辽宁省丹东市东港市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中质量监测英语试题

这是一份辽宁省丹东市东港市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中质量监测英语试题，共10页。

考试时间：90 分钟 试卷满分: 100 分
第一卷 选择题
Ⅰ.听录音，按要求完成任务。
从各题选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将符合题意的选项写在题前括号内。 (15分)
i.听句子，选择最佳答语。每个句子读一遍。 (2.5分)
( )1. A. N,I can't. B. Sunds gd! C. Srry.
( )2. A. In the mrning. B. At 6:00 a. m. C. At night.
( )3. A. N! B. Nice t meet yu. C. Thank yu.
( )4. A. I'm srry. B. I dn't knw. C. It desn't matter.
( )5. A. They're my favrite bks.
B. Because they are interesting.
C. We can see them in the z.
.听五段短对话，选择正确答案。每段对话读一遍。(2.5 分)
( )6. What des the by have t d?
A. Wash the clthes. B. Make dinner. C. Clean the rm.
( )7. What's Jenny ding?
A. Washing her clthes. B. Washing the dishes. C. Making sup.
( )8. What can Ann d?
A. She can sing. B. She can dance. C. She can draw.
( )9. Where are Sue and her father nw?
A. In a z. B. In a library. C. At a supermarket.
( ) 10. When des Jim usually get up in the mrning?
A. At 5:00. B. At 5:30. C. At 7:00.
iii.听两段较长对话，选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话， 回答第 11-12题。
( ) 11. What is Maria ding?
A. Ding her hmewrk. B. Watching a mvie. C. Watching TV.
( ) 12. Wh is playing tennis?
A. Karl. B. Bb. C. Jack.
听第二段对话， 回答第 13-15题
( )13. Wh is Le?
A. He is Mike's friend. B. He is Mike's uncle. C. He is Jane's friend.
( )14. What des Le d?
A. A sprts hst. B. A sccer player. C. A student.
( ) 15. When des Jane usually g t bed?
A. At 8:30. B. At 9:30. C. At 10:00.
iv.听短文，选择正确答案。短文读两遍。 (5分)
( )16. What time is it nw?
A. It's 2:00 a. m. B. It's 10:00 a. m. C. It's 10:00 p. m.
( ) 17. Where are the students?
A. In the classrm. B. At Lisa's hme. C. In the library.
( ) 18. Wh is gd at playing chess?
A. Lisa and Mike. B. David and Alice. C. Jeff and Jack.
( ) 19. Why des Tina like listening t music?
A. Because she thinks it's bring.
B. Because she thinks it's funny.
C. Because she thinks it's relaxing.
( )20. What is Tm ding nw?
A. He is talking with Jeff. B. He is reading a bk. C. He is drinking water.
Ⅱ.单项选择
A (从各题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将符合题意的选项写在题前括号内。每小题 1 分, 共 10分)
( )21.下面哪一个单词的重读音节标记得不正确?
A. vilin/ ˌvaɪə'lɪn/ B. remember /rI'membə/
C. between/ 'bItwi:n/ D. elephant/ 'elIfənt l
( )22.下面句子四个选项中，哪个不可以连读?
It's a gd habit t get up early and take a shwer every mrning.
A B C D
( )23.下面四个句子中哪一个句尾应该读升调?
A. Why d yu like pandas? B. Is he reading a newspaper?
C. He can sing very beautifully. D. What d yu have t d?
( )24. Jhn his bike t the bus stp every mrning.
A. takes B. rides C. drives D. walks
( )25. Ice cream is unhealthy, s I eat it.
A. always B. usually C. smetimes D. never
( )26. I like the beef sup because it nice.
A. tastes B. sunds C. lks D. gets
( )27.——Are yu gd at dancing?
Yes,I like it very much. And I always help my sister it.
A. with B. f C. fr D. in
( )28.—D lins eat meat?
Yes, they d. They eat ther animals. They are .
A. cute B. interesting C. dangerus D. funny
( )29.—Is Mr. Brwn n the farm, Jack?
Yeah, he children hw t grw strawberries nw.
A. teaches B. taught C. will teach D. is teaching
( )30.—Dn't be nisy in the schl library.
—
A. Srry, I wn't B. N prblem C. It desn't matter D. Yu're welcme
B(从四个选项中选出一个划线部分读音与其它三个不同的选项，并将符合题意的选项写在题前括号内。每小题1分，共5分)
( )31. A. jb B. radi C. als D. hst
( )32. A. quarter B. guitar C. far D. smart
( )33. A. subway B. funny C. brush D. supermarket
( )34. A. center B. never C. delicius D. terrible
( )35. A. tth B. gd C. z D. pl
Ⅲ.完型填空
(根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选择一个最佳答案，使短文完整、正确，并将符合题意的选项写在题前括号内。每小题1分，共10分)
Hi, I'm Anna. My family and I are n a vacatin(度假) in Beidaihe. It's really a nice 36 . D yu want t knw what my family are ding nw? I'll tell yu. My father is swimming 37 the sea and he can 38 very well. My mther is playing 39 with thers. Vlleyball is her favrite sprt. My brther is 40 a bk under the tree. The bk must( 定) be very interesting 41 he lks s happy. My sister is 42 smething nw. She likes drawing and there 43 many beautiful pictures in her rm. What abut me? Oh, I'm lying n the beach(躺在沙滩上) and watching the beautiful 44 sky.
We all like this 45 place a lt.
Where are yu? What are yur family ding?
( )36. A. life B. shw C. place D. dream
( )37. A. in B. at C. n D. with
( )38. A. sing B. swim C. play D. speak
( )39. A. sccer B. basketball C. tennis D. vlleyball
( )40. A. seeing B. watching C. reading D. keeping
( )41. A. and B. but C. s D. because
( )42. A. eating B. drawing C. singing D. saying
( )43. A. be B. am C. is D. are
( )44. A. blue B. black C. green D. brwn
( )45. A. easy B. relaxing C. bring D. difficult
Ⅳ.阅读理解
A(根据短文内容，从每个题的四个选项中选择一个最佳答案并将符合题意的选项写在题前括号内。每小题1分，共10分)
Passage1
Be a gd pet wner(主人)
By Animal Care Grup
Keeping pets is fun, but make sure yu take gd care f yur pets.Here are sme tips t make yur pets healthier and happier:
1. Think carefully befre yu want t keep a pet.
2. Make sure yur hme is big enugh fr yur pet.
3. Give yur pet enugh fd and water.
4. Clean up yur pet's hme and keep it tidy.
5. Spend time with yur pet.
6. Give yur pet enugh exercise every day.
7. Take yur pet t the vet when it is sick(生病).
8. Fin d smene t lk after yur pet while yu are away.
9. Never beat(揍) yur pet.
Fr mre infrmatin n pet care, visit ur website:
( )46. This passage is prbably frm a .
A. newspaper B. ntice C. birthday card D. menu
( )47. The underlined wrd“tips”prbably means .
A. numbers B. pictures C. suggestins D. dgs
( )48. By reading the article, peple knw .
A. hw t train a pet B. hw t chse a pet
C. hw t take care f a pet D. hw t be a happy pet wner
( )49. Oscar wants t knw mre abut pet care, he shuld .
A. keep a pet B. call the pet shp
C. send an e-mail t the vet D. visit the website f the Animal Carc Grup
( )50. Which f the fllwing is the RIGHT( 正确) thing yu can d if yu have a pet?
A. Leave yur pet hme by itself when yu are away.
B. When yur pet is sick, give it sme medicine t take.
C. Make yur pet's hme clean every day.
D. Let yur pet play by itself.
Passage 2
Dear Clark,
Hw are yu? I'm happy t get yur e-mail and knw yur daily life. Nw let me tell yu smething abut my daily life. Frm Mnday t Friday, my day starts at 6:30. Then I get dressed and brush my teeth. After that I d sme exercise fr thirty minutes. At 7:30, I have sme bread and milk fr breakfast. Then I take the schl bus t g t schl. My class starts at 8:20 and finishes at 5:30. And I like having classes and my favrite subject is math. Mst students think it's difficult but I dn't think s. It's interesting and easy fr me. At 5:45, I walk back hme and then I play tennis with my friends fr abut ne hur. At 7:00, I have dinner with my parents. After dinner, I watch sme music games n TV.
On weekends, my life is a little different(不同的) frm that n weekdays, because I dn't g t schl. In the mrning, I get up at 8:00 and I have breakfast at 8:30. Then I can g shpping r g t the park by bike with my friends r my parents. Smetimes I stay(待) at hme and clean my rm. I lve my life.
Yurs,
Laura
( )51. What time des Laura get up n weekdays?
A. At 6:30. B. At 7:00. C. At 7:30. D. At 8:00.
( ) 52. What des Laura think f math?
A. Easy and interesting. B. Easy but bring.
C. Interesting but difficult. D. Interesting and useful.
( )53. What des Laura d after schl n schl days?
A. Ges shpping. B. Plays tennis.
C. Watches music games n TV. D. Ges t the park.
( )54. Hw des Laura ften g shpping n weekends?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. n ft D. By train
( )55. The passage is mainly abut .
A. Laura's schl life B. Laura's favrite subject
C. Laura's weekend D. Laura's daily life
B(根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文意思完整、连贯。每个选项限用一次。每小题1分， 共5分。)
Passage3
Children all ver the wrld like t celebrate(庆祝) their birthdays. 56 They usually celebrate it with a party. They ask their friends t their birthday parties. They dn't have the party n the right date f their birthday if it cmes t a schl day. 57 Tday many children like tw kinds f parties. One is at hme. Parents decrate(装扮) the huse beautifully with ballns and clred paper. They make a special birthday dinner. The children play games. 58 Sme are at a restaurant. The children eat pizza and ice cream. The waiters als sing and say happy birthday t the children. Other parties are at a park r at a cinema, r in sme ther places. There is a cake with candles at every birthday party. 59 When peple light (点燃)the candles, everyne sings the special birthday sng: Happy Birthday t Yu.
Birthday parties change. Many peple dn't have them when they are nt yung. 60 But they d like t keep the happy birthday parties f their childhd in mind(头脑).
A. The ther kind is away frm hme.
B. They may celebrate it at the weekend then.
C. American children d that, t.
D. They say they wuld like t frget hw ld they are.
E. There is ne candle fr each year f a birthday by's r girl's age.
56. 59. 58. 59. 57.
V.情景反应
(从方框中选择恰当的句子完成下面的对话，并将符合题意的选项写在答题处。其中有两个多余选项。每小题1分，共5分)
W:Hw d yu get t schl, Jeff?
M: 61 Because my hme is nly 2 miles(英里) frm schl.
W: Hw lng des it take yu?
M:Abut 6 minutes. 62
W:I g t schl n ft. 63 But my friend Clark lives far frm the schl. She has t take the subway t get t schl every mrning.
M: Ww! That's a lng way. 64
W: Yes. S she smetimes feels very tired after she gets t schl in the mrning.
M: 65
W:I think s.
A. I think it must take her a lng time t get t schl.
B. Hw abut yu, Mary?
C. Hw far is yur hme frm schl?
D. I get t schl by bike.
E. D yu ften ride t schl?
F. I'm afraid she has t g t bed early in the evening.
G. My hme is nly ne mi le frm schl.
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
第二卷 非选择题
Ⅵ.词语运用
(根据短文内容，从方框中选择适当的单词填空，使短文内容完整。每个词限用一次，有两个多余词。每空1分，共 10分)
yu because sme relax a hur gd be use like stay and
Everyne wants t be healthy. Hw can yu stay healthy and feel gd? It's easy t d.Here 66 sme things yu can d every day.
First f all, yu shuld always eat healthy fd 67 fruit and vegetables. Fruit and vegetables have vitamins (维生素). They keep 68 bdy healthy. Yu shuldn't eat t much fast fd 69 it has a lt f fat(脂肪) in it.
Anther way is t get lts f exercise. Ding sprts sunds like 70 gd idea. G utside t play all kinds f sprts. Yes, it's 71 t play cmputer games. But dn't spend(花费) t many 72 n it.
Finally, get enugh sleep. Yu shuldn't stay up late. If yu want 73 healthy, yu need enugh sleep. Sleep als helps yu remember things 74 .
These rules are really 75 . If yu fllw them, yu'll get sick less ften. Yu'll have lts f energy. Yu'll feel healthy and be healthy!
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
Ⅶ.任务型阅读
A(根据短文内容简要回答下面的问题。每小题1分，共5分)
Hw much d yu knw abut the schl clubs in America? D they have the same clubs as urs? Take Hill Tp Schl fr example. They have lts f clubs, such as the chess club, the sprts club, the music club, the art club. And they als have sme special clubs, such as the cking club. It is very ppular amng the girls. They learn smething abut cking, such as hw t make cakes. And they always share(分享) the dishes in class. Anther club is the carpenter club(木工俱乐部), and many bys jin this club. They can make desks, chairs and even beds in the club. American students have mre time fr club activities every day. Schl is ver at 3:30. They usually start the club activities at fur 'clck. Smetimes, their parents cme t see the activities. And they have a really gd time tgether.
76. What club d the girls like?

77. What can the students d in the carpenter club?

78. When d students usually start their club activities?

79. D American students have fun tgether with their parents in the club?

80. Hw many clubs des the writer mentin(提到) in the passage?

B(阅读短文，然后按要求完成下列各题。每小题1分，共5分)
Mr. Green is standing in frnt f a car. He is lking at it. It is a beautiful car and it is very big. Mr. Green likes big cars. A pliceman is standing behind Mr. Green. He is lking at the car, . He is writing in a ntebk(笔记本). Nw he is giving a piece f paper t Mr. Green.
Pliceman: Excuse me, sir.
Mr. Green: Yes?
Pliceman: This is fr yu.
Mr. Green: What is it?
Pliceman: It's a ticket.
Mr. Green:A ticket?
Pliceman: Can yu see the ntice(布告)?
Mr. Green:Yes.
Pliceman: It says“NO PARKING”. Yu can't park yur car here.
Mr. Green: This isn't my car.
请根据上面的内容完成下面的句子：
81. Mr. Green is standing the pliceman .
82. 请在文中横线处填上合适的单词
83. Mr. Green says that car isn't .
84.“N Parking”means yu can’t yur car here.
85.请将文中下划线句子翻译成汉语。
Ⅷ.翻译句子
(根据所给中文完成句子翻译。86--89每小题1分，90--92每小题2分。共10分)
86. 他通常在大约六点钟起床淋浴。
He usually gets up and at abut 6:00.
87. 不要和同学打架。
with yur classmates.
88. 你为什么喜欢大象?
like elephants?
89.玛丽想要参加讲故事俱乐部。
Mary wants .
90. Jane每天花费大约20 分钟乘坐公共汽车去上学。
91.老师对我学习方面要求非常严格。
92. 放学后爱丽丝(Alice)要么拉小提琴要么和爸爸一起下象棋。

IX.书面表达
93.(根据要求完成写作，共10分)
假如你叫 Mike，你们班级里有很多规则，请你给 Dr. Knw 写封信，说说这些班规是什么以及你对这些班规的看法，倾诉你内心的烦恼，并向Dr. Knw 寻求帮助。
要 求：(1)包括要点中的所有内容，语言准确，层次清晰，书写规范；
(2)60词左右;
(3) 文中不得出现真实姓名、校名。
Dear Dr. Knw,



Mike
2022--2023学年度下学期期中教学质量监测
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
第一卷 选择题（共60分）
I.听力部分（15分）
1-5. BBCAB 6-10.BACCB 11-15. ACBAB 16-20. BABCC
II.单项选择（15分）
21-25.CCBBD 26-30.AACDA 31-35. AADCB
III.完形填空（10分）
36-40.CABDC 41-45. DBDAB
IV.阅读理解（15分）
46-50.ACCDC
51-55.AABBD 56-60. CBAED
V.情景反应（5分）
61-65 . DBGAF
第二卷 非选择题 （共50分）
Ⅵ.词语运用（10分）
66．are 67．like 68．yur 69．because 70．a
71．relaxing 72．hurs 73．t stay 74．well 75．useful
Ⅶ.任务型阅读（10分）
A:
76．The cking club.
77 . They can make desks, chairs and even beds in the club
78．At fur/4/4:00 ’clck.
79．Yes, they d./Yes.
80 . Six/6
B:
81. in frnt f 82.t 83. his 84. park
85. 现在警察正在给格林先生一张纸/一张罚单。
Ⅷ.翻译句子 86-89每小题1分，90-92每小题2分 。10分
86. takes a shwer
87. Dn’t fight/have a fight
88. Why d yu
89. t jin the stry telling club
90. It takes Jane abut twenty/20 minutes t take the bus t schl/t g t schl by bus /n a/the bus
91.The teacher is/The teachers are very strict with me in (my) study.
92. Alice either plays the vilin r plays chess with her father after schl. /After schl, Alice either plays the vilin r plays chess with her father.
Ⅸ.书面表达（10分）
A档：（9-10分）
内容完整，写出全部内容要点，层次结构清晰，语言流畅。仅有1处语法或者不超过2个拼写错误，字数符合要求。（单词错2个扣0.5分，3个扣1分）
B档：（6-8分）
内容完整，层次结构完整清晰。语句较为流畅。有2-4处语法错误或少量词汇错误。字数符合要求。
C档：（3-5分）
写出部分要点，语句基本通顺，层次结构不合理。5-6处语法错误或一定量的词汇错误。字数不足。（字数不足，1-5个扣0.5分，6-10个扣1分）
D档：（0-2分）
内容不完整，语言表述错误较多，只有少量句子表达准确。不足40个单词量。抄袭试题内容或者语段，写的内容与作文要求无关或所写内容无正确语句且无法看懂，给0分。
注：主观试题属开放性试题，答题只要符合题意及语言规律均可酌情给分。I
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