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2023-2024学年安徽省黄山市八年级（上）期末英语试卷
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这是一份2023-2024学年安徽省黄山市八年级（上）期末英语试卷，共11页。
（满分：100分 时间：100分钟 密码：n21sudya）
第一部分 听力（共三大题，满分15分）
Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What des the man give the wman?
B.B. C.
2. When will the next lessn start?
A. B. C.
3. Where did Rick wrk?
A. In a htel.B. In a clthes shp.C. At a sprts center.
4. What did Carls d n Saturday evening?
A. He watched TV. B. He watched a mvie. C. He played vide games.
5. What did Michael wear t ffice last week?
A. A jacket. B. A T-shirt. C. A shirt.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. Hw ften des the by watch vides in class?
A. Smetimes. B.Often.C. Never.
7. What des the by think f learning thrugh vides?
A. He likes it. B. He desn’t mind it.C. He can’t stand it.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. Why is Bb ging t Edinburgh?
A. Fr the music festival. B. Fr the summer vacatin.C. Fr further study.
9. When will Bb g t a cncert?
A. On Thursday evening. B. On Friday evening. C. On Saturday evening.
10. What is Katy ging t d n Saturday?
A. Eat ut. B. Visit her sister. C. G shpping.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. When was the spelling cmpetitin?
A. On May 23rd. B. On May 26th.C. On May 28th.
12. Hw did Elsa feel after the cmpetitin?
A. Relaxed. B. Upset.C. Happy.
13. What des Ian read every night?
A. His dictinary. B. His strybk. C. His wrd cards.
14. Wh wn the cmpetitin?
A. Ian. B. Elsa. C. Rger.
15. What des Rger hpe t be ne day?
A. A reprter. B. A writer. C. A scientist.
第二部分 基础知识运用（85分）
Ⅳ.单项选择（本大题共15小题，共15分）
16.—Hell, David, I can’t find my ID card _______. Did yu see it?
—Srry, I didn’t.
A. everywhere B. anywhere C. smewhere D. nwhere
17.—Mrs. Smith, I have sme truble sleeping. Wuld yu mind _______ the music a bit?
—OK. _______.
A. turning n; N prblemB. turning ff; Certainly nt
C. turning up; It desn’t matterD. turning dwn; Of curse nt
18.—I dn’t knw hw t use WeChat payment. (微信支付）
—Ask Mary fr help. She has lts f ________ in using it.
A. energy B. spirit C. experience D. talent
19.There ________ tw ftball matches this weekend. If it rains, we have t put them ff.
A. is ging t be B. will beC. is ging t haveD. will have
20. ______useful advice yu give me! It helps me a lt.
A. What a B. Hw a C. What D. Hw
21. I can’t hear yu ________. Smething may be wrng with my telephne.
A. carefully B. ludly C. quietly D. clearly
22. It’s gd fr the fish t have ______water plants in the tank(鱼缸) t keep the water clean.
A. little B. a little C. few D. a few
23.—Ms. Huang, what wuld yu like_______ yur afternn tea?
—Just a cup f cffee_______ any sugar r milk.
A. fr; with B. t; withut C. fr; withut D. t; with
24. Yu can brrw this bk—surely yu _______watching it.
A. enjy B. will enjy C. enjyed D. have enjyed
25. We shuld believe that we can _____ t the wrld if we wrk hard n matter hw light the jb is.
A. lk frward B. make ur mind C. make a difference D. lk up
26.—I want t see Mr. White. We have an appintment(约定).
—I’m srry, but he is nt _______at the mment, fr the meeting isn’t ver.
A. busy B. friendly C. pssible D. available
27.—Mm, wuld yu buy me a bike like that, Please!
—Of curse. We can buy _______ ne, but_______ it.
A. a better ne; better thanB. a cheaper ne; nt better than
C. a cheaper ne; as gd asD. a better ne; nt as gd as
28. We shuldn’t talk ludly in the library s that everyne culd read ________.
A. in peace B. in danger C. in need D. in public
29. In Chinese families, peple wn’t start dinner________ the elders take their seats.
A. after B. when C. until D. because
30.—Cking helps us shw lve fr family members.
—________. Every time I make dishes fr them, they are very happy.
A. I can’t believe it.B. Take it easy.
C. I culdn’t agree mre.D. That’s all right.
Ⅴ.完形填空（每小题1分，满分20分）
A
I’m ging t have a party at hme tmrrw evening. I asked my mther 31 help me. This time I 32 t d everything by myself. I hpe t 33 the party a nice ne.
I 34 invitatins t all my gd friends this mrning. Nw I’m thinking abut 35 I shuld d tmrrw. I need t clean my huse 36 decrate（装饰）it tmrrw mrning. Tmrrw afternn I need t d sme shpping. I plan t 37 sme snacks, drinks and fruits. There are t many things t d, s I think it 38 be a very busy day fr me tmrrw.
The party will begin 39 6:30 pm. I will be 40 t play with my friends. Oh, I can’t wait!
31. A. will nt B. des nt C. nt t D. d nt
32. A. ask B. frget C. decide D. get
33. A. bring B. take C. let D. make
34. A. send B. sent C. have D. had
35. A. when B. why C. what D. which
36. A. but B. s C. r D. and
37. A. buy B. sell C. take D. eat
38. A. shuldn’t B. must C. may nt D. can’t
39. A. n B. in C. at D. frm
40. A. surprising B. surprised C. exciting D. excited
B
I gave a yung hmeless man sme mney this mrning. I dn’t usually give mney t beggars (乞丐) , 41 he lked very sad and it was just what I had in my pcket.
After that, I talked with him fr a while and gt t knw 42 mre abut him. He tld me abut what 43 t him last night. It began t rain at midnight and his sleeping bag gt 44
because f the sudden rain. He had t spend several hurs 45 it under a hand dryer in a fast fd restaurant.
Befre I left, he gave me sme stickers (贴纸). He said a child had given them t him. He wanted me t take them because he was 46 fr the mney I gave him, as well as the 47
I spend talking with him.
I didn’t have any use fr the stickers, but I 48 them anyway. I tld him it was nice f him t give them t me. We shuld 49 be afraid t help thers—if we give them lve, they will give us the 50 things in return.
41. A. ifB. rC. but D. s
42. A. many B. a little C. a lt f D. a few
43. A. changedB. left C. happened D. started
44. A. wetB. warm C. clean D. cld
45. A. tryingB. washing C. drying D. painting
46. A. srryB. thankful C. ready D. famus
47. A. fdB. mney C. time D. news
48. A. refusedB. bught C. received D. accepted
49. A. never B. always C. usually D. ften
50. A. different B. bringC. same D. bad
Ⅵ. 补全对话（每小题1分，满分5分）
A: Hey, Lisa. What abut ging t the mvies with me this weekend?
B: 51 I haven’t seen a film fr a lng time.
A: 52
B: Cmedies. But Beynd the Cluds is ppular amng students these days.
A: I heard f the film. My cusin watched it last Sunday.
B: 53
A: She lved it, and she was deeply mved by Zhang Guimei’s stry.
B: Great. Let’s watch it. 54
A: We can get the tickets n Meituan. They will be cheaper.
B: 55
A: Let me have a check. 50 yuan each.
B: OK. Let’s bk the tickets at nce.
A. That’s a gd idea.
B. Hw much is a ticket?
C. What did she think f it?
D. Where can we get the tickets?
E. When can we bk the tickets?
F. What kind f mvie d yu like?
G. Wh did she watch the film with?
Ⅶ. 阅读理解（每小题2分，满分30分）
A
Students in ur schl have a clrful schl life. We have Schl Activity Week every year. On the wall f the teaching building are the psters frm Grade 7, Grade 8 and Grade 9. Let’s g and have a lk.
56. The “stp smking” challenge lasts abut ________.
A. 7 daysB. 30 daysC. 120 daysD. 365 days
57. When we take part in the activity n May 12th, we can d all the activities EXCEPT ________.
A. buying bksB. getting new ways f reading
C. imprving reading skillsD. learning mre abut nature
58. If a bk in the shp is ten yuan, we can pay nly ________ yuan fr it in ur schl n May14th.
A. eightB. sevenC. threeD. tw
59. Wh des the writer write the passage fr?
A. Students.B. Parents.C. Teachers.D. Dctrs.
B
What will ur hmes be like in the future? Here are sme predictins:
◆Did I turn ff the lights? Did I clse the windw? Everyne may have a mment like that. But in the future, yur hme will check these fr yu.
◆In the future, yur hme will be mnitring（监测）yur health fr yu every day. Yur bed will tell yu yur weight changes and hw well yu sleep every night. Yur fridge will give yu advice n a healthier diet accrding t yur eating habits.
◆In yur smart hme f the future, all f yur devices（设备）can wrk tgether t make yur life mre cmfrtable. When yu turn n the lights in the mrning, yur windws will pen at the same time. The lights will slwly turn ff by themselves after the sun appears.
◆Yur hme may have dangers. The hackers（黑客）culd pen yur dr and cause a mess at yur hme thrugh yur phne r ther devices. Yur hme will tell yu abut it but yu can’t arrive in time. S peple will have t be careful f their persnal infrmatin.
60. In the future, what infrmatin will yu get as sn as yu wake up in the mrning?
A. Abut meals.B. Abut sleep.C. Abut exercise. D. Abut hbbies.
61. What will ur life be like in the future in smart hmes?
A. Very busy. B. Mre cmfrtable. C. Very safe.D. Mre bring.
62. What can we NOT learn frm the passage?
A. Yu dn’t need t wrry if yu frget t clse windws in the future.
B. Yur hme will let yu knw if smene pens the dr in the future.
C. The lights will turn ff by themselves when the sun cmes ut.
D. The hackers might cme int yur hme nly thrugh the phne.
63. What’s the best title f the passage?
A. Sme Beautiful HusesB. Sme Famus Predictins
C. Hmes f the Future D. A Better Wrld
C
Wh is the best teacher in Chinese histry？Many wuld say Cnfucius (孔子). Brn in 551 BC，Cnfucius was a great thinker. He taught abut 3，000 students and many f them became great thinkers, t.
Every September，peple celebrate Cnfucius’ birthday. They read his teachings and bw (鞠躬) t his picture.
Why d peple still lve him after s many years？It’s because his ideas help us in ur daily lives. His mst imprtant ideas are t be kind t thers, be hnest, and have gd manners (礼貌).
Cnfucius said that yung peple shuld take care f the ld. Brthers and sisters shuld lve each ther. Everyne shuld be strict with themselves, but be kind t thers. These ideas are nt nly ppular in China，but have als been welcmed in many ther places arund the wrld. Peple believe that the wisdm f Cnfucius will make the wrld better.
64. What is Cnfucius?
A. A musician. B. A reprter. C. An engineer.D. A thinker.
65. What can we learn frm Cnfucius?
A. We shuld be strict with thers.
B. We shuld be kind t urselves.
C. Brthers and sisters shuld lve each ther.
D. The ld peple shuld take care f the yung.
66. The underlined wrd “wisdm” in the passage means “________” in Chinese.
A. 祝福 B. 智慧 C. 尊重 D. 感恩
67. In which part f the newspaper can we read the text？
A. Sprts. B. Educatin. C. Science.D. Nature.
D
Disney’s new film Wish came ut in Chinese cinemas n Nv. 24. In the film, 17-year-ld Asha makes a wish t the sky. Star answers her and they g n a great adventure (冒险之旅).
D yu like t make wishes? In Australia, we like t make wishes in different ways, like making a wish n birthdays r thrwing cins int a wishing well (井).
I wuld smetimes make wishes at Christmas. One year, I left ckies and milk fr Santa Claus and wrte a nte t him:“Dear Santa, please tell my dad t stp smking. It is bad fr his health”. On Christmas Day, I saw the reply frm “Santa”. He wrte: “Dear Maddy, thank yu fr the ckies and milk. As fr yur dad stpping smking, that is smething he has t d fr himself.”
I felt a bit sad that Santa culdn’t help my dad. But it taught me smething imprtant: Only the persn himself r herself can really make smething cme true.
68. When did the film cme ut in Chinese cinemas? (不超过5个词)
69. What des Maddy want Santa Claus t d? (不超过15个词)
70. What can we learn frm her experience at Christmas? (不超过15个词)
Ⅷ. 单词拼写（每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
The factry p ______（污染）the river and makes it very dirty.
One f the r ______（原因）is that he desn’t like green at all.
I did badly in the English test but Lucy did much w ______（更差）than me.
I had a great time d ______（在……期间）my stay in Hainan.
It’s great t have a friend wh t ______（真正地）cares abut yu.
Ⅸ. 书面表达（满分10分）
寒假即将到来,请根据以下思维导图以李华的名义给英国的笔友Michael发一封电子邮件,谈谈你这一学期的校园生活并制定寒假计划。
要求：
1.内容必须包含思维导图中的提示，可适当发挥；
2.文中不得出现真实的人名、校名；
3.词数：80左右，开头与结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Michael,
I’m very glad t get yur email. I’d like t tell yu smething abut_____________________
Take care. Lk frward t yur email.
Yurs sincerely,
Li Hua Invite Yur Father t Jin Us!
Time: 09:00—12:00, May 10th
Place: Meeting Hall
★Jin in the ne-mnth “stp smking” challenge.
★Knw abut hw t give up smking.
★Ask yur father t jin us!
Fr Health!
Grade Seven
Be a Gd Reader!
Time: 13:30—16:30, May 12th
Place: Reading Hall
★Imprve yur reading skills and get new ways f reading.
★Learn abut nature.
★Read mre bks, share mre ideas and make new friends.
Fr Free!
Grade Eight
A Bk Sale t Raise Mney!
Time: 14:00—17:00, May14th
Place: Schl Playgrund
★Save 30% n each bk.
★Cme and buy different kinds f bks.
★Lk frward t yur cming.
Fr Educatin in pr areas!
Grade Nine
2023—2024学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级英语试题参考答案
第一部分 听力
Ⅰ.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1—5 C B C B C
Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
6—10 A A A C C
Ⅲ.短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
11—15 B B A C B
第二部分 基础知识运用
= 4 \* ROMAN IV. 单项选择（每小题1分，满分15分）
16—20 B D C B C 21—25 D D C B C 26—30 D C A C C
= 5 \* ROMAN V．完形填空（每小题1分，满分20分）
31—35 C C D B C 36— 40 D A B C D
41—45 C B C A C 46— 50 B C D A C
= 6 \* ROMAN VI. 补全对话 (每小题1分，满分5分)
51—55 A F C D B
Ⅶ. 阅读理解（每小题2分，满分30分）
56—59 B A B A 60—63 B B D C 64—67 D C B B
68. On Nv. 24.
69. She wants Santa Claus t tell her dad t stp smking. / T tell her dad t stp smking.
70. Only the persn himself r herself can really make smething cme true.
Ⅷ. 单词拼写（每小题1分，满分5分）
71. pllutes 72. reasns 73. wrse 74. during 75. truly
Ⅸ. 书面表达（满分10分）
Dear Michael，
I’m very glad t get yur email. I’d like t tell yu smething abut my schl life and my plan fr the winter hliday.
I was really busy this term. I had a lt f hmewrk t d. I felt t tired. Hwever, I did better in math than befre with the help f my math teacher. I am fnd f playing the pian. S I played it in my free time, especially when I felt sad.
Fr the cming vacatin, I plan t d mre reading and sprts. Reading brings me a bigger wrld. Ding sprts keeps me healthy. On weekends, I am ging t jin the singing club. I can learn a lt frm it.
Take care. Lk frward t yur email.
Yurs sincerely,
Li Hua
（满分：100分 时间：100分钟 密码：n21sudya）
第一部分 听力（共三大题，满分15分）
Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What des the man give the wman?
B.B. C.
2. When will the next lessn start?
A. B. C.
3. Where did Rick wrk?
A. In a htel.B. In a clthes shp.C. At a sprts center.
4. What did Carls d n Saturday evening?
A. He watched TV. B. He watched a mvie. C. He played vide games.
5. What did Michael wear t ffice last week?
A. A jacket. B. A T-shirt. C. A shirt.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. Hw ften des the by watch vides in class?
A. Smetimes. B.Often.C. Never.
7. What des the by think f learning thrugh vides?
A. He likes it. B. He desn’t mind it.C. He can’t stand it.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. Why is Bb ging t Edinburgh?
A. Fr the music festival. B. Fr the summer vacatin.C. Fr further study.
9. When will Bb g t a cncert?
A. On Thursday evening. B. On Friday evening. C. On Saturday evening.
10. What is Katy ging t d n Saturday?
A. Eat ut. B. Visit her sister. C. G shpping.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. When was the spelling cmpetitin?
A. On May 23rd. B. On May 26th.C. On May 28th.
12. Hw did Elsa feel after the cmpetitin?
A. Relaxed. B. Upset.C. Happy.
13. What des Ian read every night?
A. His dictinary. B. His strybk. C. His wrd cards.
14. Wh wn the cmpetitin?
A. Ian. B. Elsa. C. Rger.
15. What des Rger hpe t be ne day?
A. A reprter. B. A writer. C. A scientist.
第二部分 基础知识运用（85分）
Ⅳ.单项选择（本大题共15小题，共15分）
16.—Hell, David, I can’t find my ID card _______. Did yu see it?
—Srry, I didn’t.
A. everywhere B. anywhere C. smewhere D. nwhere
17.—Mrs. Smith, I have sme truble sleeping. Wuld yu mind _______ the music a bit?
—OK. _______.
A. turning n; N prblemB. turning ff; Certainly nt
C. turning up; It desn’t matterD. turning dwn; Of curse nt
18.—I dn’t knw hw t use WeChat payment. (微信支付）
—Ask Mary fr help. She has lts f ________ in using it.
A. energy B. spirit C. experience D. talent
19.There ________ tw ftball matches this weekend. If it rains, we have t put them ff.
A. is ging t be B. will beC. is ging t haveD. will have
20. ______useful advice yu give me! It helps me a lt.
A. What a B. Hw a C. What D. Hw
21. I can’t hear yu ________. Smething may be wrng with my telephne.
A. carefully B. ludly C. quietly D. clearly
22. It’s gd fr the fish t have ______water plants in the tank(鱼缸) t keep the water clean.
A. little B. a little C. few D. a few
23.—Ms. Huang, what wuld yu like_______ yur afternn tea?
—Just a cup f cffee_______ any sugar r milk.
A. fr; with B. t; withut C. fr; withut D. t; with
24. Yu can brrw this bk—surely yu _______watching it.
A. enjy B. will enjy C. enjyed D. have enjyed
25. We shuld believe that we can _____ t the wrld if we wrk hard n matter hw light the jb is.
A. lk frward B. make ur mind C. make a difference D. lk up
26.—I want t see Mr. White. We have an appintment(约定).
—I’m srry, but he is nt _______at the mment, fr the meeting isn’t ver.
A. busy B. friendly C. pssible D. available
27.—Mm, wuld yu buy me a bike like that, Please!
—Of curse. We can buy _______ ne, but_______ it.
A. a better ne; better thanB. a cheaper ne; nt better than
C. a cheaper ne; as gd asD. a better ne; nt as gd as
28. We shuldn’t talk ludly in the library s that everyne culd read ________.
A. in peace B. in danger C. in need D. in public
29. In Chinese families, peple wn’t start dinner________ the elders take their seats.
A. after B. when C. until D. because
30.—Cking helps us shw lve fr family members.
—________. Every time I make dishes fr them, they are very happy.
A. I can’t believe it.B. Take it easy.
C. I culdn’t agree mre.D. That’s all right.
Ⅴ.完形填空（每小题1分，满分20分）
A
I’m ging t have a party at hme tmrrw evening. I asked my mther 31 help me. This time I 32 t d everything by myself. I hpe t 33 the party a nice ne.
I 34 invitatins t all my gd friends this mrning. Nw I’m thinking abut 35 I shuld d tmrrw. I need t clean my huse 36 decrate（装饰）it tmrrw mrning. Tmrrw afternn I need t d sme shpping. I plan t 37 sme snacks, drinks and fruits. There are t many things t d, s I think it 38 be a very busy day fr me tmrrw.
The party will begin 39 6:30 pm. I will be 40 t play with my friends. Oh, I can’t wait!
31. A. will nt B. des nt C. nt t D. d nt
32. A. ask B. frget C. decide D. get
33. A. bring B. take C. let D. make
34. A. send B. sent C. have D. had
35. A. when B. why C. what D. which
36. A. but B. s C. r D. and
37. A. buy B. sell C. take D. eat
38. A. shuldn’t B. must C. may nt D. can’t
39. A. n B. in C. at D. frm
40. A. surprising B. surprised C. exciting D. excited
B
I gave a yung hmeless man sme mney this mrning. I dn’t usually give mney t beggars (乞丐) , 41 he lked very sad and it was just what I had in my pcket.
After that, I talked with him fr a while and gt t knw 42 mre abut him. He tld me abut what 43 t him last night. It began t rain at midnight and his sleeping bag gt 44
because f the sudden rain. He had t spend several hurs 45 it under a hand dryer in a fast fd restaurant.
Befre I left, he gave me sme stickers (贴纸). He said a child had given them t him. He wanted me t take them because he was 46 fr the mney I gave him, as well as the 47
I spend talking with him.
I didn’t have any use fr the stickers, but I 48 them anyway. I tld him it was nice f him t give them t me. We shuld 49 be afraid t help thers—if we give them lve, they will give us the 50 things in return.
41. A. ifB. rC. but D. s
42. A. many B. a little C. a lt f D. a few
43. A. changedB. left C. happened D. started
44. A. wetB. warm C. clean D. cld
45. A. tryingB. washing C. drying D. painting
46. A. srryB. thankful C. ready D. famus
47. A. fdB. mney C. time D. news
48. A. refusedB. bught C. received D. accepted
49. A. never B. always C. usually D. ften
50. A. different B. bringC. same D. bad
Ⅵ. 补全对话（每小题1分，满分5分）
A: Hey, Lisa. What abut ging t the mvies with me this weekend?
B: 51 I haven’t seen a film fr a lng time.
A: 52
B: Cmedies. But Beynd the Cluds is ppular amng students these days.
A: I heard f the film. My cusin watched it last Sunday.
B: 53
A: She lved it, and she was deeply mved by Zhang Guimei’s stry.
B: Great. Let’s watch it. 54
A: We can get the tickets n Meituan. They will be cheaper.
B: 55
A: Let me have a check. 50 yuan each.
B: OK. Let’s bk the tickets at nce.
A. That’s a gd idea.
B. Hw much is a ticket?
C. What did she think f it?
D. Where can we get the tickets?
E. When can we bk the tickets?
F. What kind f mvie d yu like?
G. Wh did she watch the film with?
Ⅶ. 阅读理解（每小题2分，满分30分）
A
Students in ur schl have a clrful schl life. We have Schl Activity Week every year. On the wall f the teaching building are the psters frm Grade 7, Grade 8 and Grade 9. Let’s g and have a lk.
56. The “stp smking” challenge lasts abut ________.
A. 7 daysB. 30 daysC. 120 daysD. 365 days
57. When we take part in the activity n May 12th, we can d all the activities EXCEPT ________.
A. buying bksB. getting new ways f reading
C. imprving reading skillsD. learning mre abut nature
58. If a bk in the shp is ten yuan, we can pay nly ________ yuan fr it in ur schl n May14th.
A. eightB. sevenC. threeD. tw
59. Wh des the writer write the passage fr?
A. Students.B. Parents.C. Teachers.D. Dctrs.
B
What will ur hmes be like in the future? Here are sme predictins:
◆Did I turn ff the lights? Did I clse the windw? Everyne may have a mment like that. But in the future, yur hme will check these fr yu.
◆In the future, yur hme will be mnitring（监测）yur health fr yu every day. Yur bed will tell yu yur weight changes and hw well yu sleep every night. Yur fridge will give yu advice n a healthier diet accrding t yur eating habits.
◆In yur smart hme f the future, all f yur devices（设备）can wrk tgether t make yur life mre cmfrtable. When yu turn n the lights in the mrning, yur windws will pen at the same time. The lights will slwly turn ff by themselves after the sun appears.
◆Yur hme may have dangers. The hackers（黑客）culd pen yur dr and cause a mess at yur hme thrugh yur phne r ther devices. Yur hme will tell yu abut it but yu can’t arrive in time. S peple will have t be careful f their persnal infrmatin.
60. In the future, what infrmatin will yu get as sn as yu wake up in the mrning?
A. Abut meals.B. Abut sleep.C. Abut exercise. D. Abut hbbies.
61. What will ur life be like in the future in smart hmes?
A. Very busy. B. Mre cmfrtable. C. Very safe.D. Mre bring.
62. What can we NOT learn frm the passage?
A. Yu dn’t need t wrry if yu frget t clse windws in the future.
B. Yur hme will let yu knw if smene pens the dr in the future.
C. The lights will turn ff by themselves when the sun cmes ut.
D. The hackers might cme int yur hme nly thrugh the phne.
63. What’s the best title f the passage?
A. Sme Beautiful HusesB. Sme Famus Predictins
C. Hmes f the Future D. A Better Wrld
C
Wh is the best teacher in Chinese histry？Many wuld say Cnfucius (孔子). Brn in 551 BC，Cnfucius was a great thinker. He taught abut 3，000 students and many f them became great thinkers, t.
Every September，peple celebrate Cnfucius’ birthday. They read his teachings and bw (鞠躬) t his picture.
Why d peple still lve him after s many years？It’s because his ideas help us in ur daily lives. His mst imprtant ideas are t be kind t thers, be hnest, and have gd manners (礼貌).
Cnfucius said that yung peple shuld take care f the ld. Brthers and sisters shuld lve each ther. Everyne shuld be strict with themselves, but be kind t thers. These ideas are nt nly ppular in China，but have als been welcmed in many ther places arund the wrld. Peple believe that the wisdm f Cnfucius will make the wrld better.
64. What is Cnfucius?
A. A musician. B. A reprter. C. An engineer.D. A thinker.
65. What can we learn frm Cnfucius?
A. We shuld be strict with thers.
B. We shuld be kind t urselves.
C. Brthers and sisters shuld lve each ther.
D. The ld peple shuld take care f the yung.
66. The underlined wrd “wisdm” in the passage means “________” in Chinese.
A. 祝福 B. 智慧 C. 尊重 D. 感恩
67. In which part f the newspaper can we read the text？
A. Sprts. B. Educatin. C. Science.D. Nature.
D
Disney’s new film Wish came ut in Chinese cinemas n Nv. 24. In the film, 17-year-ld Asha makes a wish t the sky. Star answers her and they g n a great adventure (冒险之旅).
D yu like t make wishes? In Australia, we like t make wishes in different ways, like making a wish n birthdays r thrwing cins int a wishing well (井).
I wuld smetimes make wishes at Christmas. One year, I left ckies and milk fr Santa Claus and wrte a nte t him:“Dear Santa, please tell my dad t stp smking. It is bad fr his health”. On Christmas Day, I saw the reply frm “Santa”. He wrte: “Dear Maddy, thank yu fr the ckies and milk. As fr yur dad stpping smking, that is smething he has t d fr himself.”
I felt a bit sad that Santa culdn’t help my dad. But it taught me smething imprtant: Only the persn himself r herself can really make smething cme true.
68. When did the film cme ut in Chinese cinemas? (不超过5个词)
69. What des Maddy want Santa Claus t d? (不超过15个词)
70. What can we learn frm her experience at Christmas? (不超过15个词)
Ⅷ. 单词拼写（每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
The factry p ______（污染）the river and makes it very dirty.
One f the r ______（原因）is that he desn’t like green at all.
I did badly in the English test but Lucy did much w ______（更差）than me.
I had a great time d ______（在……期间）my stay in Hainan.
It’s great t have a friend wh t ______（真正地）cares abut yu.
Ⅸ. 书面表达（满分10分）
寒假即将到来,请根据以下思维导图以李华的名义给英国的笔友Michael发一封电子邮件,谈谈你这一学期的校园生活并制定寒假计划。
要求：
1.内容必须包含思维导图中的提示，可适当发挥；
2.文中不得出现真实的人名、校名；
3.词数：80左右，开头与结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Michael,
I’m very glad t get yur email. I’d like t tell yu smething abut_____________________
Take care. Lk frward t yur email.
Yurs sincerely,
Li Hua Invite Yur Father t Jin Us!
Time: 09:00—12:00, May 10th
Place: Meeting Hall
★Jin in the ne-mnth “stp smking” challenge.
★Knw abut hw t give up smking.
★Ask yur father t jin us!
Fr Health!
Grade Seven
Be a Gd Reader!
Time: 13:30—16:30, May 12th
Place: Reading Hall
★Imprve yur reading skills and get new ways f reading.
★Learn abut nature.
★Read mre bks, share mre ideas and make new friends.
Fr Free!
Grade Eight
A Bk Sale t Raise Mney!
Time: 14:00—17:00, May14th
Place: Schl Playgrund
★Save 30% n each bk.
★Cme and buy different kinds f bks.
★Lk frward t yur cming.
Fr Educatin in pr areas!
Grade Nine
2023—2024学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级英语试题参考答案
第一部分 听力
Ⅰ.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1—5 C B C B C
Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
6—10 A A A C C
Ⅲ.短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
11—15 B B A C B
第二部分 基础知识运用
= 4 \* ROMAN IV. 单项选择（每小题1分，满分15分）
16—20 B D C B C 21—25 D D C B C 26—30 D C A C C
= 5 \* ROMAN V．完形填空（每小题1分，满分20分）
31—35 C C D B C 36— 40 D A B C D
41—45 C B C A C 46— 50 B C D A C
= 6 \* ROMAN VI. 补全对话 (每小题1分，满分5分)
51—55 A F C D B
Ⅶ. 阅读理解（每小题2分，满分30分）
56—59 B A B A 60—63 B B D C 64—67 D C B B
68. On Nv. 24.
69. She wants Santa Claus t tell her dad t stp smking. / T tell her dad t stp smking.
70. Only the persn himself r herself can really make smething cme true.
Ⅷ. 单词拼写（每小题1分，满分5分）
71. pllutes 72. reasns 73. wrse 74. during 75. truly
Ⅸ. 书面表达（满分10分）
Dear Michael，
I’m very glad t get yur email. I’d like t tell yu smething abut my schl life and my plan fr the winter hliday.
I was really busy this term. I had a lt f hmewrk t d. I felt t tired. Hwever, I did better in math than befre with the help f my math teacher. I am fnd f playing the pian. S I played it in my free time, especially when I felt sad.
Fr the cming vacatin, I plan t d mre reading and sprts. Reading brings me a bigger wrld. Ding sprts keeps me healthy. On weekends, I am ging t jin the singing club. I can learn a lt frm it.
Take care. Lk frward t yur email.
Yurs sincerely,
Li Hua
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