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    山东省临沂市2023-2024学年高一下学期7月期末考试英语试题(Word版附答案)

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    山东省临沂市2023-2024学年高一下学期7月期末考试英语试题(Word版附答案)

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    这是一份山东省临沂市2023-2024学年高一下学期7月期末考试英语试题(Word版附答案),共15页。


    2024.7
    本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
    注意事项:
    1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
    2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
    3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节(共5题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. Which fd des the wman prbably prefer?
    A. The bananas.B. The strawberries.C. The chclate cake.
    2. What des the man expect fr the new apartment?
    A. It has t be pet-friendly.
    B. It has t have tw bedrms.
    C. It has t have furniture included.
    3. What will the man prbably d first?
    A. Filling ut a frm.
    B. Drinking sme water.
    C. Ging t see the interviewer.
    4. Wh is Sarah Parker prbably?
    A. An actress.B. A directr.C. A cmmunity wrker.
    5. What is the survey abut?
    A. Public transprtatin.B. Learning at hme.C. Services fr ld peple.
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
    6. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
    A. In a fashin shw.B. In a clthes shp.C. In the speakers’ hme.
    7. What dcs the man like abut the shirt?
    A. The clr.B. The size.C. The quality.
    听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
    8. What is the relatinship between the speakers?
    A. Husband and wife.B. Dctr and patient.C. Sprts cach and custmer.
    9. Hw many days has the wman been in the challenge?
    A. Ten days.B. Twenty days.C. Thirty days.
    10. What d we knw abut the wman?
    A. She has lst sme weight recently.
    B. She wants t give up the challenge.
    C. She is full f energy after the diet.
    听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
    11. What type f grup is the wman creating?
    A. An nline language learning grup.
    B. An nline phtgraphy grup.
    C. An nline supprt grup.
    12. What des the wman think f the man’s first rule?
    A. It’s strange.B. It’s useless.C. It’s acceptable.
    13. Why des the man suggest using the real-name system?
    A. T help grup members knw each ther quickly.
    B. T create a gd cmmunicatin envirnment.
    C. T ensure the sefety f grup members.
    听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。
    14. What is the cnversatin mainly abut?
    A. Reading habits.B. An English class.C. A bk reprt.
    15. Hw des the wman usually get hme?
    A. By bus.B. On ft.C. By subway.
    16. What type f bks des the wman prbably like?
    A. Bks abut histry.B. Bks abut space travel.
    C. Bks abut famus peple.
    听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
    17. What des Amy prbably d?
    A. She is a travel writer.
    B. She is a culture researcher.
    C. She is a wildlife phtgrapher.
    18. Where did Amy get hurt?
    A. In England.B. In America.C. In China.
    19. What did Amy d with the ty lin during her recvery?
    A. She gave him away.B. She tk phts f him.
    C. She sent him n a wrld trip.
    20. What did Amy pst t make mney later?
    A. Phts abut her life.B. Phts f her friends.
    C. Phts f Jack.
    第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节(共11小题;每小题2.5分,满分27.5分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    Lcated in the heart f Eurpe, France ffers bike riders its beautiful landscapes, rich histry, and delicius fd. Here are fur f the mst ppular bike paths in France that shw the best f what France has t ffer t cycling lvers.
    The Lire Valley Rute
    Frm Blis t Angers Length: 800 km Time: 7-10 days
    This bike path is a jurney thrugh the ryal histry f France. It passes by the splendid castles f the Lire Valley, such as Chambrd and Chennceau. The rute is mstly flat, making a relaxing ride.
    The Canal des Deux Mers
    Frm Brdeaux t Tuluse Length: 360 km Time: 4-6 days
    This path cnnects the Atlantic Ocean with the Mediterranean Sea. Bike riders will experience a mix f city landscapes, vineyards and the peaceful cuntryside. The path, relatively flat, with a few gentle inclines (斜坡), is well-suited fr cyclists f all abilities.
    The Côte d' Azur Rute
    Frm Hyères t Mentn Length: 230 km Time: 3-4 days
    Fr thse seeking castal beauty and a tuch f attractin, this rute ffers a ride alng the French Riviera. It’s a fairly challenging rute with sme steep climbs but prvides views f the Mediterranean.
    The Alsace Wine Rute
    Frm Selestat t Thann Length: 170 km Time: 3-5 days
    This rute is a perfect fr fd lvers, ffering a-scenic tur thrugh the vineyards f Alsace. The flat grund prvides plenty f pprtunities t enjy lcal wines and cking.
    21. Which rute lasts the lngest time?
    A. The Lire Valley Rute.B. The Canal des Deux Mers.
    C. The Côte d' Azur Rute.D. The Alsace Wine Rute.
    22. What is unique abut the Canal des Deux Mers rute?
    A. It is the mst challenging rute.
    B. It satisfies riders f different levels.
    C. Riders can learn the ryal histry f France.
    D. It cnnects the cities arund the Mediterranean.
    23. If a rider is fnd f fd, which rute will he prefer?
    A. The Canal des Deux Mers.B. The Lire Valley Rute.
    C. The Côte d' Azur Rute.D. The Alsace Wine Rute.
    B
    Within 60 secnds f hearing a bell ring, firefighters are dressed and rushing tward a high-rise n fire. They have t head inside, knwing that flrs culd fall dwn under them and rfs culd fall n their heads. One wrng decisin might mean death.
    Wh wuld sign up fr a jb like that? Ask firefighter Sam Telfer. He used t sit in a high-rise ffice f a sftware cmpany in San Dieg, Califrnia. Nw he is trained t break int rms full f blinding smke and verwhelming heat and cme up with a rescue strategy.
    “I wanted t learn new and practical skills and have a jb that varied day by day.” That’s quite an understatement t describe a career that requires yu t keep a cl head while attacking a fire. But Telfer says that fires and tensin can be cnquered in the same way: nging physical and mental training.
    Telfer was a runner in cllege, but nwadays he builds up his lung ability fr life-threatening cnditins instead f races. He might climb hundreds f steps, wearing 34 kilgrams f gear(装备), including xygen tanks. He may carry sufferers t safety. N matter what he des, he must cntrl his breathing.
    His survival will depend n mre than bdy fitness. Firefighters must have sufficient mental preparatin. T respnd t disasters effectively, they study a wide range f subjects such as emergency (紧急) medicine, structural(结构的) design and chemical reactins. They practice quickly judging the changing cnditins f a fire. “It is why we lve the jb,” Telfer says. “We are cntinuusly learning.”
    Ging frm being a sftware specialist t a first respnder was quite a transitin fr Telfer. Never culd he have imagined the challenges he wuld face. But he says, “Nt nce have I ever felt that it was nt the right jb fr me.” Danger might be waiting as he heads t wrk each day. But his bdy and mind are trained t stay calm, even in the rar f a great fire.
    24. Why did Telfer change his jb?
    A. He wuld like t challenge himself.
    B. He wanted t get a high paying jb.
    C. He had been dreaming f being a firefighter.
    D. He was unfit fr wrking in a sftware cmpany.
    25. What d firefighters need t survive the fire?
    A. They need strng lung ability fr races.
    B. They need t study hw t design buildings.
    C. They need mre bdy health than mental preparatin.
    D. They need mental preparatin in additin t bdy health.
    26. What can we learn abut Telfer frm the last paragraph?
    A. He regrets leaving the sftware cmpany.
    B. He has faced many difficulties in his frmer jb.
    C. He finds his jb challenging but still a right chice.
    D. He nce thught f giving up the jb as a firefighter.
    27. What can be a suitable title fr the text?
    A. A Firefighting Her
    B. Firefighters T The Rescue
    C. Firefighter: A Challenging Jb
    D. Frm A Sftware Specialist T A First Respnder
    C
    Out f a ttal f 308, 000 entries in the Oxfrd English Dictinary, just 366 wrds begin with the letter “x”, and very few f thse make it int mst peple’s vcabulary. Hwever, the letter is welcmed in ppular culture and by brands, such as X-Files, X-Factr, X-man, X-rays and Planet X.
    The letter “x” has had smewhat puzzling –histry, perhaps cntributing t its malleable(可塑的) meanings. It first came frm a Phenician letter called “samekh”, meaning fish. The Creeks brrwed it, called it “Chi”, used it fr the “kh” sund and wrte it as a crss. The Rmans later adpted the “x” sund frm Chalcidian alphabet (字母表), a Western variant f the Greek alphabet, and cmbined it with the “Chi” ( x) symbl and “x” as we knw it tday was brn.
    The tech industry seems t have a particular preference fr the letter. This week, the 24th letter f the alphabet was the fcus f the sptlight nce again, as Eln Musk annunced an unexpected rename f Twitter — the scial media cmpany he bught in Octber 2022 fr $44 bn. The site’s icnic(图标的) blue bird lg is n mre, replaced by a black letter “X”, part f Musk’s lng-term plan t be a “platfrm that can deliver, well ... everything.” And he als named an early Tesla car Mdel X, and his space explratin prgramme Space X.
    Besides Musk’s X , there’s Micrsft’s gaming cnsle Xbx, Sny’s Xperia smartphne, Apple’s iPhne X and perating system OS X. In 2010, Ggle chse the letter fr the name f its secret idea-testing labratry, first knwn as Ggle x and nw simply X.
    S why d the tech giants prefer “x”, this ne single letter, when there are 25 thers they culd use instead? Tny Thrne, Directr f the Slang and New Language Archive at King’s Cllege, Lndn, thught its shape can signify everything frm lve ( the kiss we used t end ur emails and texts), t absence, and even death ( as with the skull and crssbnes ). “It’s impressive and peple see it as an attempt t appear enigmatic- a symbl f unknwns and pssibilities,” he tells BBC Culture.
    28. What des paragraph 2 mainly talk abut?
    A. Hw the letter “x” changed the histry.
    B. Hw the letter “x” was created by the Greeks.
    C. Hw the letter “x” develped and came int being.
    D. Hw the letter “x” was riginally used by Phenicians.
    29. Why are ther tech cmpanies mentined in paragraph 4?
    A. T stress the imprtance f the letter.
    B. T list the reasns why they prefer the letter.
    C. T further shw tech cmpanies favr the letter.
    D. T prvide the histrical backgrund f the letter.
    30. What des the underlined wrd “enigmatic” mean in the last paragraph?
    A. Attractive.B. Mysterius.C. Typical.D. Intelligent.
    31. What can we knw abut the letter “x”?
    A. Its shape seldm appears in ur daily life.
    B. It’s pwerful and charming in the tech industry.
    C. Wrds that begin with the letter are widely used.
    D. The sunds f the letter are the same thrugh histry.
    第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    At times we all wish that we knew what ther peple were thinking. Frtunately, peple’s facial expressins, mvements and psitins can cmmunicate a lt abut what is ging n in their minds. 32 , but Je Navarr’s bk What Everybdy is Saying can help develp that ability.
    Accrding t Navarr, establishing a baseline fr hw a persn behaves is imprtant. 33 . Mst facial expressins and psitins can mean several different things, s figure ut when peple use certain expressins. Recgnizing this baseline can help yu understand whether expressins and psitins indicate a reactin t smething yu said r nt.
    34 . Even when peple dn’t lie directly, they smetimes try t hide their feelings. Whether yu are cmmunicating with peple in business r in yur persnal life, recgnizing these feelings can help yu lk ut fr their interests and yur wn.
    When peple think f bdy language, the first thing that cmes t mind is the facial expressins. Sme peple have becme gd at cntrlling their facial expressins t hide their emtins. When dealing with smene like that, lk at the rest f their bdies, especially their feet and legs. 35 . Hwever, if smene feels uncmfrtable, they may pint their feet away frm the persn they are speaking t.
    Nearness t ther peple is part f bdy language. Peple stand clser t peple they like r feel cmfrtable with than t strangers r peple they dn’t like. 36 . Sitting r standing up straight can shw that smene feels cnfident, while sitting with crssed arms indicates that they feel defensive r uncmfrtable.
    Bdy language can cmmunicate a lt abut peple’s thughts and feelings, and thus, help yu understand them.
    A. And psitin als matters
    B. Fcusing n bdy language can be beneficial t us
    C. They tend t keep a distance frm peple they dislike.
    D. It can help t avid misunderstanding their bdy language
    E. Many peple tap their feet when they are-happy r excited
    F. Small changes in bdy language can help yu recgnize if smene is lying
    C. Understanding these messages hidden in peple's bdy language can require many skills
    第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分40分)
    第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    A Human Chain, as they called themselves, risking their lives t rescue tw bys frm drwning(溺水), is still remembered.
    One sunny afternn, n the Sunny Beach, tw bys, Mike and Jim, walked int the waves withut the adults 37 . When abut 80 yards frm the shre, they realized the sea 38 them further and further. Having tried but 39 t g back, they waved and screamed fr help 40 , the life guards were ff duty.
    The brthers had been 41 desperately(拼命地) when a cuple, Jane and Alex, wandered by. They didn’t see the bys at first, but they 42 their screams.
    Withut hesitatin, the cuple 43 int the water and sn reached the bys. Jane 44 the scared bys, telling them they wuld be safe, nly t find they, t, were nw 45 . They culdn’t g back t the 46 and culd hardly hit the sandy bttm with their 47 .Minutes later, Jane decided they were 48 in a scaring whirlpl(旋涡).
    Just then, 42 turists were walking t them, hand in hand, frming a( an) 49 . Sn the first persn held Jane’s hand. By turns, her husband and the tw bys 50 her. The lng line mved steadily back t the beach.
    The rescuers called it the Human Chain. And it was the deeply “human” aspect f the rescuers’ team wrk that made it s amazing and 51 .
    37. A. nticingB. helpingC. inspiringD. training
    38. A. drveB. preventedC. sailedD. pulled
    39. A. fearedB. failedC. chseD. pretended
    40. A. DefinitelyB. UnfrtunatelyC. NrmallyD. Eventually
    41. A. strugglingB. cmplainingC. surfingD. rushing
    42. A. describedB. cpiedC. heardD. cntrlled
    43. A. limpedB. trippedC. jumpedD. lked
    44. A. greetedB. calmedC. blamedD. frgave
    45. A. in dangerB. at easeC. in tearsD. n bard
    46. A. dckB. shipC. tentD. shre
    47. A. armsB. handsC. feetD. sticks
    48. A. trappedB. gatheredC. ignredD. sptted
    49. A. accessB. ladderC. circleD. line
    50. A. replacedB. huggedC. jinedD. assisted
    51. A. reliableB. jyfulC. satisfyingD. memrable
    第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    In the Chinese traditinal culture, the 24 slar terms stand as a symbl f the ancient wisdm and deep cnnectin with nature. These slar terms 52 (riginate) frm the Han Dynasty ( arund 200 BCE), serving as a calendar that divides the year int exact parts, each reflecting changes in climate, natural phenmena, and agricultural practices. Fr thusand years, the 24 slar terms 53 ( influence) Chinese peple’s way f thinking and behavir, amng 54 the Summer Slstice, r Xiazhi(夏至), plays an imprtant rle.
    As the sun reaches its 55 (high ) pint in the sky, casting its lngest and warmest sunlight upn the Eart, the Chinese calendar marks a significant milestne 56 (knw) as the Summer Slstice. This slar term, 57 (ccur) arund June 21st each year, signals nt nly the fficial start f summer but als the nature f vitality, grwth, and the Yang energy in traditinal Chinese philsphy.
    Nwadays, peple acrss China enjy different fds 58 ndles, sups and prridge t celebrate the Summer Slstice. These custms highlight the imprtance f the sun and seasns in peple’s lives. In Chinese philsphy, Yin and Yang represent cmplementary (互补的) frces. The Summer Slstice is als a 59 (remind) f the imprtance f balance in life. Fr us, bserving the Summer Slstice ffers 60 pprtunity t cnnect with nature, appreciate the beauty f seasnal transitins, 61 perhaps participate in traditinal activities that strengthen a sense f cmmunity and cultural identity.
    第三节 词汇考查(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    结合句意,根据汉语提示使用单词的正确形式完成句子,每空只填一个单词。
    62. After realizing the mistake, he immediately ______ (道歉) t his friend.
    63. Dn’t judge peple by their appearance; smetimes even the mst beautiful pnds are quite ______(浅的).
    64. The ld huse ______ (属于) t his family fr fur generatins has been dnated t the lcal gvernment.
    65. Only members are______(准许进入) t the club’s VIP area.
    66. I’m writing t express my______(祝贺)t yu n winning the first prize in the English Speech Cntest.
    67. Judy and I had ur car parked in an undergrund car park near Trafalgar Square, where we culd get ur car battery ______(充电).
    68. China successfully ______ (发射) a multi-missin cmmunicatin satellite fr Pakistan using a Lng March-3B rcket last mnth.
    69.The bk was s fascinating that I was ttally______ (专注) in it.
    70. The theatre under______(建设)nw will be cmpleted in abut three years.
    71. When yu apply fr a psitin, yur ______(先前的) experience gives yu an advantage in the hiring prcess.
    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节 应用文(满分15 分)
    假如你是李华,你校上周六成功举办了校园民俗音乐节。请你为校英文报写一篇报道,内容包括:
    1.活动目的和内容;
    2.活动感受。
    注意:
    1.写作词数应为80左右;
    2请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    第二节(满分25分)
    阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
    Ruby was ever s prud f her new skates! She put them n right away and was sn rushing alng the sidewalk. Her little brther Max culd nly watch in envy (羡慕). “I wish I had a pair!”, he tld his mum. “Well, yu’re nearly big enugh t wear Ruby’s ld skates,” she replied. “Oh, can I?” Max asked.
    But when Max tried n Ruby’s ld skates, they were t big. “Yu’ll just have t wait until yu’ve grwn up a bit,” said his mum. But Max culdn’t wait. He filled newspaper int the bts until they fitted and then tried t stand up in them again ... and again! Each time, he fell ver. Finally, he gave up and sat n the grund, watching Ruby as she skated arund him.
    “We shuld put n a skating display!” Ruby decided. “All ur aunts, uncles and cusins will cme. Yu’ll watch me, wn’t yu, Max?” Max sighed (叹气). He didn’t want t watch the shw! He wanted t be in it!
    “Pr Max!” said his mum. “Lk what I’ve gt!” She held up a pair f thick red scks. “If yu put these n, the skates will fit better.” Max pulled the scks n, and then his skates. When he std up shakily, he was sure he wuld fall ver again - and he did.
    “Maybe yu’ve tried enugh fr tday?” suggested his mum. It started t rain. When he gt inside, Max pulled ff his thick scks. “It’s funny. They lk very small nw!” he said. “Yes, they’re magic scks,” his mum replied with a smile. Max asked, “Really?!” “Yes,” she said. “They stretch(拉伸) t fit mst feet.…”
    When mum left the rm, Max put the scks n and tried skating in his bedrm. He didn’t fall ver! He tried again. He still didn’t fall. He culd nw skate — thanks t his magic scks! Hray! Hw he lnged t g ut and shw everyne ... but it was still raining.
    In fact, it rained nn-stp fr days, and Max spent that time practising his skating in his bedrm. He even tried tricks like jumps and turns, knwing his magic scks wuld help him. It was brilliant!
    注意:
    1.续写词数应为150个左右;
    2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    A Campus Flk Music Festival
    The day f the shw finally arrived.
    “But yu’re nt wearing thse scks!” smiled his mum.
    高一期末考试英语试题
    参考答案 2024.07
    第一部分 听力 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
    1~5 CABAA 6~10 BCCBA 11~15 BCBAC 16~20 BABCC
    第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分40分)
    第一节(共11小题;每小题2.5分,满分27.5分)
    21~23 ABD 24~27 ADCD 28~31 CCBB
    第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
    32~36 GDFEA
    第三部分 语言运用 (共三节,满分40分)
    第一节 完形填空 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    37~41 ADBBA 42~46 CCBAD 47~51 CADCD
    第二节 语篇填空 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    52. rigniated 53. have influenced/ have been influencing 54. which 55. highest 56. knwn 57. ccurring 58. like 59. reminder 60. an 61. and
    第三节 词汇考查 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    62. aplgized/aplgised 63. shallw 64. belnging 65. admitted 66. cngratulatins 67. charged 68. launched 69. absrbed/buried 70. cnstructin 71. previus
    第四部分 写作 (满分40分)
    (满分15分)
    One Pssible versin:
    A Campus Flk Music Festival
    Last Saturday witnessed an extrardinary campus flk music festival held in ur schl hall, whse aim was t prmte excellent traditinal Chinese culture and enrich ur schl life .
    The pening ceremny started at 9:00 with a speech delivered by ur headmaster. Then fllwed varius wnderful perfrmances given by talented students, including singing, dancing and instrumental music playing. The highlight was the interactive sessins where audience can sing alng.
    This festival was truly a feast which nt nly pened up a stage t shwcase the students’ talents and passin, but als enhanced ur taste f the flk music.

    应用文写作评分标准
    一、 评分细则
    1. 本题总分为15分,分五个档次进行评分。
    2. 评分时应主要从内容组织、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑。具体为:
    (1)对于内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
    (2)使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
    (3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
    3. 评分时,先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量确定或调整档次,最后给分。
    4. 评分时还应注意:
    (1)词数少于60的,酌情扣分。
    (2)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面,评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑,英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
    (3)书写较差,以至影响交际的将分数降低一个档次。
    二、各档次的给分范围和要求
    第五档:(13-15)能写明全部要点,语言基本无误,行文连贯,表达无误。
    第四档:(10-12)能写明全部或绝大部分要点,语言有少量错误,行文不够连贯,表达基本清楚。
    第三档:(7-9)能写明基本要点,语言虽有较多错误,但能基本达意。
    第二档:(4-6)能写出部分要点,语言错误多,影响意思表达。
    第一档:(1-3)只能写出一两个要点,里面错误很多,只有个别句子正确。
    (满分25分)
    One pssible versin:
    The day f the shw finally arrived. Quickly putting n his red scks and skates, he hurried utside. When he skated up t them n ne ft, they stared in amazement. They culdn’t believe it! Everything went perfectly! Their audience gasped as the tw siblings did their special skating tricks, turns and jumps — and when it was ver, they clapped and cheered. Max had never been mre prud! “Max, yu’re magic!” cried Ruby. Max grinned at her and stated,“N, my scks certainly were!”
    “But yu’re nt wearing thse scks!” smiled his mum. “I put them in the wash this mrning.”Max stared at her, and then at his magic scks, which were hanging n the washing line. “Then what...” he asked, lking dwn. “I gave yu a pair f Ruby’s red ftball scks t wear instead,” laughed his mum. Max was s surprised, he nearly fell ver. But then he tried a turn. He culd still skate — even withut his magic scks! “Yu didn’t need magic t skate,” said his mum.“Yu just needed t practise and believe in yurself!” And she was right!
    读后续写评分标准
    一、评分原则:
    1. 本题总分为25分,按五个档次进行评分。
    2. 评分时,应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑,具体为:
    (1)续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
    (2)所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
    (3)语句间的衔接和全文的连贯性。
    3. 评分时,应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次,然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
    4. 评分时还应注意:
    (1)词数少于120的,酌情扣分;
    (2)书写较差以致影响交际的,酌情扣分;
    (3)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面,评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑,英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
    二、各档次的给分范围和要求:
    附 听力原文:
    Text 1
    M: Mm, I want t aplgize fr shuting at yu earlier. ①I made yu a chclate cake, and prepared sme bananas and strawberries as an aplgy.
    ①本句中chclate cake之间存在“失去爆破”现象:chclate最后一个音为爆破音/t/,cake第一个音为爆破音/k/,两者遇到一起,前面的爆破音做出发音的准备,但并不发音。
    W: Oh, yu’re s sweet! Thank yu. I lve chclate. (1)
    Text 2
    M: Hi, I’m lking t rent an apartment. D yu have anywhere pets are allwed? (2)
    W: Yes, we have several apartments that meet yur requirements, and all are equipped with furniture. D yu need ne r tw bedrms?
    M: Tw rms are t much f a waste fr me.
    Text 3
    M: Gd mrning, I’m here fr a jb interview.
    W: Yu’re the first ne here. Please fill ut this frm while yu wait.
    M: I will d that. Can I get a cup f water first? (3)
    Text 4
    M: Did yu see that they are filming a mvie in ur neighbrhd?
    W: Yes, they’ve been there since 7:00 a.m. I saw Sarah Parker n the way. She was talking with the directr abut the lines. (4)
    M: Sarah Parker? I might g and watch them filming.
    Text 5
    M: Excuse me, wuld yu mind taking a quick survey? It’s fr a schl prject.
    W: Of curse, yung man. I’m nt in a hurry t g hme. What is it abut?
    M: We’re gathering pinins n public transprtatin in the city and hw t imprve thse public services. (5)
    Text 6 (第6题为推断题)
    M: D yu like this shirt? (7)
    W: Yeah, it fits yu perfectly. This is just the right size.
    M: Shuld I get the blue r the green ne?
    W: Blue ges well with yur jeans. It’s the fashin this year. Hw much is it?
    M: It’s $100.
    W: That’s far t expensive fr a shirt. Let’s g hme and have a lk nline t see if we can get it cheaper.
    M: But this shirt is made f gd material. It’s cmfrtable t wear and can last fr years. (7)
    W: OK. It’s yur mney.
    Text 7 (第8题为推断题)
    M: There are nly ten days left fr the thirty-day fitness challenge. (9) Hw are yu feeling?
    W: I’m tired and hungry all the time.
    M: That’s perfectly natural. That’s just yur bdy getting used t wrking ut mre. Yu just fllw ur diet and wrkut plan. It helps yu burn mre fat and gain mre muscle. D yu feel fitter?
    W: Yes, I have been dwn 4 kg since I started. (10) That gives me a bit mre hpe.
    M: Great. S fr tday, let’s d a 5-km cycle.
    W: OK.
    Text 8
    M: What are yu ding, Janine?
    W: I’m cming up with sme rules fr an nline phtgraphy grup I’m creating. (11)
    M: Why d yu need rules?
    W: I wuld have t clse the grup if peple kept leaving bad cmments abut ther peple’s phtgraphs.
    M: Well, there’s yur first rule: ②Dn’t be s quick t judge ther peple’s wrk.(↘) (12)
    W: Oh, that’s exactly what I’m thinking. (12)
    M: And they shuld pay attentin t their wrds. If they use implite wrds, they shuld be blcked.
    W: That’s true.
    M: Yu culd als ask peple t use their real names in the grup. They will be less likely t say bad things if peple knw wh they are. (13)
    ②本句是祈使句,读时用降调。
    W: Yu’re right, and that will ensure better cmmunicatin. (13)
    Text 9 (第14题为总结题)
    M: Mary, yu always seem t be reading a bk.
    W: I just like t make gd use f my time. It’s fr next week’s English class.
    M: I haven’t even started that yet.
    W: Well, if yu read a few pages a day, yu’ll be less stressed when the deadline cmes. Dn’t frget we als need t finish a reading reprt.
    M: OK. S d yu always read in schl?
    W: N, I usually read n the subway hme. (15) One day, ③I was s attracted by what was happening n the page that I missed my stp and had t walk back.
    M: Yes, bks have the pwer t bring yu int their wrld.
    W: What type f bks d yu like t read?
    M: Bks abut imprtant peple in histry. I prefer true stries.
    W: I’m the ppsite. I like bks set in space. (16)
    M: Anyway, I’ll let yu get back t yur bk. See yu in class.
    W: Bye, Jack.
    ③本句中walk back之间存在“失去爆破”现象:walk最后一个音为爆破音/k/,back第一个音为爆破音/b/,两者遇到一起,前面的爆破音做出发音的准备,但并不发音。
    Text 10
    Amy lved t travel s much that she turned it int her career. (17) (18) She lved seeing new places, experiencing new cultures, and sharing them in her bks. (17) She had a ty lin named Jack wh was with her everywhere. (20) She wuld take phts f him at famus sights. Hwever, during a trip t the U.S., she fell and brke her leg. (18) Because it was hard t take care f herself, she decided t g back t her mm and dad’s huse in England while she recvered. Amy was very sad because she culd nt d the thing she lved mst. One day, she saw Jack, and then she had an idea. She sent Jack t a friend in China, asked her friend t take a pht f Jack, and then sent him n t smene else. (19) During Amy’s recvery, her lucky ty lin traveled arund the wrld and back, with all the phts being sent t Amy. (19) (20) This allwed Amy t keep psting pictures and make a living. (20)
    档 次
    描 述
    第五档
    (21-25)
    ----创造了丰富、合理的内容,富有逻辑性,续写完整,与原文情境融洽度高;
    ----使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,表达流畅,可能有个别小错,但完全不影响理解;
    ----有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段,全文结构清晰,前后呼应,意义连贯;
    第四档
    (16-20)
    ----创造了比较丰富、合理的内容,比较有逻辑性,续写比较完整,与原文情境融洽度较高;
    ----使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,表达比较流畅,可能有些许错误,但不影响理解;
    ----比较有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段,全文结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯;
    第三档
    (11-15)
    ----创造了基本合理的内容,有一定的逻辑性,续写基本完整,与原文情境有关联;
    ----使用了简单的词汇和语法结构,有一些错误和不恰当之处,但基本不影响理解;
    ----基本有效的使用了语句间的衔接手段,全文结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。
    第二档
    (6-10)
    ----内容和逻辑有一些重大问题,续写不完整,与原文情境有一定程度的脱节;
    ----所用的词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误较多,且比较低级,影响理解;
    ----未能有效的使用语句间的衔接手段,全文结构不够清晰,意义不够连贯;
    第一档
    (1-5)
    ----内容或逻辑有较多重大问题,或部分内容抄自原文,续写不完整,与原文情境基本脱节;
    ----所使用的词汇有限,语法结构简单,错误较多,严重影响理解;
    ----几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯;
    0
    ----未做答,所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判;
    ----所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。

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