中，以改善其味道，并提供可能的健康益处)”可知，本段主要讲述的是Hydropanels的工作过程。故选A。
75．细节理解题。根据倒数第二段中“ SOURCE plans to create a plastic-free bottled water brand (品牌) and sell it to hotels and holiday centers at about the same price as other bottled water brands. (SOURCE计划创建一个无塑料瓶装水品牌，并以与其他瓶装水品牌大致相同的价格出售给酒店和度假中心)”可知，该公司的计划是创建一个无塑料瓶装水品牌，并以与其他瓶装水品牌大致相同的价格出售给酒店和度假中心。故选A。
76．细节理解题。根据最后一段中“Vahid Fotuhi with SOURCE understands the challenges, but he says that Hydropanels help reduce the use of plastics and the environmental footprint.( SOURCE的Vahid Fotuhi了解这些挑战，但他表示，水力发电板有助于减少塑料的使用和环境足迹)”可知，Vahid Fotuhi认为Hydropanels该设备提供了明显的环境效益。故选C。