2022-2023学年江苏省扬州市高邮市高二下学期4月期中考试英语试题含答案

这是一份2022-2023学年江苏省扬州市高邮市高二下学期4月期中考试英语试题含答案，共25页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分7等内容，欢迎下载使用。

高邮市2022-2023学年高二下学期4月期中考试
英 语
（本试卷满分150分,考试时间120分钟）

第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B，C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man mean?
A. He isn’t available at all today.
B. He will be the woman’s partner.
C. The woman shouldn’t work alone.
2. How will the man pay?
A. In cash. B. By credit card. C. With WeChat.
3. What time is it now?
A. 9:30. B. 9:35. C. 10:00.
4. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. School friends.
B. Driver and passenger.
C. Coach and football player.
5. How does the man feel at present?
A.Worried. B. Regretful C. Relieved.
第二节（共15小题：每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B．C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. When will the woman leave for Mexico?
A. On Monday. B. On Friday. C. On Sunday.
7. What will the company do for the woman?
A. Send her the right bag. B. Offer her a free trip. C. Cancel her order.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Which line should the man take?
A. Line A. B. Line B. C. Line C.
9. What does the woman suggest the man buy?
A. Regular tickets B. A special tourist pass. C. A 7-day subway pass.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In an office. B. In a factory. C. In Jim’s house.
11. Where will Martha go?
A. Chicago. B. Atlanta. C. California.
12. Why does the woman want to stay? 23343:uId:23343
A. To take charge of the whole market.
B. To avoid being fired due to changes.
C. To get attention from the top management.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What is the man doing?
A. Checking in at an airport.
B. Buying a ticket at a counter.
C. Posting luggage in a post office.
14. What is the woman’s suggestion for the man?
A. Taking a seat by the window.
B. Packing his luggage with a bag.
C. Carrying some luggage with him.
15. How much does the man’s luggage weigh?
A.17 kilos B. 20 kilos. C. 23 kilos.
16. What is the man expected to do at 6:35 pm?
A. Board his plane B. Fetch his baggage. C. Land in New York.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is the speaker mainly talking about?
A. How to be a qualified journalist.
B. How to create a class newspaper.
C. How to share stories with students.
18. What is the most important when creating a class newspaper?
A. Teachers’ academic guidance.
B. Reporters’ personal specialties.
C. Students’ interest and attention.
19. Which is mentioned as a hot topic that students care about most?
A. The coming school play.
B. How to cook food at home.
C. Students’ quality and behavior.
20. Who are responsible for the stories?
A. Online writers. B. Student reporters. C. Famous scholars.

第二部分 阅读（满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解 (共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Ski season is coming. Here are four of California’s most popular resorts (度假胜地).
Mt. Baldy
Distance from Los Angeles: Less than an hour’s drive
Opening date: Dec. 15
It has 26 runs spread over three mountains. It also has a respectable vertical descent (垂直坡道) of 2,100 feet. For those who don’t ski or snowboard, it also offers snow tubing, the easiest way to hit the slopes (坡).
Lift ticket prices: $39 to $115
Tip：It has the sharpest runs in Southern California.
Mountain High
Distance from Los Angeles: A 90-minute drive
Opening date: Dec. 2
It has 0.45 square miles of skiable area and nearly all of it is served by snowmaking. Nearly two-thirds of its runs are for novice and intermediate (初级和中级) skiers and snowboarders.
Lift ticket prices: $99 to $129
Tip: Families and novices should head for the North Resort, while experts will find challenges at the West.
Snow Valley
Distance from Los Angeles: A 90-minute drive
Opening date: Nov. 23
It has the region’s only six-person chairlift, which makes it a family favorite. It also offers night skiing and riding on most Fridays and Saturdays from December through the end of the season.
Lift ticket prices: $85 to $119
Tip: Its slopes are often uncrowded, making it perfect for a quick, low-key getaway.
Big Bear
Distance from Los Angeles: A two-hour drive
Opening date: Nov. 25
It includes two areas：Bear Mountain and Snow Summit. With more than 200 park features and the largest beginner area in Southern California, Bear Mountain is often filled with both kids and snowboarders. Snow Summit is more traditional, attracting families, novice and intermediate skiers and riders.
Lift ticket prices: $79 to $169
Tip: On stormy days, it’s difficult to get to the resort. So if you can, leave the night before.
21. Which resort is closest to Los Angeles？
A. Big Bear. B. Mt. Baldy.
B. Snow Valley. D. Mountain High.
22. What of the following statements is RIGHT?
A. Big Bear has the cheapest lift tickets.
B. Snow Valley has the largest beginner area
C. Mt. Baldy has the most challenging ski runs.
D. Mountain High offers night skiing on most Fridays.
23. Where may this passage be taken from?
A. A travel brochure. B. A novel.
C. A science fiction. D. A newspaper.
B
The best new artist at the 2022 Latin Grammy Awards was a Cuban American grandmother living out her dream of being a professional musician at the age of 95.
Angela Alvarez’s story began in Cuba, where she learned to play guitar and started writing songs at the age of 14. But she never achieved her dream of singing and songwriting professionally, because her traditional father forbade it. She eventually married and started a family. In 1962 she sent her four kids to the United States. After several long years of separation, she made her way to the United States and her family eventually settled in Baton Rouge, Louisiana.
In the years that followed, she always played music for her children and grandchildren. That included her composer grandson, Carlos José Alvarez.
“One day, I called her up and I said ‘I want you to sing me the songs that you composed’. She took out more than 40 songs she had written and the songs were like a diary, which traced (描绘) her entire life story. At that moment, I decided to record them one day,” Carlos, now 42, recalled.
Years passed and Carlos focused on his own work, putting his grandmother’s record on the back burner until 2016 when his friend asked him if he was “waiting for her to die?” The question “knocked me over,” Carlos said. Soon after, he flew his grandmother to Los Angeles, where he lives, and began the process of recording and producing her debut album (首张专辑).
After finishing the project, Carlos and the musicians he worked with agreed that Angela’s story should be a documentary. He reached out to actor Andy Garcia, who was so moved by her story that he agreed. The feature-length documentary, “Miss Angela,” was released in 2021.
Then in September, she was nominated (提名) for a Latin Grammy, and she performed at the ceremony in Las Vegas on Nov. 17 with Carlos.
24. What do we know about Angela as a teenager?
A. She was separated from her parents.
B. She dreamed of living in the United States.
C. She learned to sing under the help of her father.
D. She had no chance to be a professional musician.
25. Which word can best describe Angela’s experience of composing songs?
A. Awesome. B. Funny. C. Rewarding. D. Demanding.
26. Why did Carlos decide to make Angela’s first album?
A. Because of Angela’s timely call.
B. Because of his friend’s reminding.
C. Because of the Latin Grammy Awards.
D. Because of the documentary “Miss Angela”
27. What is the main purpose of the text?
A. To tell an inspiring story. B. To introduce a lifestyle.
C. To express author’s thanks. D. To give practical advice.
C
A recent report revealed that, in the US alone, 27 million tons of plastic ended up in landfills in 2018, but only 3.1 million tons were recycled. Worldwide the numbers are similarly bad, with just 9% of plastic being recycled. The statistics are even worse for certain types of plastic. For example, out of 80,000 tons of polystyrene (聚苯乙烯) containers generated in the United States, only a small amount (less than 5,000 tons) was recycled.
Now, researchers at The University of Queensland have found a species of worm with an appetite for polystyrene could be the key to plastic recycling on a mass scale. The superworm can eat through polystyrene, thanks to a bacterial enzyme (酶) in their gut (消化道). To study how superworms react to purely plastic food, researchers broke up 135 of the creatures into three teams: one was fed only wheat bran (麸皮), another was fed only plastics, and the third was given nothing.
“We found the bran-fed worms have been significantly healthier than the plastic-fed or starved worms, more than doubling their weight over the three weeks they have been monitored. Though the plastic-fed worms made less impressive gains, they still put on more weight than the starved worms,” Dr. Rinke said. “This suggests the worms can get energy from plastics, most likely with the help of their gut microbes.”
Researchers used a technique called metagenomics (宏基因组学) to find several encoded enzymes with the ability to degrade polystyrene. The long-term goal is to engineer enzymes to degrade plastic waste in recycling plants.
“Superworms are like mini recycling plants, eating the polystyrene and then feeding it to the bacteria in their gut,” Dr. Rinke said. It’s hoped this bio-upcycling will promote plastic waste recycling and reduce landfills. Researchers said they aim to grow the gut bacteria in the lab and further test its ability to degrade polystyrene. Then they can look into how to upscale this process to a level required for an entire recycling plant.
28. What can we infer from the statistics in paragraph 1?
A. Plastic landfills are well managed.
B. Plastic containers are easy to recycle.
C. Plastics are recycled at a very low rate.
D. Plastic waste needs a long time to break up.
29. What is paragraph 3 mainly about?
A. The process of the study. B. The purpose of the study.
C. The findings of the study. D. The importance of the study.
30. How will those researchers continue the study?
A. By establishing a modern recycling factory.
B. By testing different abilities of the bacteria.
C. By conducting experiments on other worm species.
D. By applying the bio-upcycling technology to recycling plants.
31. What is the best title for the text?
A. The severe plastic pollution.
B. The promising recycling industry.
C. The superworm’s digesting plastics.
D. The superworm’s commercial success.
D
British companies are about to complete the biggest test of a four-day workweek in the world. For six months, these companies will reduce their workers’ hours by 20%, to 32 hours a week, but continue to pay them 100% of their pay. Charlotte Lockhart, the founder of 4 Day Week, the organization behind the program, says company leaders usually have a natural reaction: “The policy will never work in my business or my industry.”
But she eventually found 73 companies that agreed to give it a shot. And while the results of the study haven’t been published yet, 86% of these companies said they would likely continue to support the movement.
From the moment the five-day workweek was adopted as the industry standard about a century ago, we’ve been talking about spending less time at work. British economist John Maynard Keynes declared in the early 1930s that technological advancement would bring the workweek down to 15 hours within a century.
But, over the last few years, the model of a four-day week has seemed to become more practical thanks to the COVID-19 pandemic, which forced companies to allow more employees to work at home. That created a unique opening for organizations like 4 Day Week.
“There is clear evidence around the world that if you reduce work time, you create more products,” says Lockhart. Managers and workers have generally reported being equally or more creative and able to work more effectively.
British researcher Esme Terry agrees that, for most people, long work days and weeks reduce productivity. But there’s some question about how a four-day workweek could fit the overall workforce, Terry says. If you work at an advertising agency, it’s possible to be more productive, but what if you’re a delivery driver for Amazon? “Some organizations have condensed (压缩) hours, so the number of working hours isn’t actually reduced,” she says. For these workers, that’s a model that could increase stress and burnout, rather than reduce it.
32. What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to？
A. The policy. B. The company.
C. The organization. D. The industry.
33. What made the four-day week movement practical？
A. The new development of the industry standard.
B. The recent efforts made by government officials.
C. The big idea produced by John Maynard Keynes.
D. The pandemic making many people work at home.
34. What’s the advantage of adopting the four-day week policy according to the last but one paragraph？
A. Making workers more productive.
B. Encouraging teamwork in companies.
D. Improving interpersonal relationships .
C. Reducing the cost of running a company.
35. What is Terry’s attitudes towards the model of a four-day week?
A. Indifferent. B. Critical. C. Objective. D. Supportive.

第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Not getting the recognition you deserve can hurt. However, a few shifts in perspective can help you thrive (茁壮成长) without getting weighed down by approval-seeking.
Be in competition only with yourself
36 . However, you can make a conscious effort to focus on thinking about how you have improved over time. For instance, if you are feeling down because your friend runs a food shop and you have volunteered there on only one occasion, focusing on the fact that you are volunteering more than you did in the past will give you a greater sense of meaning in your accomplishment.
37 .
When I find articles that effectively communicate one of my beliefs, I share them in posts on social media, with a brief comment on my response to them. Recognizing others not only helps the people who are being recognized, but it also might help you feel good about performing an act of kindness. Recognizing other’s work is also a form of giving to the public, who can benefit from the work.
Choose who you seek recognition from
There is no shame in being intentional about whose feedback you give more importance to. In fact, this is what makes sense given the impossible nature of pleasing everyone. 38 . Picasso is not everyone’s cup of tea because not everyone appreciates abstract art, not because Picasso wasn’t a great artist.
Remember the power of one
Reflect on one person who had an impact on your life in a positive way. 39 . Then, imagine having a positive impact on just one person, and that person regarding you in a way that is similar to how you think and feel about the person who impacted you. This will help you remember that there is great meaning and value in positively impacting just one person’s life. 40 .
A. Give others recognition
B. Remember the diversity of humankind
C. Once again, you don’t have to win them all
D. Live in accordance with one person’s values
E. It is impossible to live without sometimes comparing yourself to others
F. This could be a parent, teacher, friend, writer, celebrity, or historical figure
G. Even the most famous people will face challenges and struggles in their lives

第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When Bob Cialdini was a senior in high school, he was really good at baseball. Good enough that a scout (球探) 41 at his last game of the year, and offered him a 42
to play in the minor leagues.
The scout then had a 43 with him. “So tell me something. Are you any good at school?” Cialdini recalled him asking. “I said, ‘Yes, I am.’ He said, ‘Good enough to get into
44 ?’ ‘Yes, I am.’”
He pushed Cialdini about his interest in college, asking him if he 45 academic work. When Cialdini said he did, the scout 46 the contract.
“He said, ‘Go to 47 because most likely, you won’t get to the major leagues. But what you’ve told me is that you’re good at something you really like. That should be where you go.’”
Cialdini 48 the scout’s advice. Instead of pursuing professional baseball, he went to college. It 49 : he became a well-known psychology researcher on the science of influence.
Decades later, Cialdini is still 50 by the way the scout looked out for his best
51 . Cialdini shared the scout’s 52 with his students, as they make major 53
about what to do next in life.
“Don’t just go where your 54 is,” he tells them. “Go where you have the 55
to realize the dream.”
41. A. called up B. hanged out C. showed up D. set up
42. A. ticket B. permit C. contract D. prize
43. A. argument B. experiment C. holiday D. conversation
44. A. work B. business C. position D. college
45. A. enjoyed B. completed C. continued D. pursued
46. A. put away B. put back C. put off D. put down
47. A. school B. baseball C. training D. work
48. A. considered B. followed C. sought D. heard
49. A. carried on B. turned up C. paid off D. broke down
50. A. confused B. impressed C. amazed D. annoyed
51. A. qualities B. efforts C. intentions D. interests
52. A. advice B. experience C. choice D. success
53. A. changes B. decisions C. mistakes D. breakthroughs
54. A. belief B. purpose C. dream D. courage
55. A. potential B. time C. support D. patience

第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5 分, 满分15 分）
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Grain in Ear (芒种), the ninth solar term, is a sign of the ripening of crops such as barley(大麦) and wheat.
During Grain in Ear, rainfall is still increasing, 56 indicates the beginning of Plum Rains season in the middle and lower reaches of the Yangtze River. “Plum Rains” season refers to the long period of continuous rainy or cloudy weather. It is a good period for rice, fruits, and vegetables 57 (grow).
Grain in Ear has a folk name “busy in sowing”, 58 (mean) the busy agricultural production in rural areas. In most parts of China, Grain in Ear is the busiest season for rural residents. They need to reap the summer-harvesting crops, plant autumn-harvesting ones 59 take care of spring-planted crops.
Since Ming Dynasty, people in some provinces have been praying 60 good harvests and peace on the day of Grain in Ear with all kinds of cakes as sacrificial offerings. The cakes 61 (make) with wheat flour and dyed with vegetable juices.
In southern China, May and June are the months when plums become ripe. But fresh plums are sour and bitter in most areas. So, people choose to eat boiled plums for 62 (good) taste. It is said 63 a classic story about Cao Cao and Liu Bei, two central figures in the Three Kingdoms period (AD 220-280), talks about contemporary 64 (hero) while boiling green plums with yellow wine.
Green plums contain various natural and high-quality 65 (organ) acids and are rich in minerals. They can help clean blood, lower blood fat, ease tiredness and improve the complexion.

第四部分 写作（共两节, 满分 40分）
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你校英语社团将举办主题为Go beyond yourself的英语演讲比赛。请你写一篇演讲稿参赛，内容包括：
1. 机遇与挑战并存；
2. 直面挑战，坚持到底
3. 超越自我，实现梦想。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

Hello,everyone.____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________

第二节 读后续写（满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段。使之构成一篇完整的短文。
When I was young, my mother was going to Florida to visit my grandmother. I begged her to take me with her. “I’ll take you, but remember,” my mother warned me, “Grandma is sick.” I had seen plenty of sick people before, so I figured it wouldn’t be a big deal. Besides, by the time we got to Florida, my grandma would probably be okay. Then we would have fun just as we used to. I remembered how excited I had felt the summer before when my grandma carried me on her shoulders down the streets.
Grandma was a great storyteller and her stories made me feel special whenever she told them.” Grandma, tell me a story, “I’d say, and she would always begin the story, “Once upon a time there was a boy named Billy…” Every story started with a boy named after me. When I arrived at her house, my first words were going to be, “Grandma, tell me a story.”
When I got to Grandma’s house, she didn’t come out to meet me. Even after I ran up the steps, she still didn’t come out to meet me. I went into her bedroom. Instantly, I was seized by terror and disgust, because what I saw in that room wasn’t my happy-go-lucky grandmother. It was a crumpled (皱的) body, thin and weak.
That night as I lay in bed, I heard my grandma moaning in pain. It had the same effect on me as someone running fingernails across the blackboard. It was so annoying that I just wanted to tell her to stop. However, I didn’t and it continued all night.
A few weeks after we came home, my mother asked me whether it was all right if Grandma came to live with us. I said yes, but in reality I never wanted to see her again. Although my grandma lived with us for the next few months, I never went into her room. She couldn’t get out of bed. I didn’t have to see her.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1
One day, my grandma called me as I walked by her room. I didn’t want to go. __________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2
I was about to run out of the room and leave the scene behind forever when she began to tell a story. ____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________

















英语參考答案
第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 CCBBA 6-10 CABCA 11-15 BCACC 16-20 ABCAB
第二部分：阅读（满分50分）
第一节 阅读短文(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
21-23 BCA 24-27 DCBA 28-31 CCDC 32-35ADAC
第二节（七选五（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
36-40 EABFC
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 CCDDA 46-50 AABCB 51-55 DABCA
第二节 语法填空（共10小题：每小题1.5 分, 满分15 分）
56. which 57. to grow 58. meaning 59. and 60. for
61. are made 62. better 63.that 64. heroes 65. organic
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分 40分)
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
Hello, everyone. Various challenges always exist in our study and life. What should we do to deal with them?
As we all know, where there are challenges, there are opportunities. Besides, from J.K. Rowling’s success story, we’ve got the idea that besides talent, hard work and luck, perseverance is the key if we want to make challenges beneficial.
In short, to realize our dreams, what we can do is go beyond ourselves and face challenges bravely. Let’s seek the opportunities hidden in the challenges to be a better self. Thanks for listening!
第二节 读后续写（满分25分)
Possible version
One day, my grandma called me as I walked by her room. I didn’t want to go. Her voice struck a chord with me. It was the voice that I couldn’t turn a deaf ear to. I followed the voice and cast a quick glance at her lying on the bed. I immediately diverted my eyes to the floor, avoiding any eye contact with her. How could such a pale and weak woman be my grandma! A sense of dislike started to creep into my mind. But I could sense that she looked right at me and smiled with all the might she had left in her weak body.
I was about to run out of the room and leave the scene behind forever when she began to tell a story. “Once upon a time there was a boy named Billy.” as the uttered the words in a hoarse but warm voice, I was stunned. “... and little Billy loved his grandma very much.” suddenly I felt something indescribable pulled at my heartstrings, and tears blurred my eyes. The moment Grandma finished her story, I raised my head, looking into her eyes regretfully. Upon touching her skinny hand, I swore to keep her company and take care of her with my utmost effort.

应用文写作评分标准
一、试题分析：
本篇应用文是演讲稿，要求写一篇超越自我的参赛稿。
二、审题和写作要求：
体裁：演讲稿。
时态：以现在时为主。
分数分配：
1. 本文可分为三段：
第一段说明在我们的生活和学习中，常常会遇到挑战；挑战与机遇并存，在面对挑战时，我们应该怎么做?（3分）
第二段说明机遇与挑战是一对“孪生兄弟”，直面挑战（3分）；坚持到底；（3分）
第三段表明我们必须接受挑战，超越自我，实现梦想，。（3分）
2. 书写、分段、文体格式、卷面（3分）
三、评分标准
1. 总体要求：
1. 本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。评分时，主要从内容要点、语言表达两个方面考查。
2. 评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 评分时还应注意:
（1）词数少于60和多于100的，酌情扣分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
2. 各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档
（ 13—15分）
1. 写出全部合理的内容要点。
2. 使用多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构的句子，表达流畅，语言很少错误且完全不影响理解。
第四档
（ 10—12分）
1. 写出大部分合理的内容要点。
2. 使用多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构的句子，表达基本流畅，语言有少量错误但不太影响理解:
第三档
（ 7—9分）
1. 写出部分合理的内容要点。
2. 使用一些恰当的词汇和语法结构的句子，表达不够流畅，语言有些错误，对理解有些影响。
第二档
（ 4—6分）
1. 写出少量合理内容要点。
2. 使用简单的词汇和语法结构的句子，表达不流畅，语言有较多错误，严重影响理解。
第一档
（ 0—3分）
1. 只写出一个合理内容要点或从试卷上抄袭无关内容。
2. 所用的词汇和语法结构低级且错误很多，非常严重影响理解。
读后续写评分标准
一、试题分析：
原文主要讲述“我”央求母亲一起探望生病的奶奶，却在看到曾经擅长用“我”做为主人公讲故事给“我”听的乐天派奶奶变成了一个皱巴巴、虚弱的、总在痛苦呻吟着的老人后，“我”害怕了，并且心生厌烦。当母亲询问是否可以将奶奶接来同住，“我”虽然同意，却从未进入她的房间……
根据所给两个首句，构建后续故事情节，思路如下：
Paragraph 1：听到奶奶叫“我”，“我”是否走进房间？（是）。在房间里，“我”看到了什么？奶奶病情如何？“我”的反应以及感受如何？
Paragraph 2：奶奶讲了什么故事？（呼应原文）“我”的感受？听完故事后，“我”的反应？“我”以怎样的心情做了什么？
说明：若续写情节合理、与原材料相符都可以接受。
二、评卷要求
1、本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分，每个档次5分。评分时先根据作答的具体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。
2、评分时，从故事内容，词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为
（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性，恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性 。
阅卷应整体评分，从主题是否明确、内容是否完整、内容和原文衔接度高不高、语言是否符合原文风格、语言使用是否正确等方面综合考虑档次。先确定档次，再具体给分。
3、 续写内容必须符合故事主线。不符合的一律不及格（15分以下）。抄袭原文或不相干的内容达到1/3 的（连着抄，间隔着抄都算）、充满负能量或不道德的内容，均判零分。
4、阅读材料的语言：主要以第一人称叙事为主，因此续写部分的语言也应是叙事风格，否则分数降低一个档次或扣5分。
5、语法：文章时态为一般过去时。使用时态错误，扣3分。 词汇、语法错误：一般大错扣1分，如出现1个小错，从总分中减去半分。相同的错误不重复扣分。如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
注意事项：续写部分应该以第一人称讲述故事，主要用过去时（如果人称或者时态用错，降一档）；与原材料的语言风格保持一致，否则分数降低一个档次。
三、评分标准
第五档
（21~25分）
创造了丰富合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整与原文情境融洽度高。
使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解
有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段。全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档
（16~20分）

创造了比较丰富合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度高。使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构。可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
比较有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档
（11~15分）
创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档
（6~10分）

内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
未能有效地使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档
（1~5分）

内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
几乎没有使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意不连贯。
零分
未作答，所写内容太少或无法看清，以致无法评判。所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。






附：听力原材料
( Text 1)
W: My partner is absent today. I have to do the work alone.
M: Oh. no. You cannot conduct the experiment without a partner, for safety.
( Text 2)
M: I don't have much cash on me. Do you take checks?
W: Sorry. We only accept credit cards or cash. Of course. you can also use WeChat payments.
M: Lucky me. I have my cell phone at hand.
( Text 3)
M: When does the next bus leave for New York?
W: Buses leave for New York every half hour. You just missed the nine thirty bus by five minutes.
M: Thank you.
( Text 4)
W: Airport, please. I'm running a little late. So just take the fastest way even if it's not the most direct.
M: Sure, but there is a lot of traffic everywhere today because of the football game.
( Text 5)
W: You look a bit upset today. What has annoyed you?
M: I don't know if I will be able to give a speech tomorrow.
W: Why not ? Aren't you ready?
M: I am ready, but I think I'm coming down with a sore throat caused by severe tiredness. It's really something awkward.
( Text 6)
M: Customer service. Antony Grant speaking. May I help you?
W: I can't believe this is happening. I ordered a 32- inch bag on Monday, but you sent me a 24- inch one today. I'm planning to use that bag during our vacation starting on 19th in Mexico. We'll take off on Sunday, and it's only two days away. What am I supposed to do now?
M: I'm really sorry, madam. I'll check right away. Would you please tell me your order number? W: It ' s CE5876. Why couldn't you have been more careful with your work ?
M: I do apologize, madam. Yes, there did seem to be a mistake. We ' ll have the correct size bag sent to you by overnight mail right away. It will arrive in time for your trip. Again, I apologize for any inconvenience caused by our mistake. I promise it won't happen again.
W: OK. Well. mistakes are unavoidable. Thank you anyway.
M: Thank you for choosing Lynch Mail. I hope you will have a wonderful vacation.
( Text 7)
M: I'd like to go to Yale University tomorrow. But how can I?
W: Take the subway and then transfer to a train .
M: Which subway line should I take?
W: Take Line A from here and get off at the central terminal.
M: Isn't Line A under construction?
W: Really? I thought Line B is. OK, Line B is your choice, neither A or C.
M: So, do I transfer there ?
W: Yes. Go to the ticket window, saying that you are going to Yale.
M: By the way, since I will stay here for 7 days, can I get a special tourist pass?
W: I don't think we have this kind of pass in New York. But you can buy a 7- day subway pass. M: What's the difference between the regular ticket and the 7- day pass?
W: It costs you only $15 to get a 7- day pass. And you get unlimited use during the whole week. However, the regular admission is $1.5 per trip.
M: Thank you very much.
( Text 8)
M: What's going on around here? Why is everyone changing offices?
W: Haven't you heard? Where have you been anyway?
M: I just got back from visiting the plant in Chicago.
W: Well. there are a lot of changes being made here this week.
M: Yes. I see. But what are they?
W: For one thing , Martha and Jim are leaving.
M: Where are they going? Did they get a higher position?
W: Yes, Martha is going to the office in Atlanta. She is going to be in charge of the whole southern market. Jim is going to manage the plant in California.
M: And you? What about you? Are you going to rise to a higher position, too?
W: Not yet, but I'm hoping I will.
M: Don't you want to get a rise? I'd like the job in California.
W: No. I want to stay here at the company office. This is the place to get noticed by top management.
( Text 9)
M: Excuse me, Miss. Should I check in here for taking UA 610 to New York?
W: Yes, sir. May I have your passport and flight ticket, please?
M: Sure, here you are. Can I have a seat by the aisle?
W: Let me see ... OK. No problem. Do you have any pieces of luggage to check in?
M: Yes. Two suitcases.
W: Would you please put them on the scale?
M: Of course. They are not overweight, are they?
W: I'm sorry. They're overweight by 3 kilos.
M: That's too bad. It must be because of the books.
W: I see you don't have any carry-on bags. Probably, you could pick some out of your luggage and take them with you.
M: Good idea! Could you explain the correct baggage allowance to me?
W: Of course. For our trans-Pacific flights to the USA or Canada, your baggage allowance is a maximum of two checked bags , not more than 20 kilos.
M : I see.
W: All right. Here are your baggage claim tags, flight ticket, boarding pass and passport.
M: When is the boarding time?
W: The boarding time is 6:35 pm and you ' ll board from Gate 15. And you have twenty minutes before your plane takes off .
M: I see . Thanks a lot .
( Text 10)
W: The key to journalism is asking questions. When creating a class newspaper, it's important to keep your readers' interests in mind. As you assign stories, you should always ask yourself these two simple questions: What do students at my school want to read about? What stories would grab and hold their attention? Take the following easy steps and you'll be fast on your way to creating a first-rate paper. First, make a list of 10 hot topics at your school. When putting together your list, make sure to pick issues your fellow students care about the most, such as cafeteria food quality or the coming school play. Then make a list of at least five hot topics in the news today. When putting together your list , you may want to look at the Scholastic Kids Press Corps homepage for ideas. Second, talk to your student reporters and find out what their interests and strengths are. On a blackboard, make a list of your student reporters' names and their specialties. Now it's time to assign stories. Keep your reporters' interests and strengths in mind when choosing which ones to assign. Next to each name on your list, assign a story from your lists of topics.