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2022届江苏省连云港市高三第二次调研考试 英语试卷
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这是一份2022届江苏省连云港市高三第二次调研考试 英语试卷，共19页。
连云港市2022届高三第二次调研考试
英语
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填涂到答题卡上。
2.作答选择题时，请用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
3.作答非选择题时，请将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每攻对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.Where are the speakers?
A.In Singapore. B.In China. C.In Russia.
2.Who has probably arrived?
A. The man's dad. B. The man's sister. C. The man's friend.
3. What does the man suggest the woman do?
A.Wear warmer clothing. B.Follow him. C. Have lunch first.
4. Which is the most popular job nowadays?
A. A surgeon B.A general doctor. C.A dentist.
5.What are the speakers talking about?
A.Weather. B.Fashion. C.Shopping.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Former roommates. B.Former classmates. C.Former co-workers.
7. Who is the woman's best friend?
A. Jessica. B.Samantha. C.Elaine.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What shape of glasses does the man recommend?
A.Square. B.Round. C.Heart-shaped.
9.Which glasses are the least popular?
A.The red ones. B.The gold ones. C.The purple ones.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What does the man need to fix?
A.Plot. B.Grammar. C.Characters.
11. When will the book be published?
A.In May. B.In June. C.In July.
12. How will the man return the book!
A.By e-mail. B By post. C in person.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.Where are the speakers now?
A. At the train station. B. In the Central Park. C. On the Rockaway Beach
14. What do the speakers have in common?
A. They both take pleasure in riding bikes.
B. They both live in the centre of New York.
C.They both celebrate Thanksgiving yearly.
15. What is true about the New York Subway?
A. It runs around the clock.
B. It's the longest in the world.
C. It offers free rides to foreigners.
16.How does the woman's family spend Thanksgiving?
A.Playing games together. B. Watching a foo.ball game. C. Having a meal with relatives.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.Who is the speaker probably talking to?
A.Her recorder B.Her teacher. C.Her friend.
18. What is the advantage of keeping a diary?
A. It provides you with new ideas.B.It helps you organize your goals.C. It allows you to write better English.
19. Why does the speaker admire her friend?
A.She is clever. B.She is humorous. C.She is hardworking.
20.What time is it probably?
A. Early in the Morning. B.Around lunch time. C.Late in the evening.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Do you like reading? What would you like to read? Here are four recommendations from trusted critics.
A Greenglass House Story
Kate Milford, illustrated by Nicole Wong
Twelve guests, trapped at the Blue Vein Tavern by rising floodwaters, tell stories to pass the time. With tales that cross over between storytelling and reality, what starts as a series of unrelated tales weaves(编织）together into something smart and tight.A puzzle book that adults may enjoy just as much as its intended child audience. (For ages 4 to 8)
Someone Builds the Dream
Lisa Wheeler, illustrated by Loren Long
Someone Builds the Dream is a celebration of the cooperative spirit and a proof to what we can achieve if we work together.And after having the curtain pulled back like this, children (and probably many grown-ups) will look at the world around them with fresh eyes. (For ages 5 to 8)
The Boy and the Sea
Camille Andros, illustrated by Amy Bates
Following a young boy over a lifetime,Camille Andros' story flows back with a comforting rhythm while Amy Bates' timeless artwork washes over you. As the boy grows older, he returns regularly to the sea looking for answers but discovers something more valuable: visual angle. (For ages 4 to 8)
Magic Candies
Heena Baek, translated by Sophie Bowman
When Tong Tong purchases a bag of strange, round candies, he discovers that each one allows him to hear the hidden speech of someone, or something. Honestly, who wouldn't want to hear what the leaves have to say? You'll also be sure to treat your chair with greater kindness after a single read.(For ages 4 to 8)
21. What do the books by Kate Milford and Lisa Wheeler have in common?
A. They are both puzzle books.
B.They may attract adult readers.
C. They both focus on cooperation.
D. They are for children aged 4 to 8.
22. Which book best suits children who are curious about others 'secrets?
A. A Greenglass House Story.
B.Someone Builds the Dream.
C.Magic Candies.
D.The Boy and the Sea.
23.Where can the text be found?
A. In a history book.
B. In a travel brochure.
C.In a science fiction.
D. In a literature magazine.
B
Riding a horse at a high speed on grassland covered with snow while dressed in a red cloak（披风） and a white fur hat isn't something people would normally see a Chinese government Official do. So it's not surprising that He Jiaolong, a female official from Xinjiang Uygur Autonomous Region, almost instantly became an online celebrity after she posted such a video.
She came up with the idea to make the video when she was thinking about new ways to let more people know about the famous horse breed(品种）of Zhaosu County, Ili, known as “heavenly horses”。
“I never expected the video to be such a hit. At first, I really didn't like to be called an online celebrity, because l never wanted to be one. But now I'm gradually getting used to using my influence to boost local development, she said.
Besides posting short videos, she has also been promoting local agricultural products and tourist resources via livestreaming (直播）. With more followers,she can now help to sell local products worth more than 2 million yuan during a livestream while sales were only about 5,000 yuan each time when she first started to livestream on social media.
While she continues to draw the public's attention to Ili, she also has to keep dealing with the stress brought by criticism, especially often being questioned if being a social media celebrity may affect her work as an official. She said that she had even thought of giving up appearing on social media several times.
“I am, above all, a government official. 1 will never let what I do on social media affect my job,” she said. “I want to see the locals appreciate my efforts in serving them. which is my duty. I hope people can feel the warmth and positive energy of Xinjiang officials via my videos. I am simply one of them.”
24. Why did He Jiaolong first make her videos?
A. To introduce her job.
B. To gain personal fame.
C.To promote a horse breed.
D. To advertise the local scenery.
25.What can we learn from He Jiaolong's words in Paragraph 3?
A. She enjoys being called an online celebrity.
B. She is proud of her skills of making short videos.
C. The video's success makes a difference to her life.
D.The video's success damages her image as an official.
26. What changes has He Jiaolong's livestreaming brought to Ili?
A. Sales of local products have been increased.
B. Lives of local residents have been disturbed.
C. More local officials join her in livestreaming.
D. More followers make videos of the local scenery.
27.How does He Jiaolong react to people's criticism?
A. She decides to quit appearing online.
B. She apologizes to the local government.
C. She consults experts on dealing with the stress.
D. She continues serving people through her efforts.
C
Could a daily walk be even better for our health than we thought? Several new studies show that walking not only burns fat, but also boosts longevity (长寿）and has a dramatic anti-ageing effect on the body.
In the latest of these findings, due to be published in the journal Communications Biology in the next few weeks, Thomas Yates, a professor at the University of Leicester, showed that walkers who adopt a quick pace can have a biological age 15 years younger than those who take their time. Yates and his team looked at the length of telomeres (端粒） of chromosomes(染色体）in 405,981 middle-aged adults in the UK. As we grow older, our telomeres shorten, which results in accelerated cell ageing. “If we can keep them long for as long as possible, it acts as a buffer against ageing,” says Yates.
Their findings follow a review and analysis of 15 studies on walking involving almost 50,000 people that was published this week. Amanda Paluch at the University of Massachusetts Amhers confirmed that daily walking improves health and longevity, but more daily steps are better only up to a point. For adults under 60, Paluch showed a daily total of 8,000-10,000 steps was best for reducing risk of early death, while 6,000-8,000 steps was enough for the over-60s.
Walking has also recently been shown to strengthen the blood flow to the brain. In one of the largest studies, researchers revealed that 20 minutes of quick walking most days from middle age onwards will lower the risk of dementia (痴呆）. Professor Edward Zamrini says, “The idea that you can reduce your risk for Alzheimer's disease by simply increasing your activity is very promising.”
Even in people with some existing age-related memory damage, walking can work wonders, as a year-long study in the Journal of Alzheimer's Disease showed. “Walking is by far the best medicine we have for a healthy life,”says Yates.
28. What did Thomas Yates' study find about fast walking?
A. It causes a damaging effect on the body.
B. It slows down the process of cell ageing.
C. It increases the number of chromosomes.
D. It shortens middle-aged adults' telomeres.
29.What does the underlined word “buffer” in Paragraph 2 mean?
A. Something shortening telomeres.
B.Something speeding up cell ageing.
C.Something counting the walking pace.
D.Something helping protect from harm.
30. What did Amanda Paluch consider when doing research?
A.Body shape. B.Age group. C. Occupation type. D Sample size.
31.What is the best title for the text?
A. How daily walking helps burn fat
B. Why walking is the best midlife exercise
C.How many daily steps are bettor for adults
D. Whether walking reduces the risk of dementia
D
In the forest, trees often give each other space to reach for the sky,a habit that humans can learn from when it comes to setting personal boundaries.
Next time you go for a walk in a forest or woodland take a moment to look above you. You might find that the crown(树冠）resembles a breathtaking umbrella with channel-like gaps between the tops of the trees. This phenomenon has been documented worldwide since the 1920s, and is called “crown shyness”. It happens when trees appear to give each other space.
Even when trees grow close together, they show a mutual (相互的）respect and offer benefits. This is true in the case of “married” trees -where a tree intertwines（缠绕）with one resistant to disease, it shares the advantages of its friend. Maintaining healthy boundaries help trees to maintain good health, manage resources and protect the forest as a whole.
When humans fail to respect boundaries, the emotional and physical resources of individuals,and the community can be affected. In this sense, a boundary is a conceptual border. It helps to establish where you end and other people begin. It means taking responsibility for only your own emotions and actions, not other people's. You could think of your boundaries as a moat (护城河）around your castle, complete with a drawbridge that can be lowered or raised. As the gatekeeper of your castle, you decide who and what comes in and when.
Of course, marking out boundaries takes time, and some people might be unhappy about any changes you make. Establishing a clear line between you and the rest of the world, however, is essential for building the self-worth and self-care needed to function at your best in relationships.
32. What is “crown shyness"?
A. A crown with channel-like gaps.
B.A forest with umbrella-shaped crowns.
C. A behavior that trees give each other space.
D. A phenomenon that trees compete for space.
33. How does the author develop Paragraph 3?
A. By telling a story.
B. By giving an example.
C. By defining a concept.
D.By making a comparison.
34.What is Paragraph 4 mainly about?
A.The effects of ignoring boundaries.
B.The meaning of taking responsibilities.
C. The importance of setting personal boundaries.
D. The methods of managing individual resources.
35. What is the author's attitude ts marking out a boundary?
A. Favorable. B.Intolerant. C.Doubtful. D.Conservative.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
In 2013, digital media consultant Baratunde Thurston launched an experiment. He decided to disconnect from his online life for twenty-five days: no Facebook,no Twitter, not even e-mail. He needed the break. 36
It didn't take him long to adjust to a disconnected life. By the end of that first week, he was less stressed about not knowing new things. 37 He enjoyed food without Twittering the experience. But the end came too soon. After the twenty-five days. he had to restore his online presence.
His experiment summarizes two important points about our relationship with social networks like Facebook and Twitter. The first point is that we increasingly recognize that these tools fragment ( 碎裂） our time and reduce our ability to concentrate. 38 But the problem is especially serious if you're attempting to improve your ability to work deeply.
To fight back against these distractions, Thurston felt his only option was to quit the Internet altogether. But the problem is that no one is meant to actually follow Thurston's lead. 39 That is to accept our current distracted state as unavoidable. This brings me to the second point summarized by Thurston's story: it didn't take him long once the experiment ended to slide back into the fragmented
state where he began.
This rule proposes a third option: accepting that these tools might be vital to your success and happiness, but meanwhile accepting that most people should be using fewer such tools. I won't ask you, in other words, to quit the Internet altogether like Thurston did. 40 There is a middle ground, and if you're to develop a deep work habit, you must fight to get there.
A. He struck up conversations with strangers.
B. It is a real problem for many different people.
C. “I was burnt out, fried, and done,”he explained.
D. This reality accounts for the remaining alternative.
E.He had to return to the online world with books to market.
F. But I'll ask you to reject the state of highly distracted connectedness.
G. Fortunately, you will break the habit of surfing the Internet gradually.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填人空白处的最佳选项。
When we pay attention,we see courage every day. I see it in my classroom when a student 41 her hand and says, “I'm completely lost.”Do you know how incredibly 42 it is to say so when you're pretty sure every one else gets it?
I recently saw another 43 of ordinary courage in my son Charlie's preschool. Parents were invited to 44 a music presentation by the kids. You know the 45－twenty-five children singing with fifty-plus 46 in the audience holding up cameras.
One girl cried her way through the entire 47 because she couldn't see her mom. As I was telling Charlie goodbye, I saw her mom burst through the door,and immediately start 48 the room for her daughter. Another mother walked by this stressed mom, shook her head and 49 her eyes.
Just then one more mom walked up to this now 50 mom and smiled. “I wasn't just late.I 51 forgot.” She said, “It's okay. We're in the same boat.” The woman's face 52 and she wiped away a tear. By the time she made it to the corner where the teacher was still 53 her daughter,she looked calm.
The mom who stopped and shared her story of 54 was practicing courage. She didn't have to. Every time we choose 55,we make the world a little kinder and braver.
41.A.shakes B.raises C.spreads D.withdraws
42.A.awful B.normal C.brave D.typical
43.A.issue B.trend C.report D.example
44. A.attend B.advertise C.perform D.organize
45.A.tension B.scene C.silence D.song
46. A.photographers B.teachers C.parents D.reporters
47. A.performance B.competition C.arrangement D.celebration
48. A.scanning B.sweeping C.decorating D.occupying
49.A.opened B.rolled C.closed D.covered
50.A.grateful B.merciful C.cheerful D.tearful
51. A.immediately B.temporarily C.occasionally D.completely
52.A.hardened B.softened C.darkened D.reddened
53.A.encouraging B.criticizing C.comforting D.threatening
54. A.concentration B.inspiration C.instruction D.imperfection
55.A.courage B.wisdom C.gratitude D.honesty
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) is a health care system in which patients 56_(treat) with natural plant, animal, and mineral remedies (药物）．It is assumed, for a person to be healthy, 57 yin and yang forces should he in balance. Imbalance causes illness or injury. TCM is about 58_(restore) the balance between yin and yang forces in patients. It has been a major part of traditional Chinese culture and continues to play 59 vital role in medical treatment in China today.
According to the World Health Organization, nearly 80 percent of the world's population depends for its primary health care needs_60 medicines from plants and animals. This is especially true in countries where traditional medicines are 61_(wide) used.
Increasingly, however, modern medicines also contain substances from animals and plants. Given growing populations, increasing wealth, and the spreading62（popular) of natural remedies around the world, the demand for these medicines and remedies _63_(rise) now. The rising demand,64_(combine) with reduced habitat, has caused an alarming increase in the number of plant and animal species used for medicinal purposes at risk for many years. For instance, TCM uses about
1,000 plant and 36 animal species, including the tiger, rhinoceros, and sea horse, 65 are all in danger.
第四部分 写作“（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
66.你校拟举办一场英文书法比赛。请你为校英文报写一则通知，内容包括：
1.比赛目的；
2.时间和地点；
更多资料进群获取
3.比赛规则。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Notice
Students Union
第二节（满分25分）
67.阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
For my fifth-grade science fair project, I got six chicken eggs in an incubator（孵化器）。
“But I don't know anything about hatching an egg.”
Mrs. Brubeck smiled. “You don't have to bean immediate expert at everything, Juli.The idea here is to learn something new.”
“But what if they die?”
“Then they die. Document you work scientifically and you'll still get an A.” She pulled The Beginner s Guide to Raising Chickens from her bookshelf and said, “Read the book and set yourself up tonight.”
That night I came home, more worried than ever. I'd read the book. I had to turn the eggs three times a day and regulate the temperature and humidity(湿度）.But aside from that, what was there to do?
My father came with a cardboard tube and a flashlight. He taped the two together so that the light beam was forced straight out the tube. “I will show you how to candle the eggs,” he said、then switched off the light and held an egg up to the cardboard tube. “The light lets you see through the·shell so you can watch the embryo(胚胎）develop. Look, see the dark spot here?”
“Is that an embryo?”
“That's it!”
Suddenly it felt real. The eggs were alive! Surely they had to live!
For the next three weeks, I was completely consumed with the growing of chicks. I labeled the eggs A, B, C, D, E and F, but before long they had names, too: Abby, Bonnie, Clyde, Dexter, Eunice and Florence. Every day I weighed them, candled them, turned them. I drew diagrams of various stages of an embryo's development. I documented the daily changes and weight loss of each egg.On the outside the eggs were boring, but I knew what was happening inside!
注意：
1.写作词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Then one morning I was candling Bonnie when I noticed a gentle peck(啄）.
The day came when I was supposed to hand in my science fair project.
连云港市2022届高三第二次调研考试
英 语
第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 BCACA 6-10 BBACB 11-15 CBAAA 16-20 CABAC
第二部分 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21-25 BCDCC 26-30 ADBDB 31-35 BCBCA 36-40 CABDF
第三部分 语言运用
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 BCDAB 46-50 CAABD 51-55 DBCDA
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. are treated 57. that 58. restoring 59. a 60. on/upon
61. widely 62. popularity 63. is rising 64. combined 65. which
第四部分 写作
第一节（满分15分）
66. One possible version
Notice
To raise students’ awareness of writing neatly and beautifully, we are to organize an on-site English Handwriting Competition from 5:00 p.m. to 5:15 p.m. on April 6 in each classroom.
Every student in Senior Three is to participate in the competition by copying the given materials onto the given paper. Those who complete the task in 15 minutes will hand in their works. The best works will be exhibited on the bulletin board and the winners will be awarded. (80 words)
Students’ Union
第二节（满分25分）
67. One possible version
Then one morning I was candling Bonnie when I noticed a gentle peck (啄). Was it coming out? I called my parents and the three of us crowded around, watching Bonnie pip. His little beak cracked through, and while I held my breath and waited, he rested. And rested. Finally its beak poked through again. After what seemed a long time, Bonnie broke out of the shell first. Then came the others. They were wet, weak and ugly at first sight, but soon they became fluffy. It was absolutely amazing.
The day came when I was supposed to hand in my science fair project. I packed up all my chickens, documents and charts and got a ride to school. These beautiful little things caught immediate attention. “You’ve got six alive! The record is three!” Mrs. Brubeck was quite impressed. The whole class stuck around for a whole morning, asking various questions. I shared with them the process as well as the joy of witnessing a new life coming into this world. What an experience! (150 words)
连云港市2022届高三第二次调研考试
写作评分说明
第一节： 应用文写作（满分15分）
文章为通知体裁，内容包括（1）比赛目的；（2）时间和地点；（3）比赛规则。如三个部分都涵盖，文体符合要求，逻辑合理，书写清楚，字数达到要求，表达无太多错误，得分则应在10分以上。注意：本次应用文分一段、两段、三段均可接受，不因分段问题扣分。
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60或多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：
（1）内容要点的覆盖、表达的清楚程度以及合理性；
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。但如发现用括号表示删除的，从总分中减去1分。
6. 如字迹难以辨认，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档 (13-15分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
1. 覆盖所有内容要点。
2. 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
3. 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
4. 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第四档 (10-12分) 完成了试题规定的任务。 达到了预期的写作目的。
1. 虽漏掉一、二个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
2. 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
3. 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
4. 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第三档 (7-9分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
1. 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
2. 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
3. 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
4. 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档 (4-6分) 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
1. 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
2. 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
3. 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
4. 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
第一档 (1-3分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 信息未能传达给读者。
1. 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
2. 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
3. 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
4. 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
不得分：（0分） 未能传达给读者任何信息
1. 内容太少，无法评判；
2. 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
本次续写部分，第一段主要写小鸡破壳而出的过程、结果，作者的感受、感悟等；第二段主要写上交作业时候的情景，周边师生的反应、评价，作者的感受、感悟等。
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分；
2．评分时，先根据续写内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分； 得分有理，扣分有据；
3．词数少于 130，从总分中减去 2 分；
4．评分时，应主要从以下三个方面考虑：
(1) 创造内容的质量、续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度；
(2) 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；
(3) 上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑；
英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。如有用括号表示删除的，从总分中减去1分。
6. 如字迹难以辨认，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档 （21-25 分）
1. 创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
2. 使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解；
3. 自然有效地使用了段落间、句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第四档 （16-20 分）
1. 创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；
2. 使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解；
3. 比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。第三档 （11-15 分）
1. 创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关；
2. 使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解；
3. 使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第二档 （6-10 分）
1. 创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关；
2. 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解；
3. 尚有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第一档 （1-5 分）
1. 内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节； 2. 所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解；
3. 未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
不得分 （0 分）
1. 未作答；
2. 所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；
3. 所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
听力录音原文
Text 1
M: I never knew you love winter sports. I’ve never learned any winter sports since I was born in Singapore.
W: Oh, I learned to skate when I was young, because it’s very popular in Russia. Then I moved here in China when I was 15. (1)
Text 2
W: Are your parents early again? Didn’t you tell everyone to come to the party in an hour?
M: Yes, but I just asked my friend Joe to come early and bring some baby food, (2) since my sister will come later with her daughter. He has probably arrived. (2)
Text 3
W: Can I follow you through the forest?
M: Yes, but change out of that T-shirt. The temperature in there can be very low, so you need something better than that. (3)
W: OK, I’ll finish my lunch and then I’ll be ready.
Text 4
W: I’m not sure what job I want to do. Doing surgery is cool, but it takes almost 10 years of training. Being a general doctor is easy, but the salary is not good. Maybe I’ll become a dentist.
M: Many people these days want to become dentists. (4)
Text 5
W: How strange. Everyone is wearing a coat and a hat, but the sun is shining and it’s warm.
M: Do you think they know something that we don’t?
W: Perhaps there is rain on the way. I should probably check the weather forecast before I go shopping. (5)
Text 6
M: What happened to your best friend, Jessica?
W: Who?
M: Elaine. I haven’t seen her around for ages. I remember you always sat together in history class while we were in university, (6) but I haven’t seen her since I got back to the city.
W: To be honest, she was just a roommate. I think she got a job back home and left a few months ago. I used to be much better friends with Samantha while in school, (7) and luckily she is still here!
M: That’s good to know. I think I met Samantha once at a party.
Text 7
M: Based on the vision test we received from your doctor, you will need some pretty thick glasses. My assistant will get some for you. For now, what kind of shape would you like?
W: I’m not sure. What would you recommend based on my face shape?
M: You have a very round face, so you should definitely avoid round glasses. You would look good in square ones. (8) On the other hand, heart-shaped glasses don’t really match any face shape, but always look modern.
W: OK. Then what about the color? What’s the most popular among your customers? (9)
M: These red and those gold ones are about equal. The purple ones don’t sell often, (9) since you definitely need more confidence to wear them.
W: All right. I’d like to try the gold and the purple.
Text 8
W: Your book is a great first attempt. The characters are very realistic.
M: Wow, thank you! So, what do you think still needs to be done?
W: Small things. The plot, for example, is quite good. However, readers could tell you are not a native English speaker, since there are some strange grammar constructions. (10) I have highlighted them and put a sticker(便利贴) on each of the pages that need editing.
M: I see so many stickers. Will this delay the release date? I’ve already told everyone I know they could buy the book in May.
W: It will be much safer to move the date to June or July. Don’t worry. This happens often with books.
M: But I don’t want to keep changing the date. I feel embarrassed.
W: OK, we can change it to July to be certain. (11)
M: All right. (11) I will email you the edited book next week. (12)
W: I prefer working with a hard copy. Can you mail it or bring it in? (12)
M: Sure, I’ll send it by mail. (12)
Text 9
W: Pablo, I’m over here! Welcome to New York.
M: This train station is so crowded. Let’s go outside. (13)
W: Ah, that’s better. I can’t wait to show you your first thanksgiving celebration.
M: I know, and what an amazing city it is. What are some of your favorite things to do here?
W: Well, it’s a little cold for riding bikes or going to Rockaway Beach, but we can walk through Central Park and over the Brooklyn Bridge. (13)
M: That sounds like a dream come true. I’ll come back next summer with my bike so we can ride around together. (14)
W: I’d love that. (14) First, let’s take the subway downtown to my family’s apartment. (15)
M: Is it true that the subway is the longest subway system in the world?
W: Maybe it’s the longest in the US. It does run 24/7, though. (15)
M: It says that the longest subway system is in Shanghai. Will we watch football and play board games on Thanksgiving like they do in the movies? (16)
W: We can if you want to. Usually, we stay at my house and have a meal with my grandparents and cousins. (16)
M: I’m sure it’ll be fun no matter what we do. By the way, I have less than a dollar on me. Can you get me a ticket for the subway?
W: You’ll need a bit more than that for the train! Don’t worry — you can use mine.
Text 10
Dear Diary, today is my first day of recording you. (17) My teacher recommended I make an audio diary every day, because it will help clear my thoughts, organize my goals, and make me a better speaker. (18) I don’t know what my goals are yet. I do want to be a better speaker, though. That sounds nice. My best friend also has an audio diary, but she never lets me hear it. I would love to know what she has said, but she tells me it’s a secret. I don’t know yet if I will keep you secret too. She’s very smart and her tape recorder is small and red. (19) That’s why you’re also red. I’m lucky to be in her group for the class project, even though she is kind of lazy. But her brain makes up for it and I’m sure we’ll win Best Project in class. I have to get up early, so I should probably finish for today. (20) Also, I’m not sure what else to say. I’ll speak to you again this time tomorrow, or maybe in the morning if I have any interesting dreams. (20) If anything happens at school, I will make a recording around lunch. Goodbye for now.
连云港市2022届高三第二次调研考试
英语
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填涂到答题卡上。
2.作答选择题时，请用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
3.作答非选择题时，请将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每攻对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.Where are the speakers?
A.In Singapore. B.In China. C.In Russia.
2.Who has probably arrived?
A. The man's dad. B. The man's sister. C. The man's friend.
3. What does the man suggest the woman do?
A.Wear warmer clothing. B.Follow him. C. Have lunch first.
4. Which is the most popular job nowadays?
A. A surgeon B.A general doctor. C.A dentist.
5.What are the speakers talking about?
A.Weather. B.Fashion. C.Shopping.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Former roommates. B.Former classmates. C.Former co-workers.
7. Who is the woman's best friend?
A. Jessica. B.Samantha. C.Elaine.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What shape of glasses does the man recommend?
A.Square. B.Round. C.Heart-shaped.
9.Which glasses are the least popular?
A.The red ones. B.The gold ones. C.The purple ones.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What does the man need to fix?
A.Plot. B.Grammar. C.Characters.
11. When will the book be published?
A.In May. B.In June. C.In July.
12. How will the man return the book!
A.By e-mail. B By post. C in person.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.Where are the speakers now?
A. At the train station. B. In the Central Park. C. On the Rockaway Beach
14. What do the speakers have in common?
A. They both take pleasure in riding bikes.
B. They both live in the centre of New York.
C.They both celebrate Thanksgiving yearly.
15. What is true about the New York Subway?
A. It runs around the clock.
B. It's the longest in the world.
C. It offers free rides to foreigners.
16.How does the woman's family spend Thanksgiving?
A.Playing games together. B. Watching a foo.ball game. C. Having a meal with relatives.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.Who is the speaker probably talking to?
A.Her recorder B.Her teacher. C.Her friend.
18. What is the advantage of keeping a diary?
A. It provides you with new ideas.B.It helps you organize your goals.C. It allows you to write better English.
19. Why does the speaker admire her friend?
A.She is clever. B.She is humorous. C.She is hardworking.
20.What time is it probably?
A. Early in the Morning. B.Around lunch time. C.Late in the evening.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Do you like reading? What would you like to read? Here are four recommendations from trusted critics.
A Greenglass House Story
Kate Milford, illustrated by Nicole Wong
Twelve guests, trapped at the Blue Vein Tavern by rising floodwaters, tell stories to pass the time. With tales that cross over between storytelling and reality, what starts as a series of unrelated tales weaves(编织）together into something smart and tight.A puzzle book that adults may enjoy just as much as its intended child audience. (For ages 4 to 8)
Someone Builds the Dream
Lisa Wheeler, illustrated by Loren Long
Someone Builds the Dream is a celebration of the cooperative spirit and a proof to what we can achieve if we work together.And after having the curtain pulled back like this, children (and probably many grown-ups) will look at the world around them with fresh eyes. (For ages 5 to 8)
The Boy and the Sea
Camille Andros, illustrated by Amy Bates
Following a young boy over a lifetime,Camille Andros' story flows back with a comforting rhythm while Amy Bates' timeless artwork washes over you. As the boy grows older, he returns regularly to the sea looking for answers but discovers something more valuable: visual angle. (For ages 4 to 8)
Magic Candies
Heena Baek, translated by Sophie Bowman
When Tong Tong purchases a bag of strange, round candies, he discovers that each one allows him to hear the hidden speech of someone, or something. Honestly, who wouldn't want to hear what the leaves have to say? You'll also be sure to treat your chair with greater kindness after a single read.(For ages 4 to 8)
21. What do the books by Kate Milford and Lisa Wheeler have in common?
A. They are both puzzle books.
B.They may attract adult readers.
C. They both focus on cooperation.
D. They are for children aged 4 to 8.
22. Which book best suits children who are curious about others 'secrets?
A. A Greenglass House Story.
B.Someone Builds the Dream.
C.Magic Candies.
D.The Boy and the Sea.
23.Where can the text be found?
A. In a history book.
B. In a travel brochure.
C.In a science fiction.
D. In a literature magazine.
B
Riding a horse at a high speed on grassland covered with snow while dressed in a red cloak（披风） and a white fur hat isn't something people would normally see a Chinese government Official do. So it's not surprising that He Jiaolong, a female official from Xinjiang Uygur Autonomous Region, almost instantly became an online celebrity after she posted such a video.
She came up with the idea to make the video when she was thinking about new ways to let more people know about the famous horse breed(品种）of Zhaosu County, Ili, known as “heavenly horses”。
“I never expected the video to be such a hit. At first, I really didn't like to be called an online celebrity, because l never wanted to be one. But now I'm gradually getting used to using my influence to boost local development, she said.
Besides posting short videos, she has also been promoting local agricultural products and tourist resources via livestreaming (直播）. With more followers,she can now help to sell local products worth more than 2 million yuan during a livestream while sales were only about 5,000 yuan each time when she first started to livestream on social media.
While she continues to draw the public's attention to Ili, she also has to keep dealing with the stress brought by criticism, especially often being questioned if being a social media celebrity may affect her work as an official. She said that she had even thought of giving up appearing on social media several times.
“I am, above all, a government official. 1 will never let what I do on social media affect my job,” she said. “I want to see the locals appreciate my efforts in serving them. which is my duty. I hope people can feel the warmth and positive energy of Xinjiang officials via my videos. I am simply one of them.”
24. Why did He Jiaolong first make her videos?
A. To introduce her job.
B. To gain personal fame.
C.To promote a horse breed.
D. To advertise the local scenery.
25.What can we learn from He Jiaolong's words in Paragraph 3?
A. She enjoys being called an online celebrity.
B. She is proud of her skills of making short videos.
C. The video's success makes a difference to her life.
D.The video's success damages her image as an official.
26. What changes has He Jiaolong's livestreaming brought to Ili?
A. Sales of local products have been increased.
B. Lives of local residents have been disturbed.
C. More local officials join her in livestreaming.
D. More followers make videos of the local scenery.
27.How does He Jiaolong react to people's criticism?
A. She decides to quit appearing online.
B. She apologizes to the local government.
C. She consults experts on dealing with the stress.
D. She continues serving people through her efforts.
C
Could a daily walk be even better for our health than we thought? Several new studies show that walking not only burns fat, but also boosts longevity (长寿）and has a dramatic anti-ageing effect on the body.
In the latest of these findings, due to be published in the journal Communications Biology in the next few weeks, Thomas Yates, a professor at the University of Leicester, showed that walkers who adopt a quick pace can have a biological age 15 years younger than those who take their time. Yates and his team looked at the length of telomeres (端粒） of chromosomes(染色体）in 405,981 middle-aged adults in the UK. As we grow older, our telomeres shorten, which results in accelerated cell ageing. “If we can keep them long for as long as possible, it acts as a buffer against ageing,” says Yates.
Their findings follow a review and analysis of 15 studies on walking involving almost 50,000 people that was published this week. Amanda Paluch at the University of Massachusetts Amhers confirmed that daily walking improves health and longevity, but more daily steps are better only up to a point. For adults under 60, Paluch showed a daily total of 8,000-10,000 steps was best for reducing risk of early death, while 6,000-8,000 steps was enough for the over-60s.
Walking has also recently been shown to strengthen the blood flow to the brain. In one of the largest studies, researchers revealed that 20 minutes of quick walking most days from middle age onwards will lower the risk of dementia (痴呆）. Professor Edward Zamrini says, “The idea that you can reduce your risk for Alzheimer's disease by simply increasing your activity is very promising.”
Even in people with some existing age-related memory damage, walking can work wonders, as a year-long study in the Journal of Alzheimer's Disease showed. “Walking is by far the best medicine we have for a healthy life,”says Yates.
28. What did Thomas Yates' study find about fast walking?
A. It causes a damaging effect on the body.
B. It slows down the process of cell ageing.
C. It increases the number of chromosomes.
D. It shortens middle-aged adults' telomeres.
29.What does the underlined word “buffer” in Paragraph 2 mean?
A. Something shortening telomeres.
B.Something speeding up cell ageing.
C.Something counting the walking pace.
D.Something helping protect from harm.
30. What did Amanda Paluch consider when doing research?
A.Body shape. B.Age group. C. Occupation type. D Sample size.
31.What is the best title for the text?
A. How daily walking helps burn fat
B. Why walking is the best midlife exercise
C.How many daily steps are bettor for adults
D. Whether walking reduces the risk of dementia
D
In the forest, trees often give each other space to reach for the sky,a habit that humans can learn from when it comes to setting personal boundaries.
Next time you go for a walk in a forest or woodland take a moment to look above you. You might find that the crown(树冠）resembles a breathtaking umbrella with channel-like gaps between the tops of the trees. This phenomenon has been documented worldwide since the 1920s, and is called “crown shyness”. It happens when trees appear to give each other space.
Even when trees grow close together, they show a mutual (相互的）respect and offer benefits. This is true in the case of “married” trees -where a tree intertwines（缠绕）with one resistant to disease, it shares the advantages of its friend. Maintaining healthy boundaries help trees to maintain good health, manage resources and protect the forest as a whole.
When humans fail to respect boundaries, the emotional and physical resources of individuals,and the community can be affected. In this sense, a boundary is a conceptual border. It helps to establish where you end and other people begin. It means taking responsibility for only your own emotions and actions, not other people's. You could think of your boundaries as a moat (护城河）around your castle, complete with a drawbridge that can be lowered or raised. As the gatekeeper of your castle, you decide who and what comes in and when.
Of course, marking out boundaries takes time, and some people might be unhappy about any changes you make. Establishing a clear line between you and the rest of the world, however, is essential for building the self-worth and self-care needed to function at your best in relationships.
32. What is “crown shyness"?
A. A crown with channel-like gaps.
B.A forest with umbrella-shaped crowns.
C. A behavior that trees give each other space.
D. A phenomenon that trees compete for space.
33. How does the author develop Paragraph 3?
A. By telling a story.
B. By giving an example.
C. By defining a concept.
D.By making a comparison.
34.What is Paragraph 4 mainly about?
A.The effects of ignoring boundaries.
B.The meaning of taking responsibilities.
C. The importance of setting personal boundaries.
D. The methods of managing individual resources.
35. What is the author's attitude ts marking out a boundary?
A. Favorable. B.Intolerant. C.Doubtful. D.Conservative.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
In 2013, digital media consultant Baratunde Thurston launched an experiment. He decided to disconnect from his online life for twenty-five days: no Facebook,no Twitter, not even e-mail. He needed the break. 36
It didn't take him long to adjust to a disconnected life. By the end of that first week, he was less stressed about not knowing new things. 37 He enjoyed food without Twittering the experience. But the end came too soon. After the twenty-five days. he had to restore his online presence.
His experiment summarizes two important points about our relationship with social networks like Facebook and Twitter. The first point is that we increasingly recognize that these tools fragment ( 碎裂） our time and reduce our ability to concentrate. 38 But the problem is especially serious if you're attempting to improve your ability to work deeply.
To fight back against these distractions, Thurston felt his only option was to quit the Internet altogether. But the problem is that no one is meant to actually follow Thurston's lead. 39 That is to accept our current distracted state as unavoidable. This brings me to the second point summarized by Thurston's story: it didn't take him long once the experiment ended to slide back into the fragmented
state where he began.
This rule proposes a third option: accepting that these tools might be vital to your success and happiness, but meanwhile accepting that most people should be using fewer such tools. I won't ask you, in other words, to quit the Internet altogether like Thurston did. 40 There is a middle ground, and if you're to develop a deep work habit, you must fight to get there.
A. He struck up conversations with strangers.
B. It is a real problem for many different people.
C. “I was burnt out, fried, and done,”he explained.
D. This reality accounts for the remaining alternative.
E.He had to return to the online world with books to market.
F. But I'll ask you to reject the state of highly distracted connectedness.
G. Fortunately, you will break the habit of surfing the Internet gradually.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填人空白处的最佳选项。
When we pay attention,we see courage every day. I see it in my classroom when a student 41 her hand and says, “I'm completely lost.”Do you know how incredibly 42 it is to say so when you're pretty sure every one else gets it?
I recently saw another 43 of ordinary courage in my son Charlie's preschool. Parents were invited to 44 a music presentation by the kids. You know the 45－twenty-five children singing with fifty-plus 46 in the audience holding up cameras.
One girl cried her way through the entire 47 because she couldn't see her mom. As I was telling Charlie goodbye, I saw her mom burst through the door,and immediately start 48 the room for her daughter. Another mother walked by this stressed mom, shook her head and 49 her eyes.
Just then one more mom walked up to this now 50 mom and smiled. “I wasn't just late.I 51 forgot.” She said, “It's okay. We're in the same boat.” The woman's face 52 and she wiped away a tear. By the time she made it to the corner where the teacher was still 53 her daughter,she looked calm.
The mom who stopped and shared her story of 54 was practicing courage. She didn't have to. Every time we choose 55,we make the world a little kinder and braver.
41.A.shakes B.raises C.spreads D.withdraws
42.A.awful B.normal C.brave D.typical
43.A.issue B.trend C.report D.example
44. A.attend B.advertise C.perform D.organize
45.A.tension B.scene C.silence D.song
46. A.photographers B.teachers C.parents D.reporters
47. A.performance B.competition C.arrangement D.celebration
48. A.scanning B.sweeping C.decorating D.occupying
49.A.opened B.rolled C.closed D.covered
50.A.grateful B.merciful C.cheerful D.tearful
51. A.immediately B.temporarily C.occasionally D.completely
52.A.hardened B.softened C.darkened D.reddened
53.A.encouraging B.criticizing C.comforting D.threatening
54. A.concentration B.inspiration C.instruction D.imperfection
55.A.courage B.wisdom C.gratitude D.honesty
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) is a health care system in which patients 56_(treat) with natural plant, animal, and mineral remedies (药物）．It is assumed, for a person to be healthy, 57 yin and yang forces should he in balance. Imbalance causes illness or injury. TCM is about 58_(restore) the balance between yin and yang forces in patients. It has been a major part of traditional Chinese culture and continues to play 59 vital role in medical treatment in China today.
According to the World Health Organization, nearly 80 percent of the world's population depends for its primary health care needs_60 medicines from plants and animals. This is especially true in countries where traditional medicines are 61_(wide) used.
Increasingly, however, modern medicines also contain substances from animals and plants. Given growing populations, increasing wealth, and the spreading62（popular) of natural remedies around the world, the demand for these medicines and remedies _63_(rise) now. The rising demand,64_(combine) with reduced habitat, has caused an alarming increase in the number of plant and animal species used for medicinal purposes at risk for many years. For instance, TCM uses about
1,000 plant and 36 animal species, including the tiger, rhinoceros, and sea horse, 65 are all in danger.
第四部分 写作“（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
66.你校拟举办一场英文书法比赛。请你为校英文报写一则通知，内容包括：
1.比赛目的；
2.时间和地点；
更多资料进群获取
3.比赛规则。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Notice
Students Union
第二节（满分25分）
67.阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
For my fifth-grade science fair project, I got six chicken eggs in an incubator（孵化器）。
“But I don't know anything about hatching an egg.”
Mrs. Brubeck smiled. “You don't have to bean immediate expert at everything, Juli.The idea here is to learn something new.”
“But what if they die?”
“Then they die. Document you work scientifically and you'll still get an A.” She pulled The Beginner s Guide to Raising Chickens from her bookshelf and said, “Read the book and set yourself up tonight.”
That night I came home, more worried than ever. I'd read the book. I had to turn the eggs three times a day and regulate the temperature and humidity(湿度）.But aside from that, what was there to do?
My father came with a cardboard tube and a flashlight. He taped the two together so that the light beam was forced straight out the tube. “I will show you how to candle the eggs,” he said、then switched off the light and held an egg up to the cardboard tube. “The light lets you see through the·shell so you can watch the embryo(胚胎）develop. Look, see the dark spot here?”
“Is that an embryo?”
“That's it!”
Suddenly it felt real. The eggs were alive! Surely they had to live!
For the next three weeks, I was completely consumed with the growing of chicks. I labeled the eggs A, B, C, D, E and F, but before long they had names, too: Abby, Bonnie, Clyde, Dexter, Eunice and Florence. Every day I weighed them, candled them, turned them. I drew diagrams of various stages of an embryo's development. I documented the daily changes and weight loss of each egg.On the outside the eggs were boring, but I knew what was happening inside!
注意：
1.写作词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Then one morning I was candling Bonnie when I noticed a gentle peck(啄）.
The day came when I was supposed to hand in my science fair project.
连云港市2022届高三第二次调研考试
英 语
第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 BCACA 6-10 BBACB 11-15 CBAAA 16-20 CABAC
第二部分 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21-25 BCDCC 26-30 ADBDB 31-35 BCBCA 36-40 CABDF
第三部分 语言运用
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 BCDAB 46-50 CAABD 51-55 DBCDA
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. are treated 57. that 58. restoring 59. a 60. on/upon
61. widely 62. popularity 63. is rising 64. combined 65. which
第四部分 写作
第一节（满分15分）
66. One possible version
Notice
To raise students’ awareness of writing neatly and beautifully, we are to organize an on-site English Handwriting Competition from 5:00 p.m. to 5:15 p.m. on April 6 in each classroom.
Every student in Senior Three is to participate in the competition by copying the given materials onto the given paper. Those who complete the task in 15 minutes will hand in their works. The best works will be exhibited on the bulletin board and the winners will be awarded. (80 words)
Students’ Union
第二节（满分25分）
67. One possible version
Then one morning I was candling Bonnie when I noticed a gentle peck (啄). Was it coming out? I called my parents and the three of us crowded around, watching Bonnie pip. His little beak cracked through, and while I held my breath and waited, he rested. And rested. Finally its beak poked through again. After what seemed a long time, Bonnie broke out of the shell first. Then came the others. They were wet, weak and ugly at first sight, but soon they became fluffy. It was absolutely amazing.
The day came when I was supposed to hand in my science fair project. I packed up all my chickens, documents and charts and got a ride to school. These beautiful little things caught immediate attention. “You’ve got six alive! The record is three!” Mrs. Brubeck was quite impressed. The whole class stuck around for a whole morning, asking various questions. I shared with them the process as well as the joy of witnessing a new life coming into this world. What an experience! (150 words)
连云港市2022届高三第二次调研考试
写作评分说明
第一节： 应用文写作（满分15分）
文章为通知体裁，内容包括（1）比赛目的；（2）时间和地点；（3）比赛规则。如三个部分都涵盖，文体符合要求，逻辑合理，书写清楚，字数达到要求，表达无太多错误，得分则应在10分以上。注意：本次应用文分一段、两段、三段均可接受，不因分段问题扣分。
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60或多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：
（1）内容要点的覆盖、表达的清楚程度以及合理性；
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。但如发现用括号表示删除的，从总分中减去1分。
6. 如字迹难以辨认，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档 (13-15分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
1. 覆盖所有内容要点。
2. 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
3. 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
4. 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第四档 (10-12分) 完成了试题规定的任务。 达到了预期的写作目的。
1. 虽漏掉一、二个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
2. 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
3. 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
4. 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第三档 (7-9分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
1. 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
2. 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
3. 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
4. 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档 (4-6分) 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
1. 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
2. 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
3. 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
4. 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
第一档 (1-3分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 信息未能传达给读者。
1. 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
2. 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
3. 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
4. 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
不得分：（0分） 未能传达给读者任何信息
1. 内容太少，无法评判；
2. 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
本次续写部分，第一段主要写小鸡破壳而出的过程、结果，作者的感受、感悟等；第二段主要写上交作业时候的情景，周边师生的反应、评价，作者的感受、感悟等。
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分；
2．评分时，先根据续写内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分； 得分有理，扣分有据；
3．词数少于 130，从总分中减去 2 分；
4．评分时，应主要从以下三个方面考虑：
(1) 创造内容的质量、续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度；
(2) 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性；
(3) 上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑；
英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。如有用括号表示删除的，从总分中减去1分。
6. 如字迹难以辨认，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档 （21-25 分）
1. 创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
2. 使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解；
3. 自然有效地使用了段落间、句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第四档 （16-20 分）
1. 创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；
2. 使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解；
3. 比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。第三档 （11-15 分）
1. 创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关；
2. 使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解；
3. 使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第二档 （6-10 分）
1. 创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关；
2. 使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解；
3. 尚有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第一档 （1-5 分）
1. 内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节； 2. 所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解；
3. 未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
不得分 （0 分）
1. 未作答；
2. 所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；
3. 所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
听力录音原文
Text 1
M: I never knew you love winter sports. I’ve never learned any winter sports since I was born in Singapore.
W: Oh, I learned to skate when I was young, because it’s very popular in Russia. Then I moved here in China when I was 15. (1)
Text 2
W: Are your parents early again? Didn’t you tell everyone to come to the party in an hour?
M: Yes, but I just asked my friend Joe to come early and bring some baby food, (2) since my sister will come later with her daughter. He has probably arrived. (2)
Text 3
W: Can I follow you through the forest?
M: Yes, but change out of that T-shirt. The temperature in there can be very low, so you need something better than that. (3)
W: OK, I’ll finish my lunch and then I’ll be ready.
Text 4
W: I’m not sure what job I want to do. Doing surgery is cool, but it takes almost 10 years of training. Being a general doctor is easy, but the salary is not good. Maybe I’ll become a dentist.
M: Many people these days want to become dentists. (4)
Text 5
W: How strange. Everyone is wearing a coat and a hat, but the sun is shining and it’s warm.
M: Do you think they know something that we don’t?
W: Perhaps there is rain on the way. I should probably check the weather forecast before I go shopping. (5)
Text 6
M: What happened to your best friend, Jessica?
W: Who?
M: Elaine. I haven’t seen her around for ages. I remember you always sat together in history class while we were in university, (6) but I haven’t seen her since I got back to the city.
W: To be honest, she was just a roommate. I think she got a job back home and left a few months ago. I used to be much better friends with Samantha while in school, (7) and luckily she is still here!
M: That’s good to know. I think I met Samantha once at a party.
Text 7
M: Based on the vision test we received from your doctor, you will need some pretty thick glasses. My assistant will get some for you. For now, what kind of shape would you like?
W: I’m not sure. What would you recommend based on my face shape?
M: You have a very round face, so you should definitely avoid round glasses. You would look good in square ones. (8) On the other hand, heart-shaped glasses don’t really match any face shape, but always look modern.
W: OK. Then what about the color? What’s the most popular among your customers? (9)
M: These red and those gold ones are about equal. The purple ones don’t sell often, (9) since you definitely need more confidence to wear them.
W: All right. I’d like to try the gold and the purple.
Text 8
W: Your book is a great first attempt. The characters are very realistic.
M: Wow, thank you! So, what do you think still needs to be done?
W: Small things. The plot, for example, is quite good. However, readers could tell you are not a native English speaker, since there are some strange grammar constructions. (10) I have highlighted them and put a sticker(便利贴) on each of the pages that need editing.
M: I see so many stickers. Will this delay the release date? I’ve already told everyone I know they could buy the book in May.
W: It will be much safer to move the date to June or July. Don’t worry. This happens often with books.
M: But I don’t want to keep changing the date. I feel embarrassed.
W: OK, we can change it to July to be certain. (11)
M: All right. (11) I will email you the edited book next week. (12)
W: I prefer working with a hard copy. Can you mail it or bring it in? (12)
M: Sure, I’ll send it by mail. (12)
Text 9
W: Pablo, I’m over here! Welcome to New York.
M: This train station is so crowded. Let’s go outside. (13)
W: Ah, that’s better. I can’t wait to show you your first thanksgiving celebration.
M: I know, and what an amazing city it is. What are some of your favorite things to do here?
W: Well, it’s a little cold for riding bikes or going to Rockaway Beach, but we can walk through Central Park and over the Brooklyn Bridge. (13)
M: That sounds like a dream come true. I’ll come back next summer with my bike so we can ride around together. (14)
W: I’d love that. (14) First, let’s take the subway downtown to my family’s apartment. (15)
M: Is it true that the subway is the longest subway system in the world?
W: Maybe it’s the longest in the US. It does run 24/7, though. (15)
M: It says that the longest subway system is in Shanghai. Will we watch football and play board games on Thanksgiving like they do in the movies? (16)
W: We can if you want to. Usually, we stay at my house and have a meal with my grandparents and cousins. (16)
M: I’m sure it’ll be fun no matter what we do. By the way, I have less than a dollar on me. Can you get me a ticket for the subway?
W: You’ll need a bit more than that for the train! Don’t worry — you can use mine.
Text 10
Dear Diary, today is my first day of recording you. (17) My teacher recommended I make an audio diary every day, because it will help clear my thoughts, organize my goals, and make me a better speaker. (18) I don’t know what my goals are yet. I do want to be a better speaker, though. That sounds nice. My best friend also has an audio diary, but she never lets me hear it. I would love to know what she has said, but she tells me it’s a secret. I don’t know yet if I will keep you secret too. She’s very smart and her tape recorder is small and red. (19) That’s why you’re also red. I’m lucky to be in her group for the class project, even though she is kind of lazy. But her brain makes up for it and I’m sure we’ll win Best Project in class. I have to get up early, so I should probably finish for today. (20) Also, I’m not sure what else to say. I’ll speak to you again this time tomorrow, or maybe in the morning if I have any interesting dreams. (20) If anything happens at school, I will make a recording around lunch. Goodbye for now.
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