2023年天津市滨海新区中考一模英语试题（含答案）

2023年滨海新区九年级模拟试卷

英语

本试卷分为第I卷（选择题）、第II卷（非选择题）两部分。试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。答题时，请将所有答案都写在答题纸上，答案写在试卷上无效。

第I卷（选择题 共五大题 共80分）

一、听力理解（本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）

A）在下列每小题内，你将听到一个或两个句子并看到供选择的 A、B、C三幅图画。找出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图画。

1. A.  B.  C.

2. A.  B.  C.

3. A.  B.  C.

4. A.  B.  C.

B）下面你将听到十组对话，每组对话都有一个问题。根据对话内容，从每组所给的A、B、C三个选项中找出能回答所提问题的最佳选项。

5. What does Jack think of the book?

A. It's interesting. B. It's boring. C. It's useful.

Which kind of food does the boy like?

A. Sea food. B. Sweet food. C. Sour food.

7. Which country did Emma visit?

A. Canada. B. London. C. America.

8. Where does this conversation happen?

A. At home. B. In a library. C. In a shop.

9. What did Amy do last night?

A. She saw a film. B. She did some reading. C. She played the piano.

10. What does the woman want to drink?

A. Coffee. B. Water. C. Tea.

11. Is the girl going to the cinema?

A. Yes, she is. B. No, she isn't. C. We don't know.

12. How long does it take by air from Tianjin to Shanghai?

A. Two hours. B. Three hours. C. Four hours.

13. Why is the woman afraid?

A. She's afraid there is nobody on the top.

B. She's afraid she can't walk up to the top.

C. She's afraid she will be cold.

14. How does the woman feel now?

A. She feels very excited. B. She feels badly ill. C. She feels sleepy.

C）听下面长对话或独白。每段长对话或独白后都有几个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听下面一段材料，回答第15至第17题。

15. What does Miss Brown want to do?

A. She wants to buy a house.  B. She wants to draw a house. C. She wants to sell a house.

16. How much does the house cost?

A. About 16,000 dollars. B. About 60,000 dollars. C. About 66,000 dollars.

17. When will the speakers meet?

A. At 4:00 p.m. B. At 5:00 a.m. C. At 5:00 p.m.

听下面一段材料，回答第 18 至第20题。

18. Who is the leader of the English writing competition?

A. Jack. B. Mike. C. Peter.

19. When will the speech competition start?

A. In February. B. In March. C. In April.

20. How many activities are mentioned?

A. One. B. Two. C. Three.

二、单项填空（本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分）

从下列每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项.

21. At ______ beginning of the new term, we usually make ______ study plan.

A. a; the  B. /; a  C. the; a D. /; the

32. —Did you invite Steve to ______ house for dinner tonight?

—Yes, and I have already prepared a big surprise for ______.

A. our, he B. us; him  C. we; he  D. our; him

23. With every villager's effort, the river is much than it was last year.

A. clear  B. clearer C. clearest  D. the clearest

24. I often take my dog for a walk ______ the street after dinner.

A. along B. above  C. over  D. under

25. In China, when one side faces ______, help will come from all sides.

A. trainings B. exercises  C. difficulties  D. differences

26. My parents are happy to see that I can cook and ______ now.

A. set off B. tidy up  C. look for  D. go out

27. The policemen come ______ when accidents happen. So each of us feels pleased.

A. simply  B. quickly  C. exactly  D. slowly

28—Is Lily playing basketball there?

—It ______ be her. She went to the teacher' office just now.

A. needn't B. may not  C. mustn't D. can't

29. Please ______ the keyboard and the mouse to the computer.

A. connect B. compare  C. cover D. click

30. I can look after myself ______ it's not easy for me.

A. if  B. because C. although  D. so that

31. —______ you ever ______ Chinese Hanfu?

—No, I haven't. But I can't wait to try it on now.

A. Did; wear  B. Are; wearing  C. Have; won  D. Do; wear

32. The classes about space are interesting. They ______ as the beginning of student's dreams for science.

A. will consider  B. were considered  C. are considered  D. will be considered

33. After correcting my answers, I decided ______ the questions again.

A. study  B. studying  C. studied  D. to study

34. —Will you go to the library with me tomorrow, Tom?

—I'm not sure. I don't know ______ the work on time.

A. whether will I finish B. whether I will finish  C. where can I finish D. where I can finish

35. —What do you think of the World Smiling Day?

—______. It can make people get closer to each other.

A. Take it easy  B. It's a pity  C. Not at all  D. Pretty good

三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）

阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项.

Joe was driving home on a country road one winter evening. He spent several months looking for a new    36    since the factory he had worked in was closed. It was a lonely road. Not many people had a    37    to be on it unless (除非) they were leaving the country. He almost didn't see a small car parked at the side of the road. He thought the driver might need help, so he pulled up in front of the car and got out. An old lady was in the car. At first she was worried. “He looked very poor and hungry,” she thought. He could see that she was    38   . He said, “I'm here to help you, Madam.”

All the lady had was a flat tire(瘪的轮胎). While Joe as    39   , the lady opened the window and began to talk to him. She told him that she couldn't    40    him enough for helping her in such a situation. Soon Joe was able to change the tire. She asked how much she owed(欠) him. Joe    41    thought about money. He told her that if she really wanted to pay him back, the next time she saw someone who needed help, she could    42    that person the help.

A few miles down the road, the old lady saw a small restaurant. She decided to cat something and    43    herself up before she finished her trip home. The waitress looked young and poor. After she finished her meal, she handed a 100-dollar bill to her. When the waitress went to get her change (零钱), the lady left without being

   44   . The waitress then found some words on a piece of paper, “You don't owe me a thing. Someone once helped me, the way I'm helping you. If you really want to pay me back, here's what you    45   . Don't let the chain(链) of love end with you.”

36. A. job B. place C. factory D. house

37. A. research B. reason C. opinion D. ability

38. A. excited B. angry C. nervous D. shy

39. A. working B. thinking C. looking D. talking

40. A. pay B. love C. thank D. praise

41. A. once B. ever C. often D. never

42. A. send B. raise C. pass D. take

43. A. warm B. put C. cheer D. pick

44. A. watched B. saw C. noticed D. heard

45. A. see B. want C. say D. do

四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）

阅读下面的材料，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项.

A

Many people think heroes need to be handsome, rich, or very smart. But as for me, a hero is a person who always helps others. My hero is Uncle Bill. Ho is the oldest son of a worker, and he grew up in a poor family with four younger brothers and two little sisters.

He was good at neither writing nor maths. In fact, he never did well in school. So he had to give up school at a very young age. He worked and gave all his money to help his parents. When he was getting older, he found that he was very interested in fixing things. He collected broken things which people threw away and fixed them. He could fix almost everything that did not work. He worked bard and never gave up. Finally, be opened his own repair shop. It took him about 20 years to become a successful shopkeeper.

Now, be is very rich and bas four shops. But be never forgets the days when he bad nothing. He gives money to poor families, helps poor kids, buys books and offers them free lunch. He also encourages people to reuse things. He always says, “Make good use of what you have because we just have one earth.”

I am proud of Uncle Bill. He is really a hero.

46. What kind of people can be a hero according to the writer?

A. A hero needs to be rich.  B.A hero needs to be handsome.

C.A hero needs to be very smart  D. A hero needs to always help others.

47. What does Uncle Bill's father do?

A. He is a shopkeeper.  B. He is a worker.

C. He is a maths teacher.  D. He is a farmer.

48. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Uncle Bill was interested in fixing things.

B. With the help of his parents, Uncle Bill became successful.

C. When Uncle Bill was young, he bad to work to help the family.

D. Uncle Bill has worked hard and finally owns four repair shops.

49. According to the passage, which word can best describe Uncle Bill?

A. Interesting  B. Careful C. Helpful  D. Strong

50. What's the best title for this passage?

A. Uncle Bill—My Hero   B. I Want to Have an Uncle

C. Save Our Earth   D. Can You Help Me?

B

Although the Qatar World Cup (卡塔尔世界杯) has finished, the influence of “Made in China” is becoming greater and greater in the sport event.

Wanda Group, Hisense Group, Vivo and dairy company Mengniu are four official Chinese sponsors(赞助商) of FIFA. Wanda has become one of FIFA's seven corporate(合作) partners, along with Coca-Cola, Adidas, Hyundai-Kia, Qatar Airways, Qatar Energy and VISA.

Data (数据) showed Chinese companies provided more sponsorship income(收入) than companies from any other country at the 2022 World Cup, as the world's top with nearly $1.4 billion.

Lusail Stadium was built by China Railway Construction Corp International, costing a total of $770 million, where the World Cup final was held. It is the biggest stadium in Qatar. It can hold 80,000 people. The stadium means so much to Qatar that it is even printed on the country's money. The Lusail Stadium has zero carbon emissions(二氧化碳排放). After the World Cup, the Lusail Stadium will be changed into a 40,000-seat stadium. The rest of the building will be used as community space, including shops, coffee shops, sports and so on.

CCTV news reported that Chinese companies mainly from Guangdong and Zhejiang provinces had also provided more than 10,00 container(集装箱) houses for the World Cup, used as a place to live, work or slay for tourists and football fans.

A large number of Chinese companies sponsored(赞助) the World Cup, and it makes people all over the world feel the power of Chinese brands(品牌). Vivo, for example, entered the markets in 10 European countries through its sponsorship of the 2018 FIFA World Cup in Russia.

51. How much was the Chinese companies provided for the 2022 World Cup?

A. $ 1.4 million.  B. $ 80.000 million. C. $ 770 million.  D. $1.4 billion.

52. Which company provided sponsorship for the 2018 FIFA World Cup in Russia?

A. Vivo. B. Wanda Group. C. Hisense Group. D. Qatar Energy.

53. What does the word “rest” mean in Paragraph 4?

A.危险的部分 B.严重的部分 C.剩余的部分 D.可能的部分

54. Put the sentences in the right order according to the passage.

a. Lusail Stadium was built by Chinese.

b. The Lusail Stadium has zero carbon emissions.

c. Wanda has become one of FIFA's seven corporate partners.

d. Chinese have provided more than 10,000 container houses.

A. c-b-d-a B. c-a-b-d  C. a-b-d-c D. b-a-c-d

55. What does the passage mainly talk about?

A. The biggest stadium in Qatar and China.

B. The importance of the 2022 World Cup.

C. The influence of “Made in China” in the 2022 World Cup.

D. The difference between the 2018 and 2022 World Cups.

C

The Shenzhou-15 astronauts Fei Junlong, Deng Qingming and Zhang Lu sent their Spring Festival greetings(问候) from Chin's Tiangong space station in a video on New Year's Eve.

The astronauts showed their own calligraphy (书法) in blue e clothes.. Two pieces of paper were with written the

Chinese character “fu”, meaning good luck and best wishes from Tagong “Wearing new clothes, eating dumplings and sending wishes—the festival customs arc the same here,” said Zhang Lu.

At the same time, the astronauts have decorated the space station with red couplets (对联) and Chinese knots. “I believe that, at the moment, many people are working like us. In fact it is also a kind of happiness,” said Deng. He continued to say hat each person's dreams and efforts can get together into a huge force to push the country's development Fei Junlong wished the country and its people 1o have peace and prosperity(繁荣).

In another video also showed the astronauts gave out 40 paintings drawn by children in a “space painting exhibition” as a New Year gif to all the Chinese people. The paintings were brought into space with the Shenzhou-15 mission on Nov. 29 last year. They shows the “children's impressions (想法) and expectations on the country's rapid development, diverse (多元的) cultural traditions and brave space exploration (探索)”

The Shenzhou-15 astronauts successfully finished the last stage of the space station building. During their six-month stay in space, the Shenzhou-15 astronauts will carry out more than 40 experiments and tests. They arc about the space science research and application (应用), space medicine and space technology. Although they are tired, they are happy and proud.

56. What did the Shenzhou-15 astronauts do on New Year's Eve?

A. They made new clothes for themselves.

B. They taught the children how to learn.

C. They sent their Spring Festival greetings.

D. They received some pictures from children.

57. What can push our-country's development according to Deng Qingming?

A. Science and Technology   B. Medicine and Research

C. Experiments and Tests   D. Dreams and Efforts

58. We can know ______ from 40 paintings drawn by children.

A. the country's rapid development

B. the country's long history

C. foreigners' love for Chinese culture

D. the design of astronauts' clothes

59. Where can the readers see the passage?

A. In a guide book.  B. In a newspaper. C. In a notice. D. In a poster.

60. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The Shenzhou-15 astronauts gave children a lesson.

B. Chinese astronauts went on to show their great ability in space.

C. Chinese astronauts sent Spring Festival greetings from space station.

D. The Shenzhou-15 astronauts finished their space tasks successfully.

五、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题1分。共5分）

根据对话内容，从方框内选择恰当的句子将对话补充完整。（选项中有两项是多余的）

A: Hi, Alice. It's nice to see you here.    61  

B: I'm fine, Kate. I've heard you are doing a report about protecting animals.

A: Yes, but I still don't know how to start it.    62  

B: Hmm..., there's a new film on these days.

A: A new film?   63  

B: Yes. It's about animals in danger, and what the government is doing to protect them.

A:   64  

B: So do you want to see the film with me this evening?

A: I'd love to.

B: And I'm sure you'll get some ideas from it.

A:    65  

B: Take it easy. Let's enjoy the film first this evening.

A: You're right. Thanks a lot.

B: It's my pleasure.

第II卷（非选择题 共四大题 共40分）

六、完成句子（本大题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）

根据所给中文意思完成句子，每空限填一词。

66.你最好脱掉湿衣服，否则你会感冒的。

You'd better ______ ______ your wet clothes, or you'll catch a cold.

67.睡觉前，我通常会考虑第二天要做什么。

I usually ______ ______ what to do the next day before going to bed.

68.就像在家，每个人都希望在整洁的教室里学习。

______ ______ home, everyone would like to study in a clean classroom.

69.丽莎花了两个月来编写这个故事。

Lisa spent two months ______ ______ the story.

70.食物有很多，请自便。

There's plenty of food, so ______ ______.

七、任务型阅读（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）

阅读下面短文，根据短文内容完成句子。

There was a photographer (摄影师) who often took group photos of hundreds of people. But there was a problem that always troubled him.

Before taking a picture, the photographer would carefully say, “I'll shout ‘one, two, there’, When I shout ‘three’, I will press the camera shutter (快门). At that time, do not close your eyes!” But at the moment of pressing the e shutter, the photographer was angry because there was always someone closing his or her eyes.

One day be beard a man who could move mountains and was curious (好奇的) about him. He decided to visit him. The man sat on one side of the mountain, then stood up and ran to the other side. The man said, “The only way to move the mountain is if the mountain can't move, I can climb it to other mountains.”

After listening to this, the photographer thought of an idea. When the group photo was taken again, he did the same as before. But this time, he changed the time he pressed the shutter. He pressed the shutter as “two” was called, then everyone opened their eyes together. Sure enough, the method was completely successful and he got beautiful photos.

Whether it is life or study, it is difficult for us to go smoothly all the way. So when we meet difficulties, we should change our thinking.

71. There was a ______ that always troubled the photographer.

72. The photographer was angry because ______ at the moment.

73. The photographer heard a man who could move mountains and ______.

74. The photographer pressed the shutter as “two” was called, everyone ______.

75. When we come to difficulties, we should ______.

八、综合填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）

根据短文内容及首字母提示，填写所缺单词，使短文意思完整。每空限填一词。

While people lined up to buy her steamed bread(馒头), Zang Chaiyuan worked late into the night recently. She has managed to mix modem elements (元素) into “Jiaodong huabobo”, a popular traditional f   76   .

Huabobo refers to a flower-shaped steamed bread, which has been a treat (款待) at local folk a    77   , such as celebrations and festivals.

Zang shaped huabobo by h   78   . And these shapes change f   79    cute rabbits dressed in lion dance costumes to treasure bowls and lucky bags and so on.

Although her parents didn't agree with her work, she still keeps making huabobo. “My grandmother used to make huabobo. They were in all kinds of shapes and very b   80   .” Zang recalls (回忆). She then set h   81    sights on huabobo at the beginning of 2020. At first, she l   82    from an experienced huabobo master about the basic skills and then practiced over and over again on her own. It didn't t   83    long before Zang got the whole process down to a fine art.

Later, Zang opened her small huabobo shop in Yantai. Many of her followers came to buy her hunbobo und praised (称货) that they are too c   84    to be eaten.

“Many people have s   85    great interest in the huabobo skills, especially women who have just become mothers,” she says, “I love traditional Chinese culture and I believe that this art work is worth spreading.”

九、书面表达（本大题共15分）

86.假如你是某中学学生李华，最近你班观看了《感动中国2021年度人物》，失聪女孩江梦南的事迹深深触动了你。请根据以下要点写一篇短文，描述江梦南的经历，并表达你的想法。

要点如下；

（1）江梦南在六个月大的时候失去了听力。

（2）她父母鼓励她学习唇语、练习开口说话，这让她能够与人正常交流。

（3）有时候，学会一个单词可能要练习上干泡。

（4）她努力学习，终于在2018年被清华大学录取。

（5）你的想法……

要求：（1）词数：80-100个

（2）开头已给出，不计入总词数。

（3）要点齐全，行文连贯，可适当发挥

参考词汇：失去听力：lose one's hearing 唇语：lip-read

清华大学：Tsinghua University 录取：be enrolled into

Jiang Mengnan was born in Hunan Province in 1992. She ____________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

2023年滨海新区九年级模拟试卷

英语参考答案

一、听力理解（本大题共20小题， 每小题1分， 共20分）

1-5 CABCA 6-10 BABCB 11-15 BABCA 16-20 BCAAC

二、单项填空（本大题共15小题， 每小题1分， 共15分）

21-25 CDBAC 26-30 BBDAC 31-35 CCDBD

三、 完形填空（本大题共10小题， 每小题1分， 共10分）

36~40 ABCAA 41-45 DCACD

四、 阅读理解（本大题共15小题， 每小题2分， 共30分）

46-50 DBBCA 51-55 DACBC

五、 补全对话（本大题共5小题， 每小题1分， 共5分）

61-65 CFAEG

六、 完成句子（本大题共5小题， 每小题2分， 共10分）

56-60 CDABC

66. take off 67. think of /about 68. Just like 69. making up/writing about 70. help yourself/yourselves

七、 任务型阅读（本大题共5小题， 每小题1分， 共5分）

71. problem

72. there was always someone closing his or her eyes

73. was curious about him/decided to visit him

74. opened their eyes together

75. change our thinking

八、 综合填空（本大题共10小题， 每小题1分， 共10分）

76. food 81. her 77. activities 82. learned

九、 书面表达（本大题共15分）

78. hand/herself 83. take 84. cute 79. from 80. beautiful 85. shown/showed

Jian Mengnan was born in Hunan Province in 1992. She lost her hearing when she was a six-month-old girl. Her parents encouraged her to learn to lip-red and practise speaking. This made it possible for her to communicate with common people. But this was also a very difficult journey