江苏省无锡市江阴市高新区2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中考试英语试卷

这是一份江苏省无锡市江阴市高新区2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中考试英语试卷，文件包含初一英语期中试卷202411pdf、初一英语期中试卷202411docx、初一期中答案202411docx、江阴市2024-2025学年第一学期期中考试初一英语答题卡1pdf、七年级上册英语期中卷--听力202411mp3等5份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共20页， 欢迎下载使用。
（满分100分，考试时间100分钟）
第 I 卷 客观题（共 57 分）
一、听力测试（本大题共 20 小题，每小题 1 分,共 20 分）
第一部分 听对话回答问题
1. What time des Lisa wake up?
7:30
7:15
7:00
A. B. C.
2. Hw des Maria g t schl every day?
A. B. C.
3. What is the by’s favrite subject?
A. B. C.
4. Where is Eric?
A. B. C.
5. Hw lng is the swimming lessn?
A. One hur. B. Tw hurs. C. Three hurs.
6. What des Helen think f ding rller skating?
A. Easy. B. Interesting. C. Difficult.
7. Where des the by need t g?
A. T the Sprts Club. B. T the Reading Club. C. T the Art Club.
8. Why is the girl never late fr schl?
A. Because she lives near the schl. B. Because she gets up early. C. Because she takes the schl bus.
9. When des the girl g t the science museum?
A. On Tuesday. B. On Thursday. C. On Saturday.
10. Wh likes running?
A. The girl’s mther. B. The girl’s father. C. The by.
第二部分 听对话和短文回答问题
听一段对话，回答第11-12小题。
11. Where can yu see the rbt (机器人)?
A. In the classrm. B. In the library. C. In the schl hall.
12. What can it d?
A. Find bks. B. Give lessns.C. Play games.
听第一篇短文，回答第13-15小题。
13. A. in the mrning B. in the afternn C. in the evening
14. A. every day B. twice a week C. three times a week
15. A. in the club B. in the park C. in the playgrund
听第二篇短文，回答第16-20小题。
16. What time des Mike usually get t schl?
A. At 7: 15 a.m. B. At 7: 30 a. m. C. At 7: 40 a.m.
17. What is the yellw building?
A. The library. B. The schl hall. C. The classrm building.
18. What des Mr Smith ften wear?
A. A white T-shirt. B. A black shirt. C. Brwn trusers.
19. Hw ften des Mike g t the reading rm?
A. Every day. B. Once a week.C. Twice a week.
20. What kind f bks des Mike like?
A. Chinese bks. B. Histry bks. C. Science bks.
二、单项填空 在A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该 项涂黑。(本大题共12分，每小题1分)
21. —Hell, I’m Cindy and this is Tim. _______ live next dr.
—Hell, nice t meet yu.
A. YuB. HeC. TheyD. We
22. Jack, Tny and I _______ in the same class.
A. amB. isC. areD. Be
23. We shuld say “_______” t ur parents befre ging t bed.
A. Gd mrning.B. Gd afternn.C. Gd evening.D. Gd night.
24. Jack is interested in hw his cmputer wrks, s he wants t take it _______.
A. apartB. arundC. nD. ut
25. Lk at the picture n the right. Where are the students?
A. In the lab. B. in the art rm.
C. On the playgrund. D. in the dining hall.
26. Great ______ are taking place in ur hmetwn, Jiangyin.
A. factsB. changesC. charactersD. hbbies
27. —Which _______ is yur favurite?
—Table tennis and I want t be a player like Sun Yingsha.
A. sprtB. jbC. player D. subject
28．I’m afraid f taking the plane, s I _______ g travelling.
A. alwaysB. usuallyC. ftenD. seldm
29．Here is a pster(海报). Which can be put in the “______”.



A. subjectB. activityC. languageD. event
30．—What des yur father lk like? —_______.
A. He is tall and strngB. He is a dctr
C. He likes sprtsD. He lves me very much
31. —Hw d yu like yur schl life?
—__________. I have lts f fun with many new friends.
A. Of curse B. PerfectC. Gd luck D. Best wishes
32. —I will have a trip t Datng this winter hliday.
—_________.
A. That’s all right B. Gd luck C. Of curse D. Have fun
三、完形填空 在A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(本大题共5分，每小题0.5分)
I like rigami(折纸) a lt. When I feel bred, I take ut a piece f 33 and fld(折叠) it the way I like. When I see the paper turn int a wnderful wrk in my hands, I feel 34 .
One day, a friend f mine shwed his paper 35 in class. It was beautiful. I liked it s much that I culdn’t wait t knw 36 t have ne myself! After schl, I watched the nline vide(在线视频）and I tried the way t 37 a paper flwer. But just as I was finishing it, I saw that it didn’t lk right at all. I was s angry that I threw the paper away.
At that mment, my mum came t me and said, “Nthing is 38 in the beginning. Be patient(耐心的), and yu will d it!” With my mum’s wrds, I watched the 39 again and fllwed every step(步骤）carefully. 40 , a beautiful paper flwer was there befre my eyes!
Yes! I did it! Frm this event, I learned that we shuld 41 give up and we shuld believe that we can d a gd jb. Be 42 and we can d everything well.
33. A. paper B. glass C. bread D. wd
34. A. tired B. srry C. sad D. excited
35. A. animal B. flwer C. vegetable D. fruit
36. A. hw B. what C. when D. where
37. A. send B. buy C. make D. get
38. A. gd B. bad C. difficult D. easy
39. A. game B. film C. vide D. paper
40. A. Usually B. Finally C. Sadly D. Luckily
41. A. never B. smetimes C. ften D. always
42. A. brave B. wrried C. patient D. afraid
四、阅读理解 阅读下面的短文，然后根据短文内容，在每小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项， 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(本大题共20分，每小题2分)
43. What’s the clur f Linda’s ring?
A. White. B. Gld. C. Red. D. Orange.
44. Frm the passage, we can knw _________.
A. Bill lst an ID card B. there is nly a pen in David’s pencil bx
C. Mike fund a jacket with an ID card D. Bill’s phne number is 485-6682
45. What can be inferred（推断）frm the passage?
A. The black watch is very expensive.
B. Linda is Bill’s mther.
C. David’s phne number is 239-6678.
D. Mike may knw the wner’s (主人的）name f the red jacket.
46. Frm the passage abve, we can see _________ are kind and helpful students.
A. Cindy and Linda B. Mike and David C. Cindy and Mike D. Linda and David
47. Where can yu see the “lst” and “fund”?
A. In the stry bk. B. On the bard. C. In an email. D. In a magazine.
B
D yu knw bamb（竹子）? It’s always green in a year and it is everywhere in Bali. There are 1,450 kinds f bamb arund the wrld, but we nly use seven kinds f them t make things. We can use bamb t make things like beds, desks and chairs.
My father uses bamb t build Green Schl in Bali. In Green Schl, all f the rms are made f bamb. There are a lt f bamb things in the classrm. Every classrm has a bamb blackbard, sme bamb desks and bamb chairs. But every classrm has n windws, drs r walls. It nly has a bamb rf (屋顶).
Green Schl is very nice. Students are frm 40 cuntries. They have math, English, art and music. In their free time, all students grw fruit and vegetables arund the schl. And they als keep pigs, sheep, chickens and ducks. A lt f fd cmes frm their hands.
Cme and have a lk at ur Green Schl. It’s a nice schl.
48. Hw many kinds f bamb can we use t make things?
A. 7. B. 14. C. 40. D. 1,450.
49. Where is Green Schl?
A. In Beijing. B. In Yunnan. C. In Bali. D. In Lijiang.
50. All the classrms dn’t have .
A. windws, drs r rfs B. desks, chairs r walls
C. desks, chairs r blackbards D. windws, drs r walls
51. The underlined wrd “their” in Paragraph 3 refers t “ ”.
A. teachers’ B. parents’ C. students’ D. farmers’
52. What’s the best title（标题）fr the passage?
A. Bamb Rm B. Schl Things C. Green Schl D. Green Things
第 II 卷 主观题（共 43 分）
五、词汇运用 根据句意和中文注释，在答题卡相应的横线上，写出所给单词的正确形式。(本大题共8分，每小题1分)
53. When I get up, I always say “Gd mrning.” t （向……打招呼）my parents.
54. Lingling wants t be a great （科学家）like Qian Xuesen.
55. Shanghai is a big (现代的）city with many big shpping malls.
56. （生物学）is my favurite subject.
57. Jurney t the West is an （excite）bk.
58. We shuldn’t care t much abut ur （lk).
59. There are （end）bks in the library fr us t read.
60. “Gd, （gd), best. Never let it rest.” Xu Yuanchng said t children n TV.
六、综合填空 阅读下面的短文，然后根据首字母提示填入一个单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。(本大题共5 分，每格0.5分)
We have a lt f prblems in ur life, but we have t face them. When yu are feeling unhappy r frget hw great yu are, there 61 (be) six ways t make yu feel gd abut yurself.
Lk in the mirrr and say t yurselves, “I’m a s 62 persn and there’s n ne in the wrld like me. I can d anything like anyne e 63 !” It may nt sund s gd, but it really wrks!
D smething nice fr smene. Helping thers always 64 (make) yu feel gd.
Smile! Try t be 65 (friend) t peple yu meet. Lk fr the gd things in yur friends and family and learn frm 66 (they).
Read and start a diary. If yu have any prblems r anything yu want, w 67 them dwn! Writing always helps t express(表达) yur feelings. When yu d that, things will be d 68 and yu will feel happy.
S 69 with yur feelings. It’s OK t feel sad r wrried. It’s a gd time t knw yurself.
We all need ur family time. Talk with yur Mum and Dad r maybe even yur cusin. They als want t knw 70 (much) abut yu because they care abut yu.
七、句型转换 根据要求，转换下列句子，每空一词。(本大题共5分，每空0.5分)
71. I’d like t play basketball with him. (改为一般疑问句)
_________ yu _________ t play basketball with him?
72. I d my hmewrk frm 19:00 t 20:00 every evening. (同义句转换)
I _________ abut an hur _________ my hmewrk every evening.
73. Beautiful flwers are all ver the garden.（同义句转换）
The garden _________ _________ _________ beautiful flwers.
74. Simn never ges t bed late.（对划线部分提问）
_________ _________ _________ Simn g t bed late?
八、完成句子 按所给的汉语，用英语完成下列句子。答案必须填写在答题卡相应的横线上，每格 限填一词。(本大题共10 分，每格0.5分)
75. 你准备好介绍自己了吗？
_________ yu _________ _________ _________ yurself?
76. 每个小组都应该轮流照顾绿植。
Each grup shuld _________ _________ t _________ _________ f plants.
77. 通过团队合作，你可以找到这个问题的答案。
Yu can find the _________ _________ the prblem _________ _________.
78. 张桂梅是中国的楷模之一。
Zhang Guimei is _________ _________ the _________ _________ in China.
79. 《黑神话：悟空》让全世界的人们有机会了解中国文化。
Black Myth: Wukng makes peple all ver the wrld _________ _________ _________ _________ Chinese culture.
九、回答问题 阅读下面短文，然后根据短文内容回答问题，每题答案不超过6个词。（每题1分，共5分）
D yu knw abut bees? Mikaila Ulmer, a 19-year-ld girl frm Texas, U.S., knws them well.
When Mikaila is just 4 years ld, she is stung (蜇) by bees twice in ne week. Mikaila is sad and afraid, s her mther tells her smething abut bees.
“Bees are very imprtant t peple, but they are in great danger because there are nt t many bees.” she says.
The news surprises Mikaila, and she changes her mind abut bees. Later, she gets a gift — a bk abut making lemnade（柠檬饮料）. Mikaila can’t wait t try it ut. She thinks f putting natural hney（蜂蜜）in the drink t make it taste gd. T her surprise, it really des.
Then Mikaila starts t sell the lemnade utside her huse. It is very ppular and many peple lve it. With the help f her mther, Mikaila starts her lemnade brand (品牌) Me & The Bees Lemnade, when she is just 11 years ld.
Nw, the brand has hit big in the U.S.. Mikaila als tries t tell peple abut the imprtance f bees. Her message abut bees is helping many beekeepers arund the wrld. What’s mre, Mikaila ften gives away mney t save bees.
Gd jb, Mikaila!
80. Hw des Mikaila feel after being stung by bees?
________________________________________________________________
81. What gift des Mikaila get?
________________________________________________________________
82. Where des Mikaila start t sell the lemnade?
________________________________________________________________
83. What des Mikaila try t tell peple?
________________________________________________________________
84. What d yu think f Mikaila?
________________________________________________________________
十、书面表达 (本大题共10分)
假设你是阳光中学七年级的学生李华，面对全新的初中生活，你一定有很多感触吧。请根据下列图表提示，以“My New Schl Life”为主题用英语写一封电子邮件，向你的英国笔友James介绍你的校园生活，以及对中学生活的感受。
要求：1. 语言通顺，意思连贯，条理清楚，要点全面，省略号处适当补充；
2. 词数80左右，文章的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数；
3. 文中不得出现真实的校名和人名。
Dear James,
I wuld like t tell yu smething abut my life at Sunshine Middle Schl.










What abut yur schl life? I hpe t hear frm yu sn.
All the best,
Li HuaFrank likes playing ftball
Time
He plays it 13 .
Frequency(频率)
He plays it 14 .
Place
He plays it 15 .
Pster
This is a great club fr yu t learn a new ______. Jin us and yu will pick up many new wrds sn.
Fund
Is this yur watch? It’s a black watch. I fund it n the playgrund. My name is Cindy. Yu can call me at 359-6634 r email me at cindy233@abc.cm.
Lst
I’m Linda. I lst a gld ring(戒指）. If yu find it, please call Bill r me. Bill’s phne number is 683-6612. My phne number is 485-6682.
Fund
Is this yur jacket? It’s a red jacket. And an ID card is in ne f its pckets. It is in the Lst and Fund bx. My name is Mike. My phne number is 239-6678. Please call me.
Lst
I’m David. I lst my pencil bx in the library. It is red. A green pen, a rubber and a white ruler are in it. If yu find it, please call me at 236-6627. Many thanks t yu.