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2022年广东省江门开平市中考二模英语试题（无听力）
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这是一份2022年广东省江门开平市中考二模英语试题（无听力），共11页。试卷主要包含了 考生务必保持答题卡整洁等内容，欢迎下载使用。
说明: 1. 本试卷共10页, 满分120分, 考试时间90分钟。
2. 答卷前, 考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔在答题卡填写自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号、考生号等, 用2B铅笔把对应号码的标号涂黑。
3. 选择题每小题选出答案后, 用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑，如需改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案, 答案不能答在试题上。
4. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答, 答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动, 先划掉原来的答案, 然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液, 不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
5. 考生务必保持答题卡整洁。考试结束时, 将答题卡交回。
一、听力理解（本大题包括A、B、C、D四个部分, 共30分。）
A、听单句话（本题有5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分）
根据所听到的话和卷面的问题, 选择符合题意的图画回答问题, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每小题听一遍。
1. Which fruit des Anna prefer?
A. B. C.
2. Wh is Linda’s aunt?
A. B. C.
3. Why des Kate need t see a dctr?
A. B. C.
4. Where did Charles g last weekend?
A. B. C.
5. Hw did Jhn g t schl this mrning?
A. B. C.
B、听对话（本题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
回答每段对话后面的问题, 在每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话, 回答第6小题。
6. Where did Jim g fr his hliday?
A. Shanghai. B. Beijing. C. Guangzhu.
听第二段对话, 回答第7小题。
7. Hw des the girl knw abut the weather?
A. Thrugh the radi. B. Thrugh TV. C. Thrugh the cmputer.
听第三段对话, 回答第8小题。
8. What des Nancy’s father d?
A. A dctr. B. A teacher. C. A pliceman
听第四段对话, 回答第9小题。
9. Why did Terry miss the train?
A. Because he gt up late. B. Because his car brke dwn. C. Because the traffic was heavy.
听第五段对话, 回答第10小题。
10. Hw much shuld the wman pay?
A. 20 yuan. B. 40 yuan. C. 80 yuan.
听第六段对话, 回答第11-12小题。
11. Wh is Mike ging t the science museum with?
A. Bb. B. Mary. C. Fred.
12. What will Eric d fr his grandma?
A. Clean the huse. B. Wash the dishes. C. Ck delicius fd.
听第七段对话, 回答第13-15小题。
13. When was the ftball match held?
A. Last Tuesday. B. Last Thursday. C. Last Saturday.
14. Why did Lucy miss the match?
A. She was sick. B. She was tired. C. She was having a test.
15. Which class wn the match?
A. Class 5. B. Class 3. C. Class 2.
C、听独白（本题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
根据所听内容, 在每小题所给的三个选项中, 选出一个能完成句子的最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段独白听两遍。
听第一段独白, 回答第16-20小题。
16. Tny and his family are ging t take a lng hliday in the________.
A. winter vacatin B. Christmas vacatin C. summer vacatin
17. Tny’s brther wrks________.
A. in a schl B. in a hspital C. in a cmpany
18. Tny’s sister plans t________.
A. g t Paris B. g t wrk C. stay at hme
19. ________ are planning t g hiking in the muntains.
A. Tny and his sister B. Tny’s parents C. Tny’s brther and sister
20. Tny has t stay at hme________ then t India in July.
A. fr a week B. the first mnth C. fr tw weeks
听第二段独白, 回答第21-25小题。
21. The speaker is mainly talking abut________.
A. sprts plans B. utdr sprts C. indr activities
22. ________ aren’t mentined in the passage.
A. Sprts suits B. Shrts C. Glves
23. Each persn needs________ pair（s）f sprts shes.
A. ne B. tw C. three
24. The lunch time lasts________.
A. 1 hur B. 1. 5 hurs C. 2 hurs
25. Peple can buy snacks________.
A. in the sprts building B. in the dining rm C. in a shpping center
D、听填信息（本题有5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分）
你将听到的是一段给外国志愿者的语音留言。请你根据所听内客填写下面的信息卡, 并将答案写在答题卡相应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
二、语法选择（本大题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
通读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 然后按照句子结构的语法和上下文连贯的要求, 从每题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
One day, a teacher walked int the classrm with a glass f water in her hand.
She asked her students, “Can yu guess 31 heavy this glass f water is?” The students shuted ut all kinds f answers, 32 eight unces（盎司）t ne kil.
Then, the teacher replied, “In my pinin, the weight 33 n hw lng I hld it. If I hld the glass f water fr a minute r tw, it’s 34 . If I hld it fr 35 hur, my arm may ache（疼痛）a little. If I hld it fr a day, my arm will ache s much that it will feel cmpletely numb（麻木）, making me 36 the glass t the flr. As yu can see, the weight f the glass f water 37 changes. But the lnger I hld it, the heavier it feels t me.”
As the students agreed with 38 teacher, the teacher cntinued, “Yur stresses（压力） and wrries in life are very much like this glass f water. If yu carry them fr a shrt time, nthing will happen. If they 39 a little lnger and yu may begin t ache. If yu carry them all the time, yu wn’t be able t d anything else 40 yu drp them. S, everyne, learn t let g f yur stresses and wrries.”
31. A what B. why C. hw D. when
32. A. fr B. with C. in D. frm
33. A. depend B. depends C. depended D. will depend
34. A. heavy B. heavily C. light D. lightly
35. A. a B. an C. the D. /
36. A. drpping B. drpped C. t drp D. drp
37. A. never B. always C. ften D. smetimes
38. A. them B. themselves C. their D. theirs
39. A. carry B. are carried C. carried D. were carried
40. A. until B. s C. after D. when
三、完形填空（本大题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
通读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 然后在每小题所给的四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A by was ut playing in a field with his friends. As they were playing, the by 41 a stne that lked interesting. It was a little bit shining. But it was still quite 42 . The by picked it up and decided t plish（擦亮）it.
His friends made 43 f him fr this. They said, “Why are yu plishing that dirty ld stne? It isn’t wrth anything at all.” But every day, 44 they went ut t play, the by wuld bring the stne with him, plishing it whenever they rested.
This 45 fr sme time. Then ne day, the by 46 his hme t jin his friends as usual.
When he shwed them the stne, they were 47 . It was, in fact, nt a cmmn stne after all--it was a beautiful diamnd（钻石）. The by had stayed up all night the night befre, plishing it until it was 48 clean.
There may be times in yur life where peple try t discurage（阻碍）yu. They may tell yu that yu’re wasting yur time n sme meaningless 49 . But when they d this, the best thing yu can d is let it be and 50 t wrk twards yur gal. Yu can turn a stne int a diamnd if yu keep wrking.
41. A. came acrss B. came n C. came dwn D. came frm
42. A. different B. small C. valuable D. dirty.
43. A. faces B. fun C. advice D. friends
44. A. if B. because C. when D. unless
45. A. went ver B. went away C. went by D. went n
46. A. left B. returned C. finished D. develped
47. A. bred B. interested C. excited D. surprised
48. A. especially B. cmpletely C. certainly D. directly
49. A. tasks B. stries C. facts D. decisins
50. A. prmise B. refuse C. cntinue D. explain
四、阅读理解（本大题有15小题, 每小题2分, 共30分）
阅读A、B两篇短文, 从每小题所给的四个选项中, 选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
51. Chinese Zhusuan has a histry f__________ years.
A. 600 B. 1, 800 C. 2, 100 D. 2, 493
52. Accrding t the passage, the newest intangible cultural heritages f humanity is_______.
A. Fanjing Muntain B. Tai Chi C. the Twenty-fur Slar Terms D. Chinese Zhusuan
53. Which f the fllwing is True accrding t the passage?
A. Mre and mre yung peple want t practice Tai Chi.
B. Liu Hng was the first persn t invent Zhusuan.
C. Fanjing Muntain is ppular amng the visitrs.
D. The Twenty-fur Slar Terms was created t predict（预测）the climate.
54. The writer’s purpse f the passage is_________.
A. t ask peple t visit Fanjing Muntain
B. t advise peple t use abacus in their life
C. t intrduce fur intangible cultural heritages f humanity
D. t let peple knw mre abut the Twenty-fur Slar Terms
55. In which part f the newspaper can we read the passage?
A. Music. B. Sprts. C. Science. D. Culture.
B
Everyne knws that climate（气候）has changed a lt in recent years. And it is becming a serius prblem, we have a lt f wrk t d in rder t prevent（防止）it. One f the best ways is t plant mre trees. Trees can take in CO2 in the air and prevent glbal（全球）warming.
Accrding t a new reprt, China and India are ding a great jb in “greening” the wrld.
Chi Chen, a student at Bstn University, has been wrking with NASA t check the Earth’s green vegetatin（植被）. He and ther researchers use a NASA camera t see hw many new trees have grwn.
“China and India have greatly increased their frest area. They help with ne third f the Earth’s increased greening, especially China make the mst effrt.” Chi said.
Accrding t CNN, China was respnsible（负责的）fr 25 percent f the wrld’s increased green vegetatin frm 2000 t 2017. That’s abut ne quarter f the size f the Amazn rainfrest. China’s achievement depended n its wnderful frest prtectin prgrams. They were created t fight against sil ersin（水土流失）and air pllutin, accrding t NASA.
Fr example, since 1962, China has been planting trees in Saihanba in Hebei Prvince, cvering an area f 92, 000 hectares（公顷）. The sil there was nce very pr. After settling many prblems, experts（专家）have turned the area int China’s largest man-made frest.
Anther example is the Mu Us Desert（毛乌素沙漠）in Shanxi, ne f fur majr sand lands in China. It was nce knwn fr its sandstrms. But nw, ne quarter f the desert has been turned int the frest, Guangming Daily reprted.
56. __________ is a gd way t prevent glbal warming.
A. Planting mre trees B. Checking the Earth’s vegetatin
C. Prducing mre CO2 D. Fighting against sil ersin
57. des the greatest jb in “greening” the wrld accrding t the passage.
A. NASA B. CNN C. India D. China
58. The Chinese meaning f the underlined wrd settling in Paragraph 6 is________.
A. 认识 B. 解决 C. 研究 D. 发现
59. Which f the fllwing is True accrding t the passage?
A. China has the mst frest area in the wrld.
B. Saihanba is ne f fur majr sand lands in China.
C. China des a gd jb in fighting against sil ersin.
D. One quarter f the wrld’s deserts have turned int the frest.
60. The best title f this passage is __________.
A. China’s Deserts B. A Greener Earth
C. Chi Chen, a Famus Researcher D. Frests in the Wrld
C
配对阅读。左栏是五个人性格特征的信息, 右栏是七则交友建议, 请为这五个人选择适合他们的交友建议, 并将答题卡上对应题自所选的选项涂黑。
五、短文填空（本大题有10小题, 每小题1. 5分, 共15分）
请用适当的词完成下面的短文, 每个空只能填写一个形式正确、意义相符的单词, 并将答案写在答题卡相应题目的答题位置上。
In a late afternn after wrk, I was riding my bike hme as usual. Suddenly I nticed a persn wh was als 66 , abut 250 meters in frnt f me. I decided t try t catch up 67 him. I still had abut a kilmeter t g n the rad befre I had t turn ff. I said t 68 “I can make it.”
I started riding my bike faster and faster. After a 69 minutes, I was nly abut 100 meters behind him. I felt s excited and cntinued picking up speed, trying my best. 70 , I passed him. I really made it. At that mment, I felt s gd in my heart.
In fact, 71 I managed t beat him, he didn’t even knw we were racing. And after I passed him, I 72 that I had missed my turn. I had t turn arund and g all the way back.
Isn’t that what ften happens in ur life when we race with thers, trying t shw that we are mre successful? We 73 ur time running after them and we miss ut n ur wn rads at last.
The prblem is that unhealthy cmpetitin is never-ending. There will always be smebdy 74 than yu in ne way r anther. What yu shuld d is just run yur wn race and wish thers well.
Wherever yu g, n matter 75 the weather is like, always bring yur wn sunshine.
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分, 共25分）
A. 回答问题（本题有5小题, 每小题2分, 共10分）
请阅读下而这篇文章, 根据所提供的信息, 回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整, 并将答案写在答题卡相应题目的答题位置上。
The first “Finding the Mst Beautiful Filial Piety Yuth（孝心少年）” was held by CCTV-1 n Nvember 8, 2013. Many peple were deeply mved by the children’s stries and culdn’t help crying when hearing abut them. Althugh these children were very yung, they did many great things.
There is a stry abut a girl named Huang Feng. She had a happy family at first. Unluckily, her father fell ff the building when he was wrking. His spine（脊骨）was hurt and he culd nt mve any mre. Her mther left the pr family at last. T see a dctr, Huang Feng pushed the plate（平板车）t Shanghai with nly 27 yuan. But the dctrs had n ways t help her father. Huang Feng was really sad and they had t return hme. Frm this year, the 6-year-ld lvely girl began t lk after her father by herself. At the same time, Huang Feng must study every day. S, after washing clthes and cking meals, she went t schl quickly. She felt very tired, but she did nt give up.
Frm the children’s stries, we knw they are ur heres and we shuld learn frm them. We shuld help ur parents d mre husewrk at hme, such as cleaning the rm, sweeping the flr and s n. And we can nt make ur parents angry.
76. Why culdn’t Huang’s father mve any mre?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
77. Where did Huang take her father t see a dctr?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
78. Hw did Huang feel when the dctrs had n ways t help her father?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
79. When did Huang begin t lk after her father by herself?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
80. What did Huang d befre she went t schl every day?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达（本题15分）
请根据要求完成短文写作。
百善孝为先。假设你是Angel, 你觉得父母为自己付出了很多, 想给自己的父母写一封感谢信。
内容包括:
1. 他们对你的好, 你对他们的评价；
2. 描述父母帮助你成长的一件事, 以及这件事对你的影响；
3. 表达你对他们的感谢和祝福。
作文要求:
1. 不能照抄原文: 不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称和考生的真实姓名。
2. 语句连贯, 词数80左右。作文的开头和结尾已经给出, 不计入总词数。
Dear Dad & Mm,
I’m glad t write t yu. _____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Angel
开平市2021年第二次中考调研测试
九年级英语科参考答案
一、听力理解（本大题包括A、B、C、D四个部分，共30分）
1—5 AABCB 6—10 BCACB 11—15 CABAB
16—20 CBABA 21—25 ACBBC
26. 104 27. train 28. simple 29. language 30. Teach English
二、语法选择（本大题有10 小题，每小题1分，共10分）
31—35 CDBCB 36—40 DACBA
三、完形填空（本大题10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
41—45 ADBCD 46—50 ADBAC
四、阅读理解（本大题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
51—55 BACCD 56—60 ADBCB 61—65 BCFGA
五、短文填空 (本大题有10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分)
66. riding 67. with 68. myself 69. few 70. Finally
71. althugh/thugh 72. fund /recgnized 73. spend 74. better 75. what
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分， 共25分）
A. 回答问题。（本题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
76. Because her father’s spine was hurt.
77. Huang tk her father t Shanghai t see a dctr.
78. Huang felt very sad.
79. At the age f 6/when she was 6 years ld .
80. Huang washed clthes and cked meals befre she went t schl every day .
B.书面表达（本题15分）（答案仅供参考）
Dear Dad & Mm,
I'm glad t write t yu. Yu are always patient with me and care abut me. I have t say yu are the best parents in the wrld.
I remember when I was in Grade 8, I hated study and made much truble at schl. Then ne day, yu had a lng talk with me and let me knw the imprtance f study. Yu even spent mst f yur free time helping me with my study. Nw, I really enjy my schl life.
I'd like t say thank yu and I hpe yu will be happy and healthy frever. (93 wrds)
Yurs,
Angel
2021年第二次中考调研测试评分板设置说明（英语科）
第一题组（6人）：听填信息，共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分。每小题评分板设置为0－0.5－1。
（30小题English首字母必须大写，teach不分大小写。）
第二题组（7人）：短文填空，共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分。每小题评分板设置为0－0.5—1—1.5。（所填的词不符合短文的逻辑不给分，单词拼写错误不给分，大小写或形式错误每个扣0.5分。）
第三题组（7人）：回答问题，共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分。每小题评分板设置为0—0.5—1…2。
(无论是完整的句子回答还是简答，只要信息点正确完整，就给满分；信息点有错，则按标准扣分。)
第四题组（72人）：书面表达，共1题，满分15分。要求双评，成绩取两评的平均值。评分板分为两栏(请按以下格式设置评分板)。
书面表达给分总原则：考生的单词错误、句子语法错误等如果影响意思表达可在对应栏目中直接扣分。
评分细则补充：
1.按照以上两栏给分，不符合信息点的不给分。
2.如照抄原文并且符合该信息点内容，给1分，（如内容有所改动，就不算抄袭）。
3.抄袭的内容如果字迹工整，卷面整洁，可以在第二栏给1分。
4.如照抄与写作无关的文章，如完型填空和阅读，给0分。
5.如在文中透露了真实姓名或学校的真实名称，则扣1分；词数低于50词，扣1分；书写影响阅卷或理解，扣1分。超出字数，不扣分。
A Vlunteer Prgram
Where t g: A village, （26）________ kilmeters frm the city center.
Hw t get there: By high-speed（27）________and bus.
Where t stay: At the vlunteer center with shared rms.
What t cat: Three（28）________ Chinese meals a day.
What t d: Take a（29）________ lessn n Mnday,
（30）________ and art at a primary schl frm Tuesday t Friday, Tur arund the village at the weekend.
China has a lt f intangible cultural heritages f humanity（人类非物质文化遗产）. In recent years, a number f them have been well-knwn arund the wrld. Here are fur f them.
Chinese Zhusuan（2013）
Zhusuan was imprved by Liu Hng. With a lng histry f 1, 800 years, it is cnsidered as the wrld’s ldest cmputer. Hwever, it is different frm the mdern cmputer. It uses a abacus（算盘）.
It is a symbl f the wisdm f the Chinese peple. But as the wrld develps S fast, it has lst its rle in the 21st century.
The Twenty-fur Slar Terms（节气）（2016）
It is called the fifth great inventin f China. It was created by ancient Chinese peple abut 2, 100 years ag.
It shws the relatinships between the climate（气候）and agriculture（农业）. And it plays an imprtant rle in Chinese agricultural prductin and daily life.
Tai Chi（2017）
Tai Chi is a kind f Wushu. It has been practiced in China fr abut 600 years. It mixes slw mvements and deep breath. Tai Chi is ppular with the ld peple in China, but few yung peple wuld like t pass it n. S the gvernment is trying t encurage mre yung peple t d Tai Chi.
Fanjing Muntain （2018）
Fanjing Muntain is in the nrtheast f Guizhu Prvince. It is the main muntain f Wuling Muntain and it is 2,493 meters high. Fanjing Muntain is full f green frests and many kinds f rare animals. S, a lt f peple cme here t enjy the beautiful sights and fresh air every year.
61. When Peter feels uncmfrtable talking with smene, he ften lks here and there.
62. Sara likes t make friends with ppular peple, because she finds it easier t cmmunicate with them.
63. When Jane is happy, she likes t talk t everyne in her class. But when she feels sad, she desn’t even say “hi” t anyne.
64. Susan is a gd student, but she is never sure what t talk abut when she stays with thers.
65. Paul is pr in his study, and he always feels shy t talk with thers, s he has very few friends.
A. Be cnfident in yurself. Everyne has its gd qualities. Peple wh have self-cnfidence arc mre attractive.
B. It is nt plite t lk arund when talking with peple. Try t lk peple in the eye even yu’ re nt interested in the cnversatin. Then peple will find it easier t talk t yu.
C. Try t make friends with all kinds f peple, nt just with thse wh are easy t cmmunicate. Then yu will find there are greater chances fr making friends.
D. Once yu get t knw a persn, find mre chances t meet. Fr example, yu can play sccer tgether r have a shrt travel. Then yu can get n well with each ther.
E. Try t help thers. Fr instance, lk after peple wh are ill r help peple take care f their pets. Be kind t thers and yu will be treated kindly.
F. Other will think yu are strange if yu are friendly ne day and dn’t talk the next day. Learn t share yur feelings with thers. Share yur sadness with yur friends, and yu will be happy again.
G. Care abut what’s happening in the wrld. Read mre newspapers, listen t the tp CDs, and find ut smething abut new sprts r mvie stars. Then talk abut things that a persn may be interested in.
内容要点（10分）
0-1－2……10
整体情况（5分）
0-1……5（行文逻辑和连贯等3分，卷面和字数各1分。）
说明: 1. 本试卷共10页, 满分120分, 考试时间90分钟。
2. 答卷前, 考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔在答题卡填写自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号、考生号等, 用2B铅笔把对应号码的标号涂黑。
3. 选择题每小题选出答案后, 用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑，如需改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案, 答案不能答在试题上。
4. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答, 答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动, 先划掉原来的答案, 然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液, 不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
5. 考生务必保持答题卡整洁。考试结束时, 将答题卡交回。
一、听力理解（本大题包括A、B、C、D四个部分, 共30分。）
A、听单句话（本题有5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分）
根据所听到的话和卷面的问题, 选择符合题意的图画回答问题, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每小题听一遍。
1. Which fruit des Anna prefer?
A. B. C.
2. Wh is Linda’s aunt?
A. B. C.
3. Why des Kate need t see a dctr?
A. B. C.
4. Where did Charles g last weekend?
A. B. C.
5. Hw did Jhn g t schl this mrning?
A. B. C.
B、听对话（本题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
回答每段对话后面的问题, 在每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话, 回答第6小题。
6. Where did Jim g fr his hliday?
A. Shanghai. B. Beijing. C. Guangzhu.
听第二段对话, 回答第7小题。
7. Hw des the girl knw abut the weather?
A. Thrugh the radi. B. Thrugh TV. C. Thrugh the cmputer.
听第三段对话, 回答第8小题。
8. What des Nancy’s father d?
A. A dctr. B. A teacher. C. A pliceman
听第四段对话, 回答第9小题。
9. Why did Terry miss the train?
A. Because he gt up late. B. Because his car brke dwn. C. Because the traffic was heavy.
听第五段对话, 回答第10小题。
10. Hw much shuld the wman pay?
A. 20 yuan. B. 40 yuan. C. 80 yuan.
听第六段对话, 回答第11-12小题。
11. Wh is Mike ging t the science museum with?
A. Bb. B. Mary. C. Fred.
12. What will Eric d fr his grandma?
A. Clean the huse. B. Wash the dishes. C. Ck delicius fd.
听第七段对话, 回答第13-15小题。
13. When was the ftball match held?
A. Last Tuesday. B. Last Thursday. C. Last Saturday.
14. Why did Lucy miss the match?
A. She was sick. B. She was tired. C. She was having a test.
15. Which class wn the match?
A. Class 5. B. Class 3. C. Class 2.
C、听独白（本题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
根据所听内容, 在每小题所给的三个选项中, 选出一个能完成句子的最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段独白听两遍。
听第一段独白, 回答第16-20小题。
16. Tny and his family are ging t take a lng hliday in the________.
A. winter vacatin B. Christmas vacatin C. summer vacatin
17. Tny’s brther wrks________.
A. in a schl B. in a hspital C. in a cmpany
18. Tny’s sister plans t________.
A. g t Paris B. g t wrk C. stay at hme
19. ________ are planning t g hiking in the muntains.
A. Tny and his sister B. Tny’s parents C. Tny’s brther and sister
20. Tny has t stay at hme________ then t India in July.
A. fr a week B. the first mnth C. fr tw weeks
听第二段独白, 回答第21-25小题。
21. The speaker is mainly talking abut________.
A. sprts plans B. utdr sprts C. indr activities
22. ________ aren’t mentined in the passage.
A. Sprts suits B. Shrts C. Glves
23. Each persn needs________ pair（s）f sprts shes.
A. ne B. tw C. three
24. The lunch time lasts________.
A. 1 hur B. 1. 5 hurs C. 2 hurs
25. Peple can buy snacks________.
A. in the sprts building B. in the dining rm C. in a shpping center
D、听填信息（本题有5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分）
你将听到的是一段给外国志愿者的语音留言。请你根据所听内客填写下面的信息卡, 并将答案写在答题卡相应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
二、语法选择（本大题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
通读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 然后按照句子结构的语法和上下文连贯的要求, 从每题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
One day, a teacher walked int the classrm with a glass f water in her hand.
She asked her students, “Can yu guess 31 heavy this glass f water is?” The students shuted ut all kinds f answers, 32 eight unces（盎司）t ne kil.
Then, the teacher replied, “In my pinin, the weight 33 n hw lng I hld it. If I hld the glass f water fr a minute r tw, it’s 34 . If I hld it fr 35 hur, my arm may ache（疼痛）a little. If I hld it fr a day, my arm will ache s much that it will feel cmpletely numb（麻木）, making me 36 the glass t the flr. As yu can see, the weight f the glass f water 37 changes. But the lnger I hld it, the heavier it feels t me.”
As the students agreed with 38 teacher, the teacher cntinued, “Yur stresses（压力） and wrries in life are very much like this glass f water. If yu carry them fr a shrt time, nthing will happen. If they 39 a little lnger and yu may begin t ache. If yu carry them all the time, yu wn’t be able t d anything else 40 yu drp them. S, everyne, learn t let g f yur stresses and wrries.”
31. A what B. why C. hw D. when
32. A. fr B. with C. in D. frm
33. A. depend B. depends C. depended D. will depend
34. A. heavy B. heavily C. light D. lightly
35. A. a B. an C. the D. /
36. A. drpping B. drpped C. t drp D. drp
37. A. never B. always C. ften D. smetimes
38. A. them B. themselves C. their D. theirs
39. A. carry B. are carried C. carried D. were carried
40. A. until B. s C. after D. when
三、完形填空（本大题有10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
通读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 然后在每小题所给的四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A by was ut playing in a field with his friends. As they were playing, the by 41 a stne that lked interesting. It was a little bit shining. But it was still quite 42 . The by picked it up and decided t plish（擦亮）it.
His friends made 43 f him fr this. They said, “Why are yu plishing that dirty ld stne? It isn’t wrth anything at all.” But every day, 44 they went ut t play, the by wuld bring the stne with him, plishing it whenever they rested.
This 45 fr sme time. Then ne day, the by 46 his hme t jin his friends as usual.
When he shwed them the stne, they were 47 . It was, in fact, nt a cmmn stne after all--it was a beautiful diamnd（钻石）. The by had stayed up all night the night befre, plishing it until it was 48 clean.
There may be times in yur life where peple try t discurage（阻碍）yu. They may tell yu that yu’re wasting yur time n sme meaningless 49 . But when they d this, the best thing yu can d is let it be and 50 t wrk twards yur gal. Yu can turn a stne int a diamnd if yu keep wrking.
41. A. came acrss B. came n C. came dwn D. came frm
42. A. different B. small C. valuable D. dirty.
43. A. faces B. fun C. advice D. friends
44. A. if B. because C. when D. unless
45. A. went ver B. went away C. went by D. went n
46. A. left B. returned C. finished D. develped
47. A. bred B. interested C. excited D. surprised
48. A. especially B. cmpletely C. certainly D. directly
49. A. tasks B. stries C. facts D. decisins
50. A. prmise B. refuse C. cntinue D. explain
四、阅读理解（本大题有15小题, 每小题2分, 共30分）
阅读A、B两篇短文, 从每小题所给的四个选项中, 选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
51. Chinese Zhusuan has a histry f__________ years.
A. 600 B. 1, 800 C. 2, 100 D. 2, 493
52. Accrding t the passage, the newest intangible cultural heritages f humanity is_______.
A. Fanjing Muntain B. Tai Chi C. the Twenty-fur Slar Terms D. Chinese Zhusuan
53. Which f the fllwing is True accrding t the passage?
A. Mre and mre yung peple want t practice Tai Chi.
B. Liu Hng was the first persn t invent Zhusuan.
C. Fanjing Muntain is ppular amng the visitrs.
D. The Twenty-fur Slar Terms was created t predict（预测）the climate.
54. The writer’s purpse f the passage is_________.
A. t ask peple t visit Fanjing Muntain
B. t advise peple t use abacus in their life
C. t intrduce fur intangible cultural heritages f humanity
D. t let peple knw mre abut the Twenty-fur Slar Terms
55. In which part f the newspaper can we read the passage?
A. Music. B. Sprts. C. Science. D. Culture.
B
Everyne knws that climate（气候）has changed a lt in recent years. And it is becming a serius prblem, we have a lt f wrk t d in rder t prevent（防止）it. One f the best ways is t plant mre trees. Trees can take in CO2 in the air and prevent glbal（全球）warming.
Accrding t a new reprt, China and India are ding a great jb in “greening” the wrld.
Chi Chen, a student at Bstn University, has been wrking with NASA t check the Earth’s green vegetatin（植被）. He and ther researchers use a NASA camera t see hw many new trees have grwn.
“China and India have greatly increased their frest area. They help with ne third f the Earth’s increased greening, especially China make the mst effrt.” Chi said.
Accrding t CNN, China was respnsible（负责的）fr 25 percent f the wrld’s increased green vegetatin frm 2000 t 2017. That’s abut ne quarter f the size f the Amazn rainfrest. China’s achievement depended n its wnderful frest prtectin prgrams. They were created t fight against sil ersin（水土流失）and air pllutin, accrding t NASA.
Fr example, since 1962, China has been planting trees in Saihanba in Hebei Prvince, cvering an area f 92, 000 hectares（公顷）. The sil there was nce very pr. After settling many prblems, experts（专家）have turned the area int China’s largest man-made frest.
Anther example is the Mu Us Desert（毛乌素沙漠）in Shanxi, ne f fur majr sand lands in China. It was nce knwn fr its sandstrms. But nw, ne quarter f the desert has been turned int the frest, Guangming Daily reprted.
56. __________ is a gd way t prevent glbal warming.
A. Planting mre trees B. Checking the Earth’s vegetatin
C. Prducing mre CO2 D. Fighting against sil ersin
57. des the greatest jb in “greening” the wrld accrding t the passage.
A. NASA B. CNN C. India D. China
58. The Chinese meaning f the underlined wrd settling in Paragraph 6 is________.
A. 认识 B. 解决 C. 研究 D. 发现
59. Which f the fllwing is True accrding t the passage?
A. China has the mst frest area in the wrld.
B. Saihanba is ne f fur majr sand lands in China.
C. China des a gd jb in fighting against sil ersin.
D. One quarter f the wrld’s deserts have turned int the frest.
60. The best title f this passage is __________.
A. China’s Deserts B. A Greener Earth
C. Chi Chen, a Famus Researcher D. Frests in the Wrld
C
配对阅读。左栏是五个人性格特征的信息, 右栏是七则交友建议, 请为这五个人选择适合他们的交友建议, 并将答题卡上对应题自所选的选项涂黑。
五、短文填空（本大题有10小题, 每小题1. 5分, 共15分）
请用适当的词完成下面的短文, 每个空只能填写一个形式正确、意义相符的单词, 并将答案写在答题卡相应题目的答题位置上。
In a late afternn after wrk, I was riding my bike hme as usual. Suddenly I nticed a persn wh was als 66 , abut 250 meters in frnt f me. I decided t try t catch up 67 him. I still had abut a kilmeter t g n the rad befre I had t turn ff. I said t 68 “I can make it.”
I started riding my bike faster and faster. After a 69 minutes, I was nly abut 100 meters behind him. I felt s excited and cntinued picking up speed, trying my best. 70 , I passed him. I really made it. At that mment, I felt s gd in my heart.
In fact, 71 I managed t beat him, he didn’t even knw we were racing. And after I passed him, I 72 that I had missed my turn. I had t turn arund and g all the way back.
Isn’t that what ften happens in ur life when we race with thers, trying t shw that we are mre successful? We 73 ur time running after them and we miss ut n ur wn rads at last.
The prblem is that unhealthy cmpetitin is never-ending. There will always be smebdy 74 than yu in ne way r anther. What yu shuld d is just run yur wn race and wish thers well.
Wherever yu g, n matter 75 the weather is like, always bring yur wn sunshine.
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分, 共25分）
A. 回答问题（本题有5小题, 每小题2分, 共10分）
请阅读下而这篇文章, 根据所提供的信息, 回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整, 并将答案写在答题卡相应题目的答题位置上。
The first “Finding the Mst Beautiful Filial Piety Yuth（孝心少年）” was held by CCTV-1 n Nvember 8, 2013. Many peple were deeply mved by the children’s stries and culdn’t help crying when hearing abut them. Althugh these children were very yung, they did many great things.
There is a stry abut a girl named Huang Feng. She had a happy family at first. Unluckily, her father fell ff the building when he was wrking. His spine（脊骨）was hurt and he culd nt mve any mre. Her mther left the pr family at last. T see a dctr, Huang Feng pushed the plate（平板车）t Shanghai with nly 27 yuan. But the dctrs had n ways t help her father. Huang Feng was really sad and they had t return hme. Frm this year, the 6-year-ld lvely girl began t lk after her father by herself. At the same time, Huang Feng must study every day. S, after washing clthes and cking meals, she went t schl quickly. She felt very tired, but she did nt give up.
Frm the children’s stries, we knw they are ur heres and we shuld learn frm them. We shuld help ur parents d mre husewrk at hme, such as cleaning the rm, sweeping the flr and s n. And we can nt make ur parents angry.
76. Why culdn’t Huang’s father mve any mre?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
77. Where did Huang take her father t see a dctr?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
78. Hw did Huang feel when the dctrs had n ways t help her father?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
79. When did Huang begin t lk after her father by herself?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
80. What did Huang d befre she went t schl every day?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达（本题15分）
请根据要求完成短文写作。
百善孝为先。假设你是Angel, 你觉得父母为自己付出了很多, 想给自己的父母写一封感谢信。
内容包括:
1. 他们对你的好, 你对他们的评价；
2. 描述父母帮助你成长的一件事, 以及这件事对你的影响；
3. 表达你对他们的感谢和祝福。
作文要求:
1. 不能照抄原文: 不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称和考生的真实姓名。
2. 语句连贯, 词数80左右。作文的开头和结尾已经给出, 不计入总词数。
Dear Dad & Mm,
I’m glad t write t yu. _____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Angel
开平市2021年第二次中考调研测试
九年级英语科参考答案
一、听力理解（本大题包括A、B、C、D四个部分，共30分）
1—5 AABCB 6—10 BCACB 11—15 CABAB
16—20 CBABA 21—25 ACBBC
26. 104 27. train 28. simple 29. language 30. Teach English
二、语法选择（本大题有10 小题，每小题1分，共10分）
31—35 CDBCB 36—40 DACBA
三、完形填空（本大题10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
41—45 ADBCD 46—50 ADBAC
四、阅读理解（本大题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
51—55 BACCD 56—60 ADBCB 61—65 BCFGA
五、短文填空 (本大题有10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分)
66. riding 67. with 68. myself 69. few 70. Finally
71. althugh/thugh 72. fund /recgnized 73. spend 74. better 75. what
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分， 共25分）
A. 回答问题。（本题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
76. Because her father’s spine was hurt.
77. Huang tk her father t Shanghai t see a dctr.
78. Huang felt very sad.
79. At the age f 6/when she was 6 years ld .
80. Huang washed clthes and cked meals befre she went t schl every day .
B.书面表达（本题15分）（答案仅供参考）
Dear Dad & Mm,
I'm glad t write t yu. Yu are always patient with me and care abut me. I have t say yu are the best parents in the wrld.
I remember when I was in Grade 8, I hated study and made much truble at schl. Then ne day, yu had a lng talk with me and let me knw the imprtance f study. Yu even spent mst f yur free time helping me with my study. Nw, I really enjy my schl life.
I'd like t say thank yu and I hpe yu will be happy and healthy frever. (93 wrds)
Yurs,
Angel
2021年第二次中考调研测试评分板设置说明（英语科）
第一题组（6人）：听填信息，共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分。每小题评分板设置为0－0.5－1。
（30小题English首字母必须大写，teach不分大小写。）
第二题组（7人）：短文填空，共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分。每小题评分板设置为0－0.5—1—1.5。（所填的词不符合短文的逻辑不给分，单词拼写错误不给分，大小写或形式错误每个扣0.5分。）
第三题组（7人）：回答问题，共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分。每小题评分板设置为0—0.5—1…2。
(无论是完整的句子回答还是简答，只要信息点正确完整，就给满分；信息点有错，则按标准扣分。)
第四题组（72人）：书面表达，共1题，满分15分。要求双评，成绩取两评的平均值。评分板分为两栏(请按以下格式设置评分板)。
书面表达给分总原则：考生的单词错误、句子语法错误等如果影响意思表达可在对应栏目中直接扣分。
评分细则补充：
1.按照以上两栏给分，不符合信息点的不给分。
2.如照抄原文并且符合该信息点内容，给1分，（如内容有所改动，就不算抄袭）。
3.抄袭的内容如果字迹工整，卷面整洁，可以在第二栏给1分。
4.如照抄与写作无关的文章，如完型填空和阅读，给0分。
5.如在文中透露了真实姓名或学校的真实名称，则扣1分；词数低于50词，扣1分；书写影响阅卷或理解，扣1分。超出字数，不扣分。
A Vlunteer Prgram
Where t g: A village, （26）________ kilmeters frm the city center.
Hw t get there: By high-speed（27）________and bus.
Where t stay: At the vlunteer center with shared rms.
What t cat: Three（28）________ Chinese meals a day.
What t d: Take a（29）________ lessn n Mnday,
（30）________ and art at a primary schl frm Tuesday t Friday, Tur arund the village at the weekend.
China has a lt f intangible cultural heritages f humanity（人类非物质文化遗产）. In recent years, a number f them have been well-knwn arund the wrld. Here are fur f them.
Chinese Zhusuan（2013）
Zhusuan was imprved by Liu Hng. With a lng histry f 1, 800 years, it is cnsidered as the wrld’s ldest cmputer. Hwever, it is different frm the mdern cmputer. It uses a abacus（算盘）.
It is a symbl f the wisdm f the Chinese peple. But as the wrld develps S fast, it has lst its rle in the 21st century.
The Twenty-fur Slar Terms（节气）（2016）
It is called the fifth great inventin f China. It was created by ancient Chinese peple abut 2, 100 years ag.
It shws the relatinships between the climate（气候）and agriculture（农业）. And it plays an imprtant rle in Chinese agricultural prductin and daily life.
Tai Chi（2017）
Tai Chi is a kind f Wushu. It has been practiced in China fr abut 600 years. It mixes slw mvements and deep breath. Tai Chi is ppular with the ld peple in China, but few yung peple wuld like t pass it n. S the gvernment is trying t encurage mre yung peple t d Tai Chi.
Fanjing Muntain （2018）
Fanjing Muntain is in the nrtheast f Guizhu Prvince. It is the main muntain f Wuling Muntain and it is 2,493 meters high. Fanjing Muntain is full f green frests and many kinds f rare animals. S, a lt f peple cme here t enjy the beautiful sights and fresh air every year.
61. When Peter feels uncmfrtable talking with smene, he ften lks here and there.
62. Sara likes t make friends with ppular peple, because she finds it easier t cmmunicate with them.
63. When Jane is happy, she likes t talk t everyne in her class. But when she feels sad, she desn’t even say “hi” t anyne.
64. Susan is a gd student, but she is never sure what t talk abut when she stays with thers.
65. Paul is pr in his study, and he always feels shy t talk with thers, s he has very few friends.
A. Be cnfident in yurself. Everyne has its gd qualities. Peple wh have self-cnfidence arc mre attractive.
B. It is nt plite t lk arund when talking with peple. Try t lk peple in the eye even yu’ re nt interested in the cnversatin. Then peple will find it easier t talk t yu.
C. Try t make friends with all kinds f peple, nt just with thse wh are easy t cmmunicate. Then yu will find there are greater chances fr making friends.
D. Once yu get t knw a persn, find mre chances t meet. Fr example, yu can play sccer tgether r have a shrt travel. Then yu can get n well with each ther.
E. Try t help thers. Fr instance, lk after peple wh are ill r help peple take care f their pets. Be kind t thers and yu will be treated kindly.
F. Other will think yu are strange if yu are friendly ne day and dn’t talk the next day. Learn t share yur feelings with thers. Share yur sadness with yur friends, and yu will be happy again.
G. Care abut what’s happening in the wrld. Read mre newspapers, listen t the tp CDs, and find ut smething abut new sprts r mvie stars. Then talk abut things that a persn may be interested in.
内容要点（10分）
0-1－2……10
整体情况（5分）
0-1……5（行文逻辑和连贯等3分，卷面和字数各1分。）
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