2023济南高二下学期开学(期末考)英语试题含答案
展开绝密★启用并使用完毕前
高二年级学情检测
英语试题
本试卷共12页。满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项:
1. 答卷前,考生务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、座号、考号填写在答题卡规定的位置。
2. 选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。
3. 非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应的位置,不能写在试卷上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不能使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
该部分分为第一、第二两节。注意:回答听力部分时,请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前,你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How did the woman know about the movie?
A. From the Internet. B. From a cinema. C. From a friend.
2. What does the woman advise the man to do?
A. Drive to the restaurant. B. Try ordering food online. C. Make an order in person.
3. Which city is the man’s travel destination?
A. Singapore. B. London. C. Beijing.
4. Who is the woman probably speaking to?
A. A student. B. A parent. C. A doctor.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a cafe. B. In a theater. C. In an office.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Who might Billy be?
A. The woman’s husband. B. The man’s doctor. C. The man’s pet.
7. What does the man plan to do?
A. Drive to his company.
B. Visit the woman’s house.
C. Show the woman some photos.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. What will the woman do on Halloween night?
A. Attend a Halloween party.
B. Ask for candies with her children.
C. Stay at home and give out candies.
9. What will the man dress up as at the party?
A. A panda. B. A rabbit. C. A dragon.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. How does the man sound at first?
A. Pleased. B. Thankful. C. Disappointed.
11. When will the speakers meet again next week?
A. On Tuesday morning. B. On Monday afternoon. C. On Tuesday afternoon.
12. Where is the woman going now?
A. A school. B. Her house. C. A bus station.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What is the woman doing now?
A. Taking a break. B. Shopping for food. C. Preparing for a meeting.
14. What type of food does the woman dislike?
A. Chicken. B. Potatoes. C. Fish.
15. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Co-workers. B. Husband and wife. C. Salesman and customer.
16. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Healthy eating. B. Dinner plans. C. Food prices.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. What will the speaker do with his new house?
A. Make a home office. B. Decorate the kitchen. C. Rent out one bedroom.
18. What does the speaker like to do on weekends?
A. Cook at home. B. Draw in the garden. C. Do some gardening.
19. What does the speaker think of old houses?
A. They are pretty. B. They are expensive. C. They are hard to maintain.
20. What do we know about the new house?
A. It’s a quiet place. B. It’s his dream house. C. It’s in a convenient location.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Body language is as important as the language itself. And if you think it means the same all around the world, you’ve got that all wrong. Gestures that mean something in one country don’t necessarily mean the same in another. As much as you need to learn a second language fluently, it’s also vital to get to know gestures in different cultures.
No matter how fluently you can speak Russian, we bet you don’t know a fun fact. While counting from one to five using fingers, people all over the world start counting with a ball-up fist. Starting from one, you uncurl (伸直) each of the fingers. Until you come to five, your hand is wide open. Everywhere worldwide, people count like this except in Russia. Instead of a ball-up fist, they start counting with a wide-open hand. So, when Russians start counting from one, they curl their fingers one by one. In the end, when they reach five, they get a ball-up fist.
What is the best way to learn Italian? Let’s be straight right away: without hand gesturing, it is impossible. So, if you are learning Italian, besides the language, you should learn their hand gestures as well. One of the worldwide-known Italian gestures is the pinecone. The pinecone gesture is formed when you bring all the tips of your fingers to one point. Then you move your wrist back and forth. The gesture is usually used when you have questions.
21. How might Russians express ten with hands?
A. With two fists. B. With two fingers.
C. With two open hands. D. With one finger and a fist.
22. What do Italians probably express with the pinecone gesture?
A. Happiness. B. Confusion. C. Appreciation. D. Fear.
23. What is the text mainly about?
A. Tips on learning Italian.
B. Ways of communication.
C. Meanings of hand gestures.
D. Techniques of counting numbers.
B
On the website of the EU Prize for Women Innovators, there are dozens of inspiring stories of female leaders alongside pictures of these professional-looking women wearing single color business suits. But when we move the page down a little further, Ailbhe and Izzy’s pictures pop off the page, with their eye-catching colors and bright rainbow patterns, which is entirely in line with their company belief “If you can’t stand up, stand out.” The fashionable sisters took the world by storm with their personalized wheelchair decorations.
Ailbhe, now 25, was four years old when she became a big sister to Izzy. Although Izzy was born disabled and couldn’t move from the waist down, her courage and energy deeply impressed Ailbhe and the two sisters developed a lifelong friendship. They spent hours as children decorating Izzy’s wheelchairs and her other mobility devices. So when Ailbhe graduated from the National College of Art and had to complete a final year project, she knew what to choose-dress up a wheelchair’s wheels! Ailbhe said, “The wheelchair itself didn’t show Izzy’s attitudes to life, or her energetic personality. It was ugly and made you lose confidence. I thought there might be a way of bridging that gap.”
Ailbhe’s project was extremely well received at her school’s design show. Izzy loved the new wheels as well. A state organization helped the sisters work with fashion designers and get their business to take off. The next step for the sisters was partnering with big companies which were interested in representing people with disabilities. They turned to Disney. After all, this cooperation would involve one of their favorite activities-watching Disney movies! Besides, Disney was willing to donate 10% of profits to a charity that helps disabled children. In addition, the company promised to realize the dreams of children with disabilities.
The sisters are excited for their creativity to make life in a wheelchair more fashionable, fun and personalized.
24. What helped the sisters win the EU prize?
A. The fashionable company. B. The eye-catching pictures.
C. Their colorful business suits. D. Their decorated wheelchairs.
25. What inspired Ailbhe to choose her final year project?
A. Her duty to be an elder sister. B. Her desire to show a real Izzy.
C. Her pity for Izzy’s disability. D. Her admiration for great women.
26. Why did Ailbhe and Izzy choose to work with Disney?
A. To earn money. B. To make movies.
C. To help disabled kids. D. To become designers.
27. What can we learn from Ailbhe and Izzy?
A. Nothing can prevent a determined heart.
B. Creativity makes the disabled stand out.
C. Every advantage has its disadvantage.
D. Technology brings people together.
C
Scientists have found the world’s biggest seagrass ecosystem in the Bahamas. Seagrass refers to dozens of different species of flowering plants that live entirely underwater, producing energy through photosynthesis (光合作用) by absorbing sunlight. Like their land-based relatives, seagrasses have roots and leaves and also produce seeds. Seagrasses grow in salty coastal waters around the world, usually in shallow waters where sunlight is more plentiful. Since seagrasses carry out the process of photosynthesis, they are known to be very effective at storing carbon dioxide, the greenhouse gas. This is because photosynthesis involves plants using sunlight to transform carbon dioxide into oxygen.
These underwater plants play an important role in carbon sequestration, in which carbon is stored in the environment rather than being allowed to float freely in the atmosphere where it can contribute to global warming. According to Gallagher, one of the new study’s authors, carbon enters the ocean as part of the carbon cycle, and the seagrass takes in this carbon through photosynthesis via their leaves. This is part one. The second part is when the seagrass transports this carbon through itself, burying and storing it in its root system. Seagrass stores this carbon permanently.
The purpose of the study by Gallagher and his colleagues was to map seagrass in the Bahamas, using data from 15 tiger sharks equipped with tracking instruments that could also take images of the sea floor. That information was then combined with reports from 2,500 surveys by human divers.
Mark Huxham, professor of teaching and research in environmental biology, said “This brilliant study uses imaginative and exciting new technology, in partnership with tiger sharks. We know seagrass is important for the health of our seas and our planet, but there are major gaps in our understanding about it.”
28. What is Paragraph 1 mainly about?
A. The cause of photosynthesis.
B. Living conditions for seagrass.
C. Environmental effect of seagrass.
D. The introduction of photosynthesis.
29. What does the underlined part “carbon sequestration” refer to in Paragraph 2?
A. Absorbing carbon from the air. B. Reducing carbon in the roots.
C. Releasing carbon into the air. D. Keeping carbon in sea plants.
30. What may Mark Huxham agree with?
A. Scientists have fully studied seagrass.
B. The study contributes to a new technology.
C. There is still a lot of work to study seagrass.
D. Tiger sharks will be the focus of future studies.
31. What is the purpose of the text?
A. To inform. B. To criticize. C. To advertise. D. To persuade.
D
Getting less than five hours of sleep in mid-to-late life could be linked to an increased risk of developing at least two chronic (慢性的) diseases, according to a new study. The research analyzed the effect of sleep time on the health of more than 7,000 men and women over 50. Researchers examined the relationship between how long each participant slept for and whether they had two or more chronic diseases over the course of 25 years.
People who were reported getting five hours of sleep or less at age 50 were 20% more likely to have two or more chronic diseases, as opposed to people who slept for up to seven hours Additionally, sleeping for five hours or less was linked to a 30% to 40% increased risk of multimorbidity (多病症) when compared with those who slept for up to seven hours.
Lead author, Dr Sabia, said: "To ensure a better night’s sleep, it is important to promote good sleep, such as making sure the bedroom is quiet, dark and a comfortable temperature before sleeping. It’s also advised to remove electronic devices and avoid large meals before bedtime. Physical activity and being exposed to light during the day might also promote good sleep."
Dr Sabia said, “Short sleep increases the risk of chronic diseases that in turn increase the risk of death. However, if a participant has already suffered from a chronic condition, then long sleep time is associated with around a 35% increased risk of developing another illness. Researchers believe this could be due to unnoticed health conditions impacting sleep.” Dr. Sabia added, "This research adds to a growing body of research that highlights how important it is to get a good night’s sleep."
32. How did the experts carry out the study in Paragraph 2?
A. By making contrasts.
B. By having interviews.
C. By conducting online surveys.
D. By analyzing published papers.
33. Which of the following will increase the quality of night’s sleep?
A. Being exposed to light at night.
B. Avoiding phone use before bedtime.
C. Limiting physical exercise in the day.
D. Finding a bright and peaceful bedroom.
34. What can we infer from what Dr Sabia said in Paragraph 4?
A. Short sleep may increase deaths by 35%.
B. Lack of sleep directly leads to more deaths.
C. The longer you sleep, the more diseases you will have.
D. The research further stresses the importance of good sleep.
35. What is the best title of the teat?
A. Longer Sleep, Better Health
B. Shorter Sleep, Fewer Risks
C. Less Sleep, Poorer Health
D. More Exercise, Better Sleep
第二节全科试题免费下载公众号《高中僧课堂》(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Harvesting fruits is a very demanding job. If pickers are not available, fruits will rot on the trees. But with pickers in short supply in recent years, growers needed to quickly find another way to harvest their fruits. 36
An Israeli company Tevel has developed these flying autonomous robots. The robots fly over a tree and pick fruits with its arms. They arc fitted with cameras that use AI to assess the size and color of the fruit. 37 In addition, they can collect more fruits than a picker during a given time.
38 The flying robots are connected to a platform that acts as the power source so that they never run out of power. They will work all day and night in any weather without taking a break.
Dozens of these smart robots can be used across an orchard (果园) during the time when the fruit is ready to be harvested. The farmers just need to tell the company how many flying robots they need and how long they will use. 39
The robots arc now picking pears in Israel. The company also plans to add more tasks to the robot’s function. 40 In the future, fewer people will work in picking and more people will work in managing the robots, analyzing the data and making decisions.
A. So only the ripe ones are collected.
B. Now a new type of robot can come to their help.
C. Finding fruit pickers is farmers’ biggest concern.
D. They can receive timely information from the robots.
E. Another advantage of the robots is that they never feel tired.
F. Then the company will transport the robots to their orchards.
G. For example, they can be used to cut off branches and water fruits.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My niece Jessica was six. One day she came home from school 41 . It had finally been her turn at her class’ weekly Show and Tell, but her teacher’s 42 to her presentation brought her to tears. “I talked about Uncle Steve,” Jessica said sadly. "When I showed his picture to the class, Mrs. Yates 43 it."
Being only three years old, Steve was more like a 44 to Jessica than an uncle. Truly her best partner, Uncle Steve was a favorite topic of Jessica’s. It was no surprise that she’d make him the 45 of her Show and Tell. What was a little strange was why Mrs. Yates would find his picture 46 enough to upset Jessica.
Several days later, my sister 47 Mrs. Yates in the shopping centre. After 48 Jessica’s progress with Mrs. Yates, my sister mentioned her daughter’s presentation. 49 , the teacher broke into laughter.
“Oh, Mrs. DeDeo,” she laughed. "I had no idea Jessica was so unhappy, 50 I must explain my reaction. Every Monday when Jessica comes into school, she talks about her weekends spent with her grandmother and Uncle Steve. She tells other students how he sometimes 51 her, takes her toys and steals her cookies. I was planning to call you to ask if you were 52 of the situation. When she 53 a picture of Uncle Steve with the class, I was 54 to find a bully (霸凌者) of a man. What I saw was a 55 three-year-old boy. I couldn’t help but laugh!"
41. A. excited B. nervous C. shocked D. upset
42. A. attention B. reaction C. response D. preference
43. A. laughed at B. complained about C. subscribed to D. disagreed on
44. A. stranger B. brother C. classmate D. student
45. A. director B. performer C. focus D. symbol
46. A. disappointing B. surprising C. annoying D. amusing
47. A. encountered B. called C. contacted D. persuaded
48. A. revealing B. observing C. predicting D. discussing
49. A. In return B. As usual C. Once again D. In fact
50. A. so B. but C. though D. and
51. A. protects B. blesses C. hits D. helps
52. A. proud B. sure C. afraid D. aware
53. A. shared B. enjoyed C. decorated D. switched
54. A. waiting B. expecting C. preparing D. pretending
55. A. brave B. patient C. sweet D. wise
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A
I am above the Arctic Circle. Even though the sun is brightly shining, telling 56 it is morning or night is impossible. Checking my watch, I see that it is 7:30 a. m. 57 (spread) out before me, branches of the Rapa River flow 58 (peaceful) through the valley below.
B
In the near future, we will be living in smart homes, 59 will provide us with a more comfortable environment. For example, AI controls will respond 60 voice commands, so you just say what you want and the home system 61 (obey). This smart technology is not a fantasy. Nevertheless, it will take some years before most new homes begin to use it.
C
In the 19 century, an outbreak of cholera hit Europe, causing millions of 62 (death). At that time, doctors had two theories to explain how cholera spread. Through Snow’s serious investigation, he found it was the pump water in Broad Street containing germs that resulted in 63 outbreak of cholera. Therefore, he had the handle of the pump 64 (remove) so that it could not be used. Through this intervention, the disease 65 (stop) in its tracks.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
根据汉语或首字母提示,写出下列单词的正确形式。
66. Messi is a ________(可靠的) footballer who helped his team by scoring in crucial games.
67. Singapore has decided to put on a b________ on smoking in public places.
68. She was deeply ________(羞愧的) of her poor performance on the stage.
69. The teacher decided to a ________ a new approach to get all the students involved.
70. Whenever I was in trouble, she is always there encouraging and ________(安慰) me.
71. They planned to keep a low ________(预算) by living on instant noodles.
72. It was difficult to reach a definite ________(结论) because the situation was complex.
73. If it wasn’t Sam’s f________, why was I blaming him?
74. He can’t be allowed to ________(举止) like that; I meant to say, he’s a grown man.
75. It’s said that Shenzhou XV can be v________ to naked eyes somewhere at night.
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Most people don’t remember how they learn to read and write because it happens to them naturally. Writing just means turning thoughts into words on a page. But it is a completely different story if you are born with Dyslexia, a learning disability which affects skills involved in reading, spelling and writing. Writing is a big challenge for these kids and unfortunately, I was one of them.
When in kindergarten, I was always struggling with my writing. For example, I used to misspell beautiful. Never could I quite remember that the e went before the a. It annoyed my teacher very much for I happened to love using beautiful a lot. If I was going to use the word so much she figured the least I could do was spelling it right. My mom complained that I just didn’t try hard. Every time I got my paper back, I dared not open it because I knew it must be full of red lines and a disappointing “C”.
Two years later, I came to a primary school, still with far satisfying writing. But a new teacher, Mrs. White came to my life. In my eyes, she was very beautiful. She had bright blue eyes, short dark hair, red lips and fair skin, as beautiful as Snow White.
Actually, I don’t remember much about what we learned in her class, but my mother once told me that we used to write articles a lot. And I would bring back what I wrote and she would look at it and see there were so many mistakes, both in grammar and spelling. But there were no red corrections, always a star and sometimes even a “Good”, which would make my heart cry with happiness. I always looked forward to the next writing class. It worried my mother, though, thinking Mrs. White was an irresponsible teacher. So one day when she went in to meet Mrs White for one of those Parent-Teacher meetings, she asked her why she never corrected my mistakes and why she never red-pencilled in the wrong spellings of words or grammatical errors.
注意:1.续写词数应为150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Mrs. White smiled and said she didn’t focus on my mistakes.
I went to her office, asking shyly whether I could attend the writing competition.
|
济南市2023年2月高二年级学情检测
英语答案
第一部分 听力(共20小题;每题1.5分,满分30分)
1-5 ABCBA 6-10 CBBCA 11-15 CAACB 16-20 BABCC
注意:每小题1.5分,凡是与答案不符者,不给分。
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;满分37.5分)
21-23 ABC 24-27 DBCB 28-31 CDCA 32-35 ABDC
第二节(共5小题;满分12.5分)
36-40 BAEFG
注意:每小题2.5分,凡是与答案不符者,不给分。
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
41-45 DBABC 46-50 DADCB 51-55 CDABC
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,共15分)
56. whether/if 57. Spreading 58. peacefully 59. which 60. to
61. will obey 62. deaths 63. the 64. removed 65. was stopped
注意:1. 每小题1.5分,单复数、词型不正确均不给分。
2. 如有其它形式,意义通顺,合乎上下文意义,可以给分。
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 单词拼写(共10小题;每小题1.5分,共15分)
66. reliable 67. ban 68. ashamed 69. adopt 70. comforting
71.budget 72. conclusion 73. fault 74. behave 75. visible
注意:1. 每小题1.5分,单复数、词型不正确均不给分。
2. 如有其它形式,意义通顺,合乎上下文意义,可以给分。
第二节(满分25分)
略
2023-2024学年山东济南高三开学摸底考 英语试题(含答案): 这是一份2023-2024学年山东济南高三开学摸底考 英语试题(含答案),共14页。
2023济南高三上学期开学检测英语试题含答案: 这是一份2023济南高三上学期开学检测英语试题含答案,文件包含山东省济南市2022-2023学年高三上学期开学检测英语试题docx、山东省济南市2022-2023学年高三上学期开学检测英语答案docx、高三英语听力mp3等3份试卷配套教学资源,其中试卷共12页, 欢迎下载使用。
2023济南高一上学期9月开学考试英语试题含答案: 这是一份2023济南高一上学期9月开学考试英语试题含答案,共11页。试卷主要包含了 A, What did Bb d?, C等内容,欢迎下载使用。