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广东省汕头市金平区2021-2022学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题 (word版含答案)
展开2021-2022学年度第二学期七年级学业质量监测
英语试题
全卷共10页,满分120分,考试用时为90分钟(其中听力考试时间约20分钟)。
注意事项:
1、答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、座号写在答题卷密封线内。
2、非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答。
3、答案一律写在答题区域内,不准使用铅笔和涂改液,不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
第Ⅰ卷 (本卷共计75 分)
一、听力理解。(本大题分为A、B、C、D四部分,共30小题,30分)
A.听单句话。(本题有5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
根据所听句子的内容和所提的问题,选择符合题意的图画回答问题,并将答案填涂在答题卡的相应位置上。每小题听一遍。
1. What is Danny doing?
A. B. C.
2. How did the speaker go to work yesterday?
A. B. C.
3. Who is the speaker talking about?
A. B. C.
4. When did the speaker arrive at the village?
A. B. C.
5. How was the weather in the afternoon?
A. B. C.
B.听对话。(本题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
根据所听对话内容回答每段对话后面的问题,在各题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案,并填涂在答题卡的相应位置上。每小题听两遍。
听第一段对话,回答第6小题。
6. Who are they going to ask?
A. Alice. B. John. C. The teacher.
听第二段对话,回答第7小题
7. What did they do last weekend?
A. They went skating. B. They stayed at home. C. They made some soup.
听第三段对话,回答第8小题
8. Why is Lisa running so fast?
A. She is late for school. B. She is exercising. C. She doesn’t want to miss the bus.
听第四段对话,回答第9小题
9. What does David look like?
A. Tall and heavy. B. Short and heavy. C. Tall and thin.
听第五段对话,回答第10小题
10. What are the speakers doing?
A. Playing computer games. B. Talking on the phone. C. Working at the computer.
听第六段对话,回答第11-12小题
11. What is the man doing?
A. Eating out. B. Asking the way. C. Showing the way.
12. How can the man get to Center Street?
A. To turn right at the third crossing.
B. To turn left at the second crossing.
C. To turn right at the first crossing.
听第七段对话,回答第13-15小题
13. Why did the man drink much water?
A. The weather was hot. B. The food was hot. C. His mouth was dry.
14. What size is the bowl of dumplings?
A. Small. B. Medium. C. Large.
15. What is the problem with the man?
A. He ate too much. B.He didn’t cook the right food. C. The food was terrible.
C. 听独白。(本题共两段独白,共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
根据你所听内容,在每小题的三个选项中,选出一个最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑,本题听两遍。
听第一段独白,回答16-20小题
16. When is the moment of the picture?
A. A Sunday afternoon. B. A Saturday morning. C. A Friday evening.
17. Where is the speaker?
A. Behind his mother. B. In front of his father. C. On the right.
18. What are the speaker’s grandparents doing?
A. Reading the newspaper. B. Listening to the radio. C. Drinking tea.
19. How is White Snow?
A. Cute. B. Scary. C. Lazy.
20. Why does the speaker feel sorry his cousins?
A. They aren’t there. B. They are doing real work. C. They don’t like the moment.
听第二段独白,回答21-25小题
21. What is the speaker talking about?
A. His eating habits. B. His pet. C. His everyday life.
22. Where does Charlie never sleep?
A. In his bed. B. On the sofa. C. In the speaker’s bed.
23. When did the speaker’s father go out with Charlie?
A. After school. B. In the morning. C. After work.
24. What does Charlie always want?
A. Nice food. B. To go home. C. To play.
25. Does Charlie take a hot shower every week?
A. No, he doesn’t. B. Yes, he does. C. We don’t know.
D.听填信息。(本题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
你将听到的是一篇关于学校音乐社团介绍。请根据听到的内容,填写表格中所缺信息,并将答案填写在答题卡的相应位置上。短文听两遍。
School Music Club
Beginning Date: 26 15th
Time: from 27 to 5:00 every Thursday
Things to learn: playing the violin and the 28
Place: in the school hall
Rules: Students must be 29 and listen carefully, but don’t have to be 30 .
二、语法选择。(本题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后在各题所给的四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案,并将答案填涂在答题卡的相应位置上。
I’m Helen. I live in Brighton and I am English. Last summer holidays, I went to Paris 31 car. I went with my family. 32 me, my parents, my brother Tom and my little sister Susan. We saw 33 interesting places in Paris, as the Eiffel Tower, the Louvre Museum and we made short trips around the city. I loved these trips 34 Paris is a very beautiful city.
On the fifth day, we went to Euro Disney. We stayed at a hotel in the park. 35 the weather was fine. We all enjoyed ourselves a lot there. 36 did we stay in Euro Disney? For four days! They were 37 days I had all my life. But we were all very tired. In Disneyland, visitors have 38 a lot to watch everything and enjoy all the amusements (娱乐设施). My sister Jenny is great. She is only four years old but she 39 walk a very long way. So she didn’t miss the fun of the park. We 40 all the Disney characters and they were very funny.
31. A. in B. on C. by D. from
32. A. There is B. There was C. There are D. There were
33. A. some B. any C. each D. a little
34. A. if B. when C. before D. because
35. A. Luck B. Lucky C. Luckier D. Luckily
36. A. How far B. How long C. What time D. What day
37. A. exciting B. more exciting C. most exciting D. the most exciting
38. A. walk B. to walk C. walked D. walking
39. A. can B. must C. have to D. may
40. A. meet B. meets C. met D. are meeting
三、完形填空。(本题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后在各题所给的四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案,并将答案填涂在答题卡的相应位置上。
There were 2,000 kilograms of fruits on an 8-meter long table and sixty elephants enjoyed a delicious fruit lunch at a Thai park on Sunday, March 13th, as the Southeast Asian country celebrated (庆祝) its Elephant Day.
There have been no 41 from other countries for a long time. The lunch party really 42 some happiness to the park. “Of course, life is 43 to the elephants now as they don’t see many people. Our elephants are used to (习惯) seeing so many people. That’s why you see our elephants are very 44 to everyone,” said a worker from the park. “People enjoy seeing elephants and giving them 45 , especially bananas that they like. ”
Elephants are part of the 46 of Thailand. People used them to do lots of 47 before, like clearing forests and carrying things. March is the 48 of Thai elephants. National Thai Elephant Day was started in 1998 and March 13th is the day when the white elephant was added (添加) to the first Thai flag.
Elephants are a symbol of Thailand but their 49 keeps going down quickly. People kill them for their ivory. Now there are only 3,000 to 4,000 elephants in Thailand and most of them live in zoos or parks. The National Thai Elephant Day helps 50 the elephants. It helps people to see how important elephants are.
41. A. men B. animals C. visitors D. elephants
42. A. sold B. showed C. guided D. brought
43. A. cold B. boring C. funny D. early
44. A. bad B. smart C. noisy D. friendly
45. A. food B. drink C. money D. vegetables
46. A. camp B. world C. history D. geography
47. A. jobs B. sports C. exercises D. homework
48. A. week B. month C. season D. year
49. A. life B. sleep C. place D. number
50. A. save B. clean C. feed D. study
四、阅读理解。(本题有15小题,A和B篇每小题2分,C篇每小题1分,共25分)
阅读下面短文,从每小题所给的四个选项中,选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案,并将答案填涂在答题卡的相应位置上。
A
National Media and Science Museum
The great National Media Museum in Bradford, West Yorkshire, is an exciting center of
movie, photography (摄影) and television in the north of England. There’s so much to do
that you’ll have to come back more than once.
Our two cinemas show both new and old films and we often welcome people from the movie-making industry (行业) to talk about their work. We hold three movie festivals every year. We also have the largest collection (藏品) of television technology and photography.
You must book a free ticket online before your visit. You can book your cinema ticket online too. The time on your ticket is the time when you must arrive. When you’re at the museum, you're welcome to stay for as long as you like.
Time for our three most popular activities:
Games Lounge: 30 minutes (2 pounds each)
IMAX 3D Films: 1 hour
Exhibitions (展览): 30 minutes – 2 hours
Food & Drinks: Café -- open Wednesday to Sunday, 10:00–16:00
Bar -- open Wednesday to Sunday for those who come to the cinemas
Opening Times: 10:00–17:00, Wednesday to Sunday and every day during school holidays.
You can find more information on all films and festivals in our website scienceandmediamuseum.org.uk.
51. Where is the museum?
A. In the north of England. B. In the south of Yorkshire.
C. In the middle of England. D. In the middle of Yorkshire.
52. What are the talks in the museum about?
A. Photograph. B. Television. C. Movie-making. D. Movie festivals.
53. Which of the following is true about the museum?
A. The museum only shows old movies.
B. Visitors can buy tickets at ticket office of the museum.
C. The ticket tells how long you must stay in the museum.
D. People don’t have to pay for their visits to the museum.
54. How long do the three most popular activities take at most (最多)?
A. One and a half hours. B. Two hours. C. Three hours and a half. D. Four hours.
55. When can a visitor go to the museum?
A. At 5 pm on any Monday. B. At 11 am on Tuesdays in summer holidays.
C. At 2 pm on any Tuesday. D. At 6 pm on Wednesdays and Sundays.
B
Students must follow rules in schools. But some schools have unusual school rules and you may get a surprise when hearing about them.
In a school in a small farm town in the USA, students cannot wear some winter clothing like jackets or hats in class because they are “criminal symbols.” But the town is freezing — even indoors — in the winter and the students don’t understand why they cannot wear warm clothes to school.
An American college has many dorm (宿舍) rules. One of them is that a student must make his bed by 9 am every day. One student said if he wanted to sleep in on Saturday morning, he must get up, make his bed, and then go back to sleep on top of the quilt.
Students in a school in Japan cannot bring food from home. They can get food from school during their meal times. And a student will get a punishment (惩罚) if he cannot finish the meal. What’s more, students must not talk at lunch. If a student is found talking to someone, he has to go sit by himself on a chair with no table.
Teachers in parts of the UK and Australia are told not to grade their student’s homework using red ink (墨水). What is wrong with red ink, you ask? Well, it's partly because the color red is felt as danger, and schools think it makes children unhappy when they receive their graded work. Teachers must use other colors like blue, purple, yellow or even with a pencil.
56. What does the underlined word “freezing” mean?
A. dry B. cold C. large D. beautiful
57. How may the student in the 3rd Paragraph feel about the bed-making rule?
A. It’s useful. B. It’s smart. C. It’s exciting. D. It’s funny.
58. Which of the following is a punishment?
A. Not to wear a jacket or a hat. B. To sleep on top of the quilt.
C. To get food for lunch from the school. D. Not to sit with other students at lunch.
59. Why do some school teachers stop using red ink?
A. It brings danger to the school. B. Pens with red ink are too expensive.
C. Some students feel terrible about it. D. Students like blue or yellow colors better.
60.Which is the best title (标题) for the passage?
A. Special School Rules Around the World B. School Uniform Rules
C. Surprising Dorm Rules at Schools D. School Rules for Teachers
C
配对阅读:左栏是五个人对当天工作的描述,右栏是七个工作简介,请将二者进行匹配,并将答案填涂在答题卡的相应位置上。
61. The woman told me she saw a tall man with black curly hair and small eyes. So I painted one as she said. But in the end, it was a heavy man with big eyes!
62. I meet all kinds of people every day and today was just the same. I talked with some but I had to keep my eyes on the road all the time.
63. When I got to the fire station today, someone called 119 to say there was a fire. I went there with my teammates and saved two cats from the house on fire.
64. I cleaned some rooms today and was quite tired. My job is interesting but sometimes dangerous. After all I see large animals in the rooms every day.
65. Usually, the rooms look great after I do my job. But today the customer (顾客) wanted his living room to be black and I had to tell him that would make it very dark.
A. A bus driver must follow the traffic (交通) rules. Before he starts working every day, he must check the bus tires (轮胎) and lights.
B. A house painter works with a brush. He tries to give a house some colors and make it beautiful. He must be good at listening so he can understand what people using the room need.
C. When people see a crime, they will tell the police. When they describe the criminal, a criminal artist at the police station will draw a picture of this criminal.
D. A waitress takes order from customers in a restaurant. She also brings food and drinks to the table, gives the customers what they need and answers their questions.
E. A house cleaner takes care of the house and makes sure everywhere in the house is tidy and clean. Sometimes he or she may have to do the dishes and wash the clothes as well.
F. Zookeepers are the most visible members of a zoo team. Many zookeepers are good with animals like giraffes and lions. They feed animals, take care of them and clean their living places every day.
G. Firefighters help save people from house or forest fires. They try to put out fires when they break out and stop them from hurting people.
第Ⅱ卷 (综合运用共计 45分)
五、词汇运用。(本大题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分。)
根据句意及音标或首字母补全单词,并将完整单词填写在答题卡上。
66. The cars are ______________/`muːvɪŋ / quickly on the road.
67. There are many animals in the _______________/ `nætʃrəl/ park.
68. Let's go fishing by the l tomorrow, shall we?
69. He cannot play chess and I can’t, e .
70. We took a s train to London and it took us three hours more than usual.
六、完成句子。(本大题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分。)
根据中文在空格处填入一个单词,补全句子。
71. 不要冲妈妈大喊大叫! 你必须学会跟别人好好说话。
____________ _____________ at Mum! You must learn to talk nicely with others.
72. 在邮局和警局之间有一个付费电话。
There is a pay phone ___________ the post office _____________ the police station.
73. 我们必须停止砍伐树木,不然鸟儿都没有家了。
We must ____________ ______________ down trees or the birds will lose their homes.
74. 凌晨四点,跑来跑去的老鼠弄醒了我,但我没有起床。
The running mice ___________ me ___________ at 4 am but I didn’t get up.
75. 父母总是担心自己的孩子。
Parents always _____________ ______________ their children.
七、短文填空。(本大题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
阅读下面短文,利用上下文补充所缺信息,每个空格只填写一个形式正确.意义相符的英语单词。
Hi, Jennifer,
I’m in Seoul now! It’s a big and noisy city but my neighborhood is not 76 noisy place. I like living here. There’s a bank across 77 my house. So I can get money easily 78 I need some. There’s also an Internet café. In fact, I am here right now. I’m 79 this email to you here and having lunch too.
The air is great here because there is a river near my house. There is a 80 over it. I like to walk along it at night when the 81 shines on the river. It is so beautiful. Every morning I 82 my bike to my office. On weekends, I sometimes fly kites near the river and when it is 83 , the wind sends my kite high into the sky.
The people here are nice to me. Some try to speak English to me as my Korean (韩语) is not good. Learning a new 84 is not easy for me but I will keep learning. 85 are you these days? Please write to me when you are free. I can’t wait to hear from you.
Love,
Tina
八、读写综合。(本大题分为A.B两部分,共25分)
A. 回答问题(本题共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
请阅读下文,回答问题卡中的题目,并将答案填写在答题卡指定的位置上。
Hi Sammy!
Thank you for your email. I am so happy to hear that you can come to my birthday party at the beach. We are going to have it next Saturday. You can come to my house at four o’clock in the afternoon and my father will take us there in his car. But there will be only you and me, and some friends from school. Billy is coming too. He is studying in another school. I got to know him last year when I went camping in the forest with my parents. He’s great fun! Do you know Joanna Brown? She’ll be there too. She’s really good at playing the guitar. We will make a fire there so we can sing and dance around it. I’ll take all the food, so you don’t have to bring anything. If the weather is good, we may swim in the sea. So remember to bring your swimming things.
See you!
Diana
86. When will Sammy and Diana meet?
______________________________________________________________________________________
87. Is Billy Diana’s classmate?
______________________________________________________________________________________
88. Where did Diana go camping last year?
______________________________________________________________________________________
89. Who is good at the guitar?
______________________________________________________________________________________
90. What can Sammy bring?
______________________________________________________________________________________
B.书面表达:(共15分)
假设你是上文的Sammy,参加了Diana的生日派对之后,请你写一篇日记,记录当日的活动,内容包括:
1. 当天的天气、参加派对的人和食物;
2. 你们在生日派对上的活动(两个,上文所提到的一个,未提到的一个);
3. 你的心情。
作文要求:
1. 不能照抄原文;不得在作文中出现本人真实的名称。
2. 行文连贯,词数60个左右。文章开头已经给出,不计入总词数,也不必抄写到答题卡上。
June 18th
Today I went to Diana’s birthday party at the beach. _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
金平区2021-2022学年度第二学期七年级教学质量监测
英语科 参考答案和评分说明
一.听力理解 (每题1分)
1 . A 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.A
6. C 7.A 8.C 9.A 10.B
11.B 12.C 13.B 14.C 15.A 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.C 20.B 21.B 22.C 23.B 24.C 25.A
26.October 27. 4:20 28. piano 29. on time 30. quiet
(27题 twenty past four;20 past 4不扣分)
二.语法选择 (每题1分)
31. C 32.B 33.A 34.D 35.D 36.B 37.D 38.B 39.A 40.C
三、完形填空 (每题1分)
41.C 42.D 43.B 44.D 45.A 46.C 47.A 48.B 49.D 50.A
四、阅读理解 (每题2分)
51.A 52.C 53.D 54.C 55.B
56.B 57.D 58.D 59.C 60.A
61.C 62.A 63.G 64.F 65.B
五、完成句子(本大题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分。)
66. moving 67. natural 68. lake 69. either 70. slow
(答案与所给答案一致,或意思符合要求,形式正确给满分;答案意思相符但形式有错扣0.5分,意思不符不给分。)
六、 完成句子。(本大题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分。)
71.Don’t shout 72. between ... and ... 73. stop cutting 74. woke up 75. worry about
(答案与所给答案一致,或意思符合要求,形式正确给满分;答案意思相符但形式有错不给分,意思不符不给分。)
七、 短文填空 (每题1分)
76.a 77. from 78. when 79. writing 80. bridge
81. moon 82. ride 83. windy 84. language 85. How
(答案与所给答案一致,或意思符合要求,形式正确给满分;答案意思相符但形式有错扣0.5分,意思不符不给分。)
七、 读写综合
A)回答问题 (每题2分)
86. At four o’clock in the afternoon next Saturday. (没有“下周六”扣1分)
At 4 pm next Saturday.
At 4:00 next Saturday afternoon.
87. No, he isn’t. (只答No扣1分)
88. In the forest.
89. Joanna (Brown).
90. Her swimming things.
B) 书面表达 (15分)
Today I went to Diana’s birthday party at the beach. I was very happy to see Joanna and Bill at the party. All of us enjoyed the BBQ, the birthday cake and fruit juice. Luckily, the weather was so great that we could swim in the sea. What surprised everyone was that Joanna brought her guitar and sang a song for Diana. The song was written by Joanna herself. What a wonderful day!
I was glad to join the party and I wish I could have such a party when it comes to my birthday. (85 words)
评分原则与方法:建议从内容、语言、书写及字数这几方面进行评分
内容要点分数分布:(6分,要点齐备即可得6分)
4. 当天的天气、参加派对的人和食物;-----——————————————1+1+1分
5. 你们在生日派对上的活动(两个,上文所提到的一个,未提到的一个);—— 1+1分
6. 你的心情。———————————1分
语言、书写及字数分 (9分,分档得分)
档次
分值
标准
一档
8-9
表达准确,意思连贯,符合逻辑,只有个别语言错误;有分段,有适当的过渡句或过渡词;卷面整洁清晰,字数不少于80字。
二档
6-7
表达清楚,意思连贯,符合逻辑,但有少数语言错误;卷面清晰,字数不少于80字。
三档
4-5
表达较为清楚、连贯,基本符合逻辑,但有一些语言错误;卷面不够清晰,字数少于80字。
四档
1-3
能写出少量正确句子,但整体表达不太连贯,且语言错误较多。
五档
0
错漏百出,无一正确句子。
几点说明:
1. 正确引用原文句式且运用得当的,不扣分;
2. 空白卷或只抄写与写作话题无关的文段或句子(如抄写完形),得0分;
3. 全篇只抄写信息归纳题文章的全部或部分内容,得1分;
4. 卷面允许涂改(但不要使用涂改液),只要整洁清晰便不必扣书写分;
5. 字数少于80字的作文,语言分最多只能评第三档。
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