2021新乡高一上学期期末考试英语试卷含答案

这是一份2021新乡高一上学期期末考试英语试卷含答案，共12页。试卷主要包含了5分,满分7， B等内容，欢迎下载使用。

新乡市2020-2021学年上期期末考试
高一英语试题卷
注意事项：
本试卷分四部分,考试时间120分钟,满分150分。考生应首先阅读答题卡上的文字信息,然后在答题卡上作答,在试题卷上作答无效。

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)

做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the woman like to listen to in her spare time?
A. Poems. B. Advertisements. C. News.
2. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. At the airport. B. In the hotel C. At the travel company.
3. When are the speakers talking?
A. In the morning. B. In the evening. C. In the afternoon.
4. When will the man finish his report?
A. At 7:30. B. At 7:40. C. At 8:00.
5. What are the speakers going to do?
A. Eat out. B. Book a hotel. C. Order dishes.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的AB.C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where are the two speakers talking?
A. In the library. B. In the bookstore. C. In the post office.
7. How much should the man pay in all?
A. $5 B. $12. C. $17.
听第7段材料，回答8、9题。
8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers!
A. Schoolmates. B. Classmates. C. Deskmates.
9. Why did the boy change his school
A. Susan advised him to. B. His family moved there. C. He disliked his old school
听第8段材料，回答10-12题。
10. What does the man probably do?
A. A policeman. B. A driver. C. A doctor.
11. What did the woman remember about the driver?
A. He looked after her all the time.
B. He was a young man with thick lips.
C. He ran away quickly after the accident.
12. Why did the woman go to the bank?
A. To pay a bill. B. To change money.
听第9段材料，回答13-16题。
13. What are they mainly talking about?
A. Food in a z00. B. A trip to a z00. C.An introduction of a zoo.
14. How long are they going to stay at the z00?
A. About 5 hours. B. About 7 hours. C.About 8 hours.
15. Where will they probably at lunch?
A. At home. B. At the zoo. C.At a restaurant.
16. What can they do at the zoo?
A. Take seeds for snakes.
B. Feed food to elephants
C. Give little birds insects.
听第10段材料，回答第17-20题。
17. What does Kipo and the Age of Wonderbeasts tell about?
A. A love story. B. A true story. C. An imaginary story.
18. Why does Kipo come to the ground surface?
A. To keep safe. B. To stay with Mutes C. To look for her father.
19. What do you think of Kipo?
A. Proud. B. Brave C. Humorous.
20. Which is the new season's biggest attraction?
A. Its music. B. Its story. C. Its setting.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A

If you want to make a difference in your community, be part of something bigger than yourself, or just earn some required volunteer hours, then these organizations with volunteer chances are good choices for you.
Habitat for Humanity
Everyone deserves to have a place they call home. By volunteering with Habitat for Humanity, you can play a role in building up your community. Their Habitat Youth Programs accept volunteers between the ages of 5 and 40 for everything from home construction to affordable housing advocacy (宣传).
The Humane Society
Whether you'e a dog person or a cat person, you can join the Humane Society in their fight against animal cruelty. Find volunteer chances in your state, and take part in outreach, phone banking, or helping out at a local shelter.
Meals on Wheels
For those teens who just got their driving license (驾照) and like to get behind the wheel, here's a volunteer chance that will make driving worthwhile. Meals on Wheels is on a duty to meet the nutritional and social needs of the old. 225 million meals have been sent so far. Connect with your local provider to find out how you can take part.
Best Buddies
Volunteer with Best Buddies to help end the social, physical, and economic Isolation（孤立）of 200 million people with intellectual and developmental disabilities, and you'll make some new pals in the process! Join a school chapter or start your own to use friendship as a tool for a wide community.
21. What can you do as a volunteer of Habitat for Humanity?
A. Bring down housing prices
B. Build homes for the community.
C. Prepare teens for their future jobs.
D. Get more teens to join in volunteering.
22. Who does Meals on Wheels offer services to?
A. Old people in need. B. Drivers on the street.
C. Disabled people suffering hunger. D. Teens eager for a driving license.
23. Which organization is a good choice for pet lovers?
A. Best Buddies.
B. Meals on Wheels.
C. Habitat for Humanity.
D. The Humane Society.

B

When I woke up on Aug.4, 2016, there was only one thing on my mind: what to wear. A billion thoughts raced through my brain in the closet. I didn't want to come off as trying too hard, but I also didn't want to be seen as a lazy and untidy person. Not only was it my first day of high school, but it was my first day of school in a new state. First impressions are everything, and it was important for me to impress the people who I would spend the next four years with.
This was my third time being a new kid. But this time was different because my dad promised that I would start and finish high school in the same place. This time mattered, and that made me nervous.
After meticulously searching my closet, I proudly came out in a dress from Target. The soft cotton was comfortable, and the ruffled shoulders added a bit of fun. Yes, this outfit was the one. An hour later, I felt powerful as I headed toward Room 1136. But as I entered, my jaw dropped to the floor.
Sitting at her desk was Mrs. Hutfilz, my English teacher, wearing exactly the same dress as me. I kept my head down and tiptoed to my seat. I made it through my minute introduction speech until she stood up, jokingly adding that she liked my style. Although this was the moment I had been afraid of from the moment I walked in, all my anxiety surprisingly melted away, and the students paid attention as I shared my story. My smile grew as I laughed with the students. After class, I stayed behind and talked to Mrs. Hutfilz, relieved to make a humorous and real connection.
Looking back four years later, the ten minutes I spent afraid of giving my speech were really not worth it. My first period of high school certainly made the day unforgettable in the best way and taught me that Mrs. Hutfilz had an awesome sense of style!
24. Why did the author care about her clothes on her first high school day?
A. She was picky about clothes
B. She followed her father's advice.
C. She wanted to leave a good impression.
D. She cared too much about her appearance.
25. The underlined word "meticulously" in Paragraph 3 probably means "
A. Carefully B. gradually C. regularly D. suddenly
26. How did the author feel after noticing her teacher's dress?
A. Calm. B. Uneasy. C. Proud D. Powerful.
27. Why did the author write the article?
A. To explore the tips on dressing.
B. To show her good taste in clothes.
C. To share a memorable experience.
D. To introduce her stylish English teacher

C
It's said that making friends gets harder when you get older. People settle into their existing friendships during childhood or at university. However, new research suggests that's not what happens. According to a recent survey, the age group that feels least confident in chatting to strangers is those aged 18 to 24. Similarly, it was found that 59% of Millennials (千禧一代) spend more time chatting to friends on social media than they do seeing them in person
Author and expert on friendship, Kate Leaver, said, "Young people are not confident when speaking to strangers not only because they're afraid of refusal, but also because they've really been socially conditioned not to. Previous generations had
a much stronger sense of community in public, shared spaces. We don't have as much access (接近) to that because the way we structure our modern lives means we are less in touch with our communities. Shared public spaces like parks and libraries - places where people might get close to a stranger - are being shut down."
Laura, 27, hates meeting new people. The majority of her friends are from university days. "I'm pretty chatty and open when I get to know someone, but during that first meeting, I'm very shy. I get very anxious about what to talk about, and people judging me or just not understanding my sense of humor."
But not all young people feel the same way. Hayley, 31, regularly meets people in unusual ways and makes friends with them. "I became good friends with someone who I met on the plane," she said. "It just shows how you can really connect when you're offline."
If you're comfortable with your present friendship situation, that's great. But, if you do want to enlarge your social circle, here are some tips. Avoid unpleasant silences by searching for people with common interests - join a book club or a local sports team. If it is too stressful, there are some friendship apps that you can use.Or, strike up a conversation with someone in a public place.
28. What can we get from the recent survey?
A. Seniors prefer to make friends online
B. Teens spend less time on friends than before
C. Making friends gets harder when you're older.
D. Young people build relationships with difficulty.
29. The underlined word "that" in Paragraph 2 probably refers to "
A. refusal
B. a stranger
C. the sense of community
D. the social condition
30. What problem does Laura have when socializing?
A. She fails to contact her old friends.
B. She is skilled at making new friends.
C. She prefers to make new friends online.
D. She is unwilling to get close to new people.
31. What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Developing a sense of humor.
B. Enlarging friend circles offline.
C. Joining groups with shared interests.
D. Keeping strong ties with old friends.
1.54MBA, with a national certificate

D

Last year marked the 20th anniversary of the Millennium Seed Bank (MSB).
On Nov. 20, 2000, Prince Charles opened the huge seed bank in Sussex, UK, which has now collected and stored 2. 4 billion seeds, making it the largest in the world.
"The seed bank has never played such an important role because of the planet's coming biodiversity crisis (生物多样性危机) with two-fifths of the world's plants at the risk of disappearing," said Kew Cardens, which operates the project.
Well, how does the seed bank work? Scientists from all over the world collect endangered and useful wild species, put them in a paper bag to prevent them from getting moldy (发霉的), and send them to the seed bank. Once the seeds arrive at the MSB, they're dried and kept in a room with 15 percent humidity (湿度). Next, they're cleaned using different tools and separated from debris (碎片). After that, X-rays ensure that the seeds are undamaged and that no insects are hidden inside The seeds are then frozen, stored in airtight containers and placed in huge freezers at -20℃C for long-term storage. "The low temperature allows the seeds to be kept for tens of years and reawakened when required," said Michael Way, a scientist at the MSB.
The MSB is not the only seed bank. There're over 1,000 seed banks all over the world. The Svalbard International Seed Vault opened in Feb. 2008, and now holds more than 1 million seeds. It lies deep in a frozen Arctic mountain in Longyearbyen, Norway. The special construction makes sure that it remains complete in case of any natural disasters. China also has its own Noah's Ark (诺亚方舟) , which is one of the only 2 biological germ plasm (种质) banks built based on international standards. As a huge project, it includes a seed bank, a DNA bank, a microbial (微生物的) bank and an animal germ plasm bank.
As Earth is facing huge problems like climate change, these seed banks are surely important to protect the future of the world's food supply.
32. What can be known about the Millennium Seed Bank?
A. It was organized ten years ago.
B. It selects seeds and wildlife species.
C. It was built to explore biological diversity.
D. It has more seeds than any other seed bank.
33. Why do scientists use paper bags to store endangered and useful wild species?
A. To take them as a whole.
B. To keep them wet and alive.
C. To protect them from insects.
D. To stop them from getting bad.
34. What is to be done with the seeds after they're X-rayed at the MSB?
A. Separating them from debris.
B. Cleaning them using different tools.
C. Storing them in airtight containers after they're frozen.
D. Putting them in a large room with 15 percent humidity.
35. What is the third paragraph mainly about?
A. Other seed banks in the world.
B. Different ways to protect seeds.
C. The importance of building seed banks.
D. Seed banks for species other than plants
第二节（共计小题；第小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A little kindness goes a long way. Here are four ways to include acts of kindness into your next family vacation.
※ Pack an attitude of thankfulness.
Leave impatience behind and offer thanks to those you meet along the way.From bus drivers to tour guides, encourage kids to say "thank you". 36 If you love your hotel stay or ship experience, leave a note congratulating the whole crew for a job well done.
※ Notice everything around you
Encourage kids to take note of the elderly or the disabled who might be standing in a crowded bus or hall while the young sit in chairs. Discuss how offering a seat or opening a door can be helpful. 37
※ Pack with a purpose
38 The organization Pack for a Purpose works in 60 countries to help travelers contribute to those in need. Whether you put pencils, a soccer ball or a book in your bag, you and your family will return home knowing you've helped spread kindness beyond your own backyard.
※39
Research your destination (目的地) to determine if there is a chance to combine healthy exercise with the chance to give back in your destination. Ask you hotel about chances or connect with the local tourism organization for ideas. 40 If there is a charity (慈善团体) you support or have interest in at home, give then a call to see if they can provide a phone number at your destination.
A. Do regular exercise every day.
B. Walk, run or bike for charity
C. Consider leaving a handwritten note along with your tip
D. Encourage the parents managing a noisy child to go ahead in line.
E. Teaching kids to be grateful has a positive influence on their health.
F. Search for a local animal protection organization to help homeless animals.
G. Bring necessary things that will make a difference in the lives of others on your trip.

第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题，第小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
When I wanted to get into my little daughter's room one evening,
stopped. Through the crack of the door, I saw her playing alone. In one hand was plastic 41 and in the other, a toy broom. I 42 calmly as she was speaking to her make-believe little friend and I'll never forget the words she said 43 it was Just a pretence（假装）.
She said, "Rosa is in the corner because she hasn't been very 44 and quiet lately. She didn't listen to me or do what she should. " In the corner I saw her bah.
doll. It was 45 that she'd been put there to sit 46 and think by herself My daughter went on with her " 47 ", as I sat down on the floor. She said "I'm 48 of all this. I really don't know how to 49 her any more. She cries whenever I have to work and wants to play games, too. She never 50 me to do the things I just have to. She tries to help me with the dishes, but her arms can't reach. I don't have the energy to teach. I have much work to do and a big house to keep 51 . I don't have time to sit and play -understand what I mean?"
Later, I thought about making changes in my life as I listened to her 52 words that cut me like a knife. I didn't pay enough 53 to what I care mos about. I'd been caught up in responsibilities that 54 throughout the year.
But now my_55 has greatly changed because in my heart I realize that I've seen the world in a 56 way through my daughter's eyes. So, just let the spider webs take up the corners and the dusty toy rabbit 57 the floor. Anyway, I'm not going to 58 them any more. I'm going to fill the house with 59 of a child and her mother because we're given only one childhood, and we'll _60 get another.
41. A. phone B. block C. toy D. speaker
42. A. thought B. moved C. listened D. worked
43. A. as if B. now that C. so that D. even though
44. A. careful B. good C. reliable D. serious
45. A. possible B. sensitive C. strange D. clear
46. A. somewhere B. straight C. alone D. anyhow
47. A. opinion B. conversation C. expression D. story
48. A. sure B. tired C. fond D. afraid
49. A. deal with B. care about C. turn to D. rely on
50. A. persuades B. helps C. allows D. requests
51. A. safe B. quiet C. comfortable D. tidy
52. A. simple B. foolish C. harmful D. empty
53. A. patience B. attention C. confidence D. importance
54. A. changed B. fell C. increased D. escaped
55. A. goal B. decision C. life D. attitude
56. A. different B. peaceful C. friendly D. clever
57. A. clean B. cover C. decorate D. rule
58. A. get into B. worry about C. watch over D. suffer from
59. A. memories B. games C. wishes D. promises
60. A. hardly B. ever C. never D. even
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案填写在答题卡相应的位置上。
Butterfly Conservation (蝴蝶保护) is a term, 61 describes the work of a number of different organizations worldwide that ask for help in species recovery, and public education towards the goal of 62 (protect) the endangered butterfly species in the wild. They 63 (actual) appear in many countries, including the United Kingdom and the United States.
The at-risk butterflies face a lot of different threats. These include the decrease of breeding (繁殖) or habitat as a result 64 the act of cutting down trees or natural disasters. Other factors that are threatening some varieties of butterflies include hunters, diseases and so on. Butterfly Conservation is managing _65 (decrease) the influence of these threats on special butterfly species.
In the process of butterfly conservation, the nature of recovery can be different 66 (depend) on the needs of a special population. Some zoos have been taking part in captive rearing (圈养) 67 then the wild release of certain butterfly species. For example, another type of butterfly recovery was that they 68 (release) many caterpillars (毛虫) into two United States national 69 (park) to support a wild population of Miami blue butterflies in 2014. Luckily, in some areas, personal help is being 70 (offer) by many landowners by making their houses backyard habitats for butterflies.

第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(A),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：
1,每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2,只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
When I was 14, I left school with leaning disabilities and decide to do something different in California. One morning, I was walking on the street while I met an old man. After talking for a long while, he told me that he had something show me and share with me. We walked for several blocks and then we arrived at a public library, that I was asked to sit down and wait a moment. Late, he returned happily with some old book and sat beside me. "There are two things I want to tell you," he said. "One is never to judge a book through its cover. The other is to learn how to read. Wisdom is the only thing that will never be taking away from you." He asked me don't to forget what he had taught me when we left.
第二节书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华,你的美国笔友Peter最近发邮件说他想了解你居住的地方近年来发生的变化,请用英语回复。
注意：
1.词数100左右;
2,可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
3,开头和结尾已为你写好,不计入总词数。
Dear Peter,







Yours,
Li Hua
2020-2021学年上期期末考试
高一英语参考答案
一、选择题（1-60）：
1.C 2.A 3.B 4.B 5.A 6.C 7.C 8.A 9.B 10.A 11.B 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.C 16.B 17.C 18.C 19.B 20.A 21.B 22.A 23.D 24.C 25.A 26.B 27.C 28.D 29.C 30.D 31.C 32.D 33.D 34.C 35.A 36.C 37.D 38.G 39.B 40.F41.A 42.C 43.D 44.B 45.D 46.C 47.B 48.B 49.A 50.C 51.D 52.A 53.B 54.C 55.D 56.A 57.D 58.B 59.A 60.C
二、语言知识运用第二节（61-70）：
61. which 62. protecting 63. actually 64. of 65. to decrease 66. depending 67. and 68. released 69. parks 70. offered
三、短文改错：
When I was 14, I left school with learning disabilities and decide to do something different in
71. decided
California. One morning, I was walking on the street while I met an old man. After talking for
72. when
a long while, he told me that he had something ∧show me and share with me. We walked for
73. to 74
several blocks and then we arrived at a public library, that I was asked to sit down and wait a
75. where
moment. Late, he returned happily with some old book and sat beside me. “There are two things I
76. Later 77. books
want to tell you,” he said. “One is never to judge a book through its cover. The other is to learn
78. by
how to read. Wisdom is theonly thing that will neverbe taking away from you.” He asked me
79. taken  
don’t to forget what he had taught me when we left.
80. not / never
（注：第74题，若把for改为through、by或past，亦可。）
四、书面表达：
One possible version:
Dear Peter,
I’m glad to introduce to you the great changes in my hometown you desire to know.
My hometown Zhengzhou, capital of Henan province, has changed greatly in recent years. With high-speed railways running in all directions and more subway lines under construction, the public transportation is swiftly developing, offering us easier ways to travel around. Effective steps have been taken to beautify our environment, which brings us a clearer blue sky and fresher air. You’ll see broad streets lined with tall trees and beautiful flowers, and people of different ages bathed in the sunshine in the newly-built parks. Our life here is more attractive, peaceful and comfortable.
Welcome to my hometown, a fast-developing city!
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
评卷细则
一、机器阅卷部分（共100分）
听力：1-20题，共20小题，每小题1.5分，共计30分。
阅读理解：21-40题，共20小题，每小题2分，共计40分。
完形填空：41-60题，共20小题，每小题1.5分，共计30分。
二、人工阅卷部分（共50分）
（一）语言知识运用第二节（语法填空）
61-70题，共10小题，每小题1.5分，共计15分。
1．单词拼写正确、形式正确，每小题给1.5分。
2．英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
3．若只写出单词的原形，但形式不正确，不给分。
4．若单词的大、小写字母出错，不给分。
5．若书写较差以致影响评判，不给分。
6．若不在指定答题位置答题，不给分。
7．若用铅笔答题，不给分。
（二）短文改错
本题共10个小题，每小题1分，共计10分。
1．每找准一处错误，改错符号正确、答案正确、且答案写在指定的位置，给1分，不能出现给半分的现象。只允许修改10处错误，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
2．若找准错误，改错符号正确，但答案不正确，不给分。
3．每处错误及其修改均仅限一词，若与此不符，不给分。
4．若找准错误，答案正确，但改错符号不正确，或没有改错符号，或答案未写在指定的位置，不给分。
5．若单词的大、小写字母出错，不给分。
6．若一处错误用两种改错符号，不给分。
7．用文字表述答案，或不用指定符号改错，不给分。
8．凡与该题参考答案不符者，不给分。
9．用铅笔答题，不给分。
注意：
1．给分前，先确定考生改正的错误个数。若多于10处，只评前10处，从第11处起，无论考生答对与否，均不给分。
2．若考生未找够10个错误，按其改正的正确处的个数给分。
3．若考生修改的错误顺序与答案不符，但改错的数量在10个以内，按其改正的正确处的个数给分。
4．修改作答内容时，需要消除（或划掉）改错标示符号和作答内容，否则按照已经作答处理。
（三）书面表达
1．评分原则
（1）本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
（2）评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
（3）词数少于80和多于120的，酌情扣分。
（4）评分时，应关注三个方面：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
（5）拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（6）书写较差，以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
（7）如果时态出错较多，从得分中扣除3-5分。
（8）用铅笔答题，不给分。
2．各档次的给分范围和要求
（1）第五档：21—25分。
完全达到了试题规定的任务，完全达到了预期的写作目的。
●覆盖所有内容要点。
●应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
●语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂的结构或较高级词汇所致。
●具备较强的语言应用能力。
●有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
（2）第四档：16—20分。
完全达到了试题规定的任务，达到了预期的写作目的。
●虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
●语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。
●应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
（3）第三档：11—15分。
基本完成了试题规定的任务，整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
●虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
●有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
●应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
（4）第二档：6—10分。
未恰当完成试题规定的任务，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
●漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关的内容。
●语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
●有一些语法结构方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
●较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
（5）第一档：1—5分。
未完成试题规定的任务，信息未能传达给读者。
●明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
●语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
●有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
●缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
（6）0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求的内容无关或所写内容无法看清。