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广东省茂名市电白区2022--2022学年高二上学期期中考试英语试题
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这是一份广东省茂名市电白区2022--2022学年高二上学期期中考试英语试题，共8页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分25分）等内容，欢迎下载使用。
2022~2023学年度第一学期期中考试
高二英语
（满分：130分 时间：120分钟）
第一部分 阅读（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 阅读理解（共10小题；每小题2.5分，满分25分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂照。
A
Residence Inn Milford
Within 15 minutes from historic Yale University and New Haven, the Residence Inn Milford offers great annuities (便利设施) and first-class service for business or leisure travel. Our all-suites (套房) hotel near New Haven is 1 hour from Bradley Internationals Airport and 10 minutes from a Metro North train station that can get you to NYC in under an hour and a half. At our Milford, CT hotel, enjoy roomy studio, suites that are 50% larger than traditional hotel rooms.
Our suites offer hot breakfast buffet (自助餐) and a nightly social hour (from Monday to Wednesday), on-site exercise room and outdoor swimming pool.
Price: $ 119 per night; Pet Policy: Pets allowed; Check in time: 3:00 pm
Marriott Detroit Southfield
Newly renovated(整修), the Marriott Detroit Southfield Hotel is one of Detroit’s most desirable hotel destinations. With excellent public areas and carefully redesigned guest rooms, the Marriott Southfield Hotel meets the needs of business, leisure and group guests travelling to the Detroit area. This suburban Detroit hotel has an ideal location that allows for easy access to the Detroit Zoo, Henry Ford Museum, Comerica Park, Ford Field and many of other local activities in the area. It is open for breakfast, lunch and dinner.
Price: $ 75 per night Check in time: 4: 00 pm
Comfort Suites Kodak
100% smoke-free and pet-free hotel conveniently located at the main entrance to the Great Smoky Mountains off Interstate 40 at exit 407, close to all the fun and excitement in Pigeon Forge, Gatlinburg. and Knoxville, including Dollywood, Dixie Stampede, Smokies Park, Sevierville Events Center, University of Tennessee and more. Guests enjoy waking up in our well-appointed guest suites featuring modern furniture and LCD flat screen televisions, starting their day with our free breakfast, and relaxing in our indoor pool and exercise room.
Price: $55 per night Check in time: 3:00 pm
1. Which hotel will you choose if you plan to travel with your pet dog?
A. Comfort Suites Kodak. B. Any of the three hotels.
C. Marriott Detroit Southfield. D. Residence Inn Milford.
2. What can we know about Marriott Detroit Southfield?
A. It is close to local attractions. B. It is the most expensive of the three hotels.
C. It provides two meals. D. It is designed especially for businessmen.
23. What do the three hotels have in common?
A. They are all near the airports. B. People can enjoy free outdoor pools.
C. They all offer guests breakfast. D. People should check in before 3 pm.
B
Do you need to throw your smart phone away to live your best life? Not necessarily, according to researchers from Ruhr Universitat Bochum who suggest that we could all benefit from cutting down on screen time-just only a little bit time.
On average, we spend more than three hours a day glued to our smart phone screens. Between social media, news feeds, endless video games, and an app for pretty much everything else, there’s always something to draw our attention. In recent years, studies have blamed smart phones for modern problems ranging from rising anxiety rates to neck pain. It begs the question: Are people all really better off switching back to landlines (座机)?
“The smart phone is both a blessing and a curse,” says study leader Dr. Julia Brailovskaia, whose team set out to answer that question by gathering together 619 volunteers, hoping to know how much the smart phone is good for us. Two hundred people put their smart phones completely aside for a week; 226 reduced the amount of time they used the device by one hour a day; 193 people didn’t change anything in their behavior.
Researchers interviewed each person about both their overall lifestyle habits and well-being four months later after the experimental week ended. “We found that both completely giving up the smart phone and reducing its daily use by one hour had positive effects on the well-being of the participants,” as Brailovskaia sums up the upshots. Notably, changing their smart phone habits for just one week appeared to produce lasting outcomes among subjects. Even four months afterward, participants who were told to avoid using their smart phones totally were using their phones for an average of 38 minutes less per day.
Meanwhile, the “one hour less” group were using their phones as much as? 45 minutes less per day after four months. This group also showed improved life satisfaction, more exercise, and less depression.
“It’s nor necessary to completely give up the smart phone to feel better.” Brailovskaia concludes.
4. What’s the purpose of Paragraph 2?
A. To answer the question on the smart phones.
B. To explain why the experiment was done.
C. To state disadvantages of the experiment.
D. To stress the benefits of smart phones.
5. What did the researchers do to the volunteers before testing them?
A. They trained them. B. They interviewed them.
C. They gave them a physical exam. D. They divided them into groups.
6. Which word can replace the underlined word “upshots” in Paragraph 4?
A. Purposes. B. Reasons. C. Results. D. Doubts.
C
By the year 2050, a fifth of the world’s cities will experience unprecedented climate conditions and environments that currently don’t exist in any major cities, according to new research. A team of scientists at the Crowther Lab in Switzerland produced the report, which described the climate for 520 major cities 30 years in the future.
The results showed that 77 percent of the world’s cities will experience a surprising change in climatic conditions by 2050, and 22 percent of the 520 cities will see conditions that arc not currently experienced by any existing major cities.
1n China in 2050, the climate of Xi’an, in Shanxi province, will be similar to that of current day Maseru, the capital city of Lesotho in southern Africa, with the maximum temperature of the warmest month likely to increase by 4.59℃.
Chongqing in southwest China will resemble the climate of Swaziland capital Mbabane, as the warmest temperature is predicted to rise by 5.1℃.
Scientists predict summers in Europe will get warmer by an average of 3.5℃ and European winters will see temperature rises of 4.7’℃. London’s climate will be more similar to Barcelona, and Madrid’s to Marrakech.
The Crowther Lab hopes the analysis will motivate decision-makers to take necessary steps to prevent or address some of the climate effects due to the threat of climate change. The report also found that cities in tropical regions will experience smaller changes in average temperature but will be controlled by shifts in rainfall regimes. This may lead to a noticeable increase in unexpected events, and severe droughts.
“Across all scientific fields, the greatest challenge in climate science is no longer the precise measurement of climate change impacts, but inspiring people to picture is actual effects in order to motivate action.” said Tom Crowther, senior scientist and founder of the Crowther Lab.
7. According to the research, among the 520 cities by 2050, about ______ cities will experience the climate conditions that no major cities currently have experienced.
A. 114 B. 400 C. 260 D. 104
8. How did the scientists prove their result?
A. By making comparisons. B. By listing figures.
C. By doing experiments. D. By explaining theory.
9. What is the Crowther Lab intended for?
A To compare the climate change of the major cities of the world
B. To inspire people to picture its actual effects in order to motivate action.
C. To show most word’s cities will experience a striking change in climate conditions.
D. To inspire decision-makers to take necessary steps to prevent some climate effects
10. What is the best title of the passage?
A. World Temperature B. Current Climate Change
C. Future Climate Change in Most Big Cities D. Big Titles in the World
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑，选项中有两项为多余选项。
If you need to prove who you are in China, you’ll usually need to use an ID (identity) card. It shows your name, date of birth, address, nationality, photo and ID number. 11
On April 17, Alipay introduced its first electronic ID card The card is an electronic version (版本)of a real ID card and is recognized by the Ministry of Public Security. 12 . Users can simply select “Web ID” in the app and follow the instructions.
The electronic ID card can now be used in Hangzhou, Quzhou and Fuzhou. People in these cities can use the card to check into hotels, buy train tickets and do other tasks. 13
About 4 million people will be able to use the service within the next year. “ 14 Even if they forget their ID cards, they can still get things done. Since the process is simplified, it also makes things easier for government offices und companies.” Tang Feifan, mayor of Quzhou, told Zhejiang Online.
It’s safe to use Alipay’s new service, in case you’re worried that someone might steal your identity. 15 Then, you have to pass both a fingerprint and facial recognition scan (扫描) before you can use the electronic ID card.
A. This gives people another choice.
B. But now, you can prove your identity using your smart phone.
C. First, you must unlock your phone, and enter your Alipay password.
D. It’s quite easy to get an electronic ID card by using the Alipay app.
E. But not all people have welcomed the electronic ID cards.
F. They don’t have to show their standard ID card anymore.
G. The safety of the electronic 1D card is the main concern.
第二部分 语言知识及应用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Alexa Bjornson was worried about how her son. Landon Bjornson, who has high-functioning autism (高功能自闭症), would manage to fly alone to sec his dad She was so 16 that she gave him a note and $10 to 17 to the passenger next to him.
The note said that he had high-functioning autism and would often ask the passenger “Are we there yet?”, and the 18 was for the person to keep her son safe and 19 . “I thought, how do I make it so whoever’s sitting next to him won’t 20 him? I need to help my son 21 the day,” Alexa said.
The person who ended up sitting beside Landon from Las Vegas to Oregon was Ben Pedraza. The two had a great 22 together. Pedraza said, “We were making 23 , and after a while, he asked me to stop making dad-jokes.”
As they reached their destination, Pedraza took a(n) 24 with Landon and sent it to Alexa saying, “Landon did ask 25 we were there yet several times, but he was a great 26 partner. We played a few rounds of rock-paper-scissors He’s a great kid and you’re a(n) 27 morn.” Pedraza said that he didn’t want the money. He donated the $10 to The Autism Society to 28 kids like Landon.
Alexa was 29 that Pedraza helped her son Landon. She was so glad that her son met Pedraza who was 30 and treated him with love and care.
16. A. curious B. excited C. afraid D. sorry
17. A promise B. explain C. admit D. present
18. A money B. report C. notice D. prize
19. A special B. separate C. reasonable D. comfortable
20. A remember B. hate C. check D. challenge
21. A look back B get through C. learn from D. take down
22. A tine B. chance C. example D. rest
23. A. plans B. jokes C. decisions D. suggestions
24. A. test B. lesson C. picture D. order
25. A. if B. why C. how D. when
26. A. dinner B. team C. traded D. travel
27. A lucky B. confident C. helpful D. outgoing
28. A. recommend B. organize C. attract D. support
29. A. ashamed B. nervous C. thankful D. proud
30. A. brave B. understanding C. experienced D. honest
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式，并将本题的答案与在答题卡上。
One medical text from the fourth century suggested using the extract from sweet wormwood to treat a fever. Tu’s team tested a collection of dried wormwood 31.______ (leaf) but found no effect. They then tried boiling fresh wormwood, and using the liquid 32.______ (obtain) from this to treat malaria, but this did not work either. 33.______ (them) project go1 stuck. However, Tu Youyou would not acknowledge defeat. She analysed the medical texts again, and 34.______ chance, she found one sentence suggesting a different way to treat the wormwood. She concluded that boiling the sweet wormwood 35.______ (apparent) destroyed its medical properties.
Using a lower temperature to draw out 36.______ extract, she found a substance that worked. After 37.______ (fail) more than 190 times, the team finally succeeded in 1971. Tu Youyou and her team members even insisted on testing the medicine on themselves 38.______ (make) sure that it was safe. Later, the medicine was tested on malaria patients, most of 39.______ recovered. This medicine, which 40.______ (call) artemisinin, soon became a standard treatment for malaria
第三部分 写作（共三节，满分65分）
请将本部分题的答案写在答题卡上
第一节 词汇，语法与句子（每空1分，满分25分）
41. It is clear that he is very______ (passion) about the project.
42. Upon ______ (arrive) home. Tom turned on TV to watch his favorite programme.
43. He bought a dozen eggs, three of ______ broke when he dropped the box.
44. Nobody could persuade him ______ (leave) the house.
55. His family then moved to a ______ (slight) larger house.
46. As a country with a history of more than 5000 years, China is rich ______ civilization and culture.
47. After the meeting, the professor ______ (accompany) to a building on campus by two students.
48. ______ (take) a walk every day helps us keep healthy.
49. As is known to us, all the ______ (employ) in the company like their boss.
50. The woman beat the boy on ______ back.
51. The old man is respected for his ______ (distinguish) career in medicine.
52. ______ (give) his age, his parents didn’t let him go there.
53. ______ the mother offers to her children is her love.
54.我们尽力去让他确信学习的重要性。
We tried to ______ ______ _______ the importance of study.
55.献身于他的工作，他在事业上取得很大的成就。
______ ______ ______ ______, he has made great achievements in his career.
56.使他尴尬的是老师不同意他离开教室。
______ ______him is that the teacher ______ ______ his ______the classroom.
第二节（满分15分）
57．假定你是李华，你打算下周邀请外教Steven去你们当地的一个公园游玩。请你用英语给他写邮件，内容包括：
1.询问他的近况；
2.介绍该公园（位置、风景等）；
3.约好见面时间和地点。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文完整。
3.文章的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Steven,
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第三节（满分25分）
58.阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
Peter woke up early in the morning. He went downstairs in a hurry and started to have his breakfast as quickly as possible. “Why are you in such a hurry, early bird?” Mum asked him. “We will lave an English spelling test today, Mum,” Peter said. “Mr. White promised to offer prizes to those who get 100.”
Peter reviewed the spelling of each word once more carefully when Dad drove him to school. At last, it was time for the students to have a test. “Responsibility,” Mr. White started. Peter wrote it on his test paper quickly and confidently.
“The second word: contribution,” Mr. White said. “So easy,” Peter thought. He quickly wrote the word down. Thirty words later, the test papers were collected by Mr. White. After marking the test papers, Mr. White said, “Three of you win a prize today for excellent test scores. Peter, David and Mary got 100 percent on the spelling test!”
Mr. White praised them. Meanwhile, he gave the three students each a dictionary. Peter’s was an English-Chinese dictionary-the one he liked best. Peter was so excited that he held it high when his classmates cheered.
After Mr. White gave the test paper back, Peter had a look at the words, feeling proud of his spelling. All of a sudden, the word “contribution” confused him. It didn’t seem right. Peter began to compare it with the one on the word list. It turned out that he had spelled it wrong.
Staring at the red sign “100%” which was written at his test paper, Peter was lost in thought. After a while, he remembered a lesson Mum used to teach him, “We ought to be an honest person.”
注意：
1.所续写的短文词数应为150左右；
2.续写部分分为两段，每段的开头语已为你写好。
Paragraph 1:
Peter raised his hand slowly and nervously.
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2:
Peter didn’t expect that his teacher would praise him for being honest.
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023学年度第一学期期中考试
高二英语试卷参考答案
一、阅读理解
1-3 DAC 4-6 BDC 7-10 ABDC 11-15BDFAC
二、完形填空
16-20 CDADB 21-25 BABCA 26-30 DADCB
三、语法填空
31. leaves 32. obtained 33. Their 34. by 35. apparently
36. the 37. failing 38. to make 39. whom 40. was called
四、词汇，语法与句子
41.passionate 42.arriving 43.which 44.to leave 45. slightly
46．in 47.was accompanied 48.Taking 49. employees 50.the 51. distinguished 52.Given 53.What 54.convince; him ; of
55．Devoted to his work 56. What embarrassed； disapproved of； leaving
五、书面表达（一）应用文
Dear Steven,
I haven’t seen you for a long time. How have you been recently? I plan to pay a visit to the Dong Jiang Park in our city next week. I’m writing to invite you to go with me.
Located in the south of the city, the park is about 400 acres. Full of many kinds of trees and flowers, this park has beautiful scenery. In addition, there is a lake in the middle of the park where people often go boating. Let’s meet at the school gate at 8 am next Saturday and go to this park together. I’m looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Hua
六、书面表达（二）读后续写
Peter raised his hand slowly and nervously. “Mr. White, I didn’t get 100 in the test. I missed a word.” He stood up and handed his teacher the dictionary he liked best and his test paper. “I spelled contribution with ‘si’ instead of ‘ti’.” Peter could feel his classmates looking at him with surprise as he walked back to his desk. Mr. White held up Peter’s test paper. “Class,” he said, “Peter did something even more important than spelling every word correctly in a test.” Mr. White smiled at Peter. “He taught us all a lesson on being honest.”
Peter didn’t expect that his teacher would praise him for being honest. He looked around, finding many of his classmates were smiling at him. “Peter, I want you to have this dictionary because you set a good example for all of us,” Mr. White said. Peter took the dictionary from his teacher and expressed his thanks to him. He also really learnt the importance of honesty. He couldn’t wait to tell Mum one of his best days ever.
【故事情节线】Peter 仔细复习每一个单词，为拼写测试做准备→Peter 得了 100 分，老师奖 励给他一本他最喜欢的英汉词典，他很高兴→拿到试卷后，他发现自己有一个单词写错了， 自己没有资格得奖→他陷入了沉思→他想起了妈妈的话:"我们应该做一诚实的人。"
【续写思路】 根据第一段首句可知,Peter 慢慢地举起手来。本段可以描写Peter向老师讲明 自己写错了一个单词，没有资格得奖,并把他最喜欢的词典和试卷交给了老师。然后可以描写 老师和同学们的反应。根据第二段首句可知，Peter 没有料到老师会因为他的诚实而表扬他。本段可以描写Peter后续的反应，如向老师表达感谢、高兴地回家告诉妈妈今天发生的事情等。本段还应进行主题 升华，表明诚实的重要性。
评分标准：
一、评分原则
（一）本题总分为25分，按七个档次进行评分。
（二）评分时，主要从内容、语言表达和篇章结构三个方面考查，具体为：
续写内容的质量、续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（三）评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
（四）评分时还应注意：
1.词数少于120的，酌情扣分：
2.单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
3.书写较差以致影响可读性的，可酌情扣分。
二、各档次给分范围和要求
第七档（22-25分）
——创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
——使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解；
——自然有效地使用了段落间、句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第六档（18-21分）
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；
——使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解；
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第五档（15-17分）
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关；
——使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解；
——使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第四档（11-14分）
——创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关；
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解；
——尚有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第三档（6-10分）
——内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节；
——所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解；
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第二档（1-5分）
——内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节；
——所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解；
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
第一档（0分）
——未作答：所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
2022~2023学年度第一学期期中考试
高二英语
（满分：130分 时间：120分钟）
第一部分 阅读（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 阅读理解（共10小题；每小题2.5分，满分25分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂照。
A
Residence Inn Milford
Within 15 minutes from historic Yale University and New Haven, the Residence Inn Milford offers great annuities (便利设施) and first-class service for business or leisure travel. Our all-suites (套房) hotel near New Haven is 1 hour from Bradley Internationals Airport and 10 minutes from a Metro North train station that can get you to NYC in under an hour and a half. At our Milford, CT hotel, enjoy roomy studio, suites that are 50% larger than traditional hotel rooms.
Our suites offer hot breakfast buffet (自助餐) and a nightly social hour (from Monday to Wednesday), on-site exercise room and outdoor swimming pool.
Price: $ 119 per night; Pet Policy: Pets allowed; Check in time: 3:00 pm
Marriott Detroit Southfield
Newly renovated(整修), the Marriott Detroit Southfield Hotel is one of Detroit’s most desirable hotel destinations. With excellent public areas and carefully redesigned guest rooms, the Marriott Southfield Hotel meets the needs of business, leisure and group guests travelling to the Detroit area. This suburban Detroit hotel has an ideal location that allows for easy access to the Detroit Zoo, Henry Ford Museum, Comerica Park, Ford Field and many of other local activities in the area. It is open for breakfast, lunch and dinner.
Price: $ 75 per night Check in time: 4: 00 pm
Comfort Suites Kodak
100% smoke-free and pet-free hotel conveniently located at the main entrance to the Great Smoky Mountains off Interstate 40 at exit 407, close to all the fun and excitement in Pigeon Forge, Gatlinburg. and Knoxville, including Dollywood, Dixie Stampede, Smokies Park, Sevierville Events Center, University of Tennessee and more. Guests enjoy waking up in our well-appointed guest suites featuring modern furniture and LCD flat screen televisions, starting their day with our free breakfast, and relaxing in our indoor pool and exercise room.
Price: $55 per night Check in time: 3:00 pm
1. Which hotel will you choose if you plan to travel with your pet dog?
A. Comfort Suites Kodak. B. Any of the three hotels.
C. Marriott Detroit Southfield. D. Residence Inn Milford.
2. What can we know about Marriott Detroit Southfield?
A. It is close to local attractions. B. It is the most expensive of the three hotels.
C. It provides two meals. D. It is designed especially for businessmen.
23. What do the three hotels have in common?
A. They are all near the airports. B. People can enjoy free outdoor pools.
C. They all offer guests breakfast. D. People should check in before 3 pm.
B
Do you need to throw your smart phone away to live your best life? Not necessarily, according to researchers from Ruhr Universitat Bochum who suggest that we could all benefit from cutting down on screen time-just only a little bit time.
On average, we spend more than three hours a day glued to our smart phone screens. Between social media, news feeds, endless video games, and an app for pretty much everything else, there’s always something to draw our attention. In recent years, studies have blamed smart phones for modern problems ranging from rising anxiety rates to neck pain. It begs the question: Are people all really better off switching back to landlines (座机)?
“The smart phone is both a blessing and a curse,” says study leader Dr. Julia Brailovskaia, whose team set out to answer that question by gathering together 619 volunteers, hoping to know how much the smart phone is good for us. Two hundred people put their smart phones completely aside for a week; 226 reduced the amount of time they used the device by one hour a day; 193 people didn’t change anything in their behavior.
Researchers interviewed each person about both their overall lifestyle habits and well-being four months later after the experimental week ended. “We found that both completely giving up the smart phone and reducing its daily use by one hour had positive effects on the well-being of the participants,” as Brailovskaia sums up the upshots. Notably, changing their smart phone habits for just one week appeared to produce lasting outcomes among subjects. Even four months afterward, participants who were told to avoid using their smart phones totally were using their phones for an average of 38 minutes less per day.
Meanwhile, the “one hour less” group were using their phones as much as? 45 minutes less per day after four months. This group also showed improved life satisfaction, more exercise, and less depression.
“It’s nor necessary to completely give up the smart phone to feel better.” Brailovskaia concludes.
4. What’s the purpose of Paragraph 2?
A. To answer the question on the smart phones.
B. To explain why the experiment was done.
C. To state disadvantages of the experiment.
D. To stress the benefits of smart phones.
5. What did the researchers do to the volunteers before testing them?
A. They trained them. B. They interviewed them.
C. They gave them a physical exam. D. They divided them into groups.
6. Which word can replace the underlined word “upshots” in Paragraph 4?
A. Purposes. B. Reasons. C. Results. D. Doubts.
C
By the year 2050, a fifth of the world’s cities will experience unprecedented climate conditions and environments that currently don’t exist in any major cities, according to new research. A team of scientists at the Crowther Lab in Switzerland produced the report, which described the climate for 520 major cities 30 years in the future.
The results showed that 77 percent of the world’s cities will experience a surprising change in climatic conditions by 2050, and 22 percent of the 520 cities will see conditions that arc not currently experienced by any existing major cities.
1n China in 2050, the climate of Xi’an, in Shanxi province, will be similar to that of current day Maseru, the capital city of Lesotho in southern Africa, with the maximum temperature of the warmest month likely to increase by 4.59℃.
Chongqing in southwest China will resemble the climate of Swaziland capital Mbabane, as the warmest temperature is predicted to rise by 5.1℃.
Scientists predict summers in Europe will get warmer by an average of 3.5℃ and European winters will see temperature rises of 4.7’℃. London’s climate will be more similar to Barcelona, and Madrid’s to Marrakech.
The Crowther Lab hopes the analysis will motivate decision-makers to take necessary steps to prevent or address some of the climate effects due to the threat of climate change. The report also found that cities in tropical regions will experience smaller changes in average temperature but will be controlled by shifts in rainfall regimes. This may lead to a noticeable increase in unexpected events, and severe droughts.
“Across all scientific fields, the greatest challenge in climate science is no longer the precise measurement of climate change impacts, but inspiring people to picture is actual effects in order to motivate action.” said Tom Crowther, senior scientist and founder of the Crowther Lab.
7. According to the research, among the 520 cities by 2050, about ______ cities will experience the climate conditions that no major cities currently have experienced.
A. 114 B. 400 C. 260 D. 104
8. How did the scientists prove their result?
A. By making comparisons. B. By listing figures.
C. By doing experiments. D. By explaining theory.
9. What is the Crowther Lab intended for?
A To compare the climate change of the major cities of the world
B. To inspire people to picture its actual effects in order to motivate action.
C. To show most word’s cities will experience a striking change in climate conditions.
D. To inspire decision-makers to take necessary steps to prevent some climate effects
10. What is the best title of the passage?
A. World Temperature B. Current Climate Change
C. Future Climate Change in Most Big Cities D. Big Titles in the World
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑，选项中有两项为多余选项。
If you need to prove who you are in China, you’ll usually need to use an ID (identity) card. It shows your name, date of birth, address, nationality, photo and ID number. 11
On April 17, Alipay introduced its first electronic ID card The card is an electronic version (版本)of a real ID card and is recognized by the Ministry of Public Security. 12 . Users can simply select “Web ID” in the app and follow the instructions.
The electronic ID card can now be used in Hangzhou, Quzhou and Fuzhou. People in these cities can use the card to check into hotels, buy train tickets and do other tasks. 13
About 4 million people will be able to use the service within the next year. “ 14 Even if they forget their ID cards, they can still get things done. Since the process is simplified, it also makes things easier for government offices und companies.” Tang Feifan, mayor of Quzhou, told Zhejiang Online.
It’s safe to use Alipay’s new service, in case you’re worried that someone might steal your identity. 15 Then, you have to pass both a fingerprint and facial recognition scan (扫描) before you can use the electronic ID card.
A. This gives people another choice.
B. But now, you can prove your identity using your smart phone.
C. First, you must unlock your phone, and enter your Alipay password.
D. It’s quite easy to get an electronic ID card by using the Alipay app.
E. But not all people have welcomed the electronic ID cards.
F. They don’t have to show their standard ID card anymore.
G. The safety of the electronic 1D card is the main concern.
第二部分 语言知识及应用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Alexa Bjornson was worried about how her son. Landon Bjornson, who has high-functioning autism (高功能自闭症), would manage to fly alone to sec his dad She was so 16 that she gave him a note and $10 to 17 to the passenger next to him.
The note said that he had high-functioning autism and would often ask the passenger “Are we there yet?”, and the 18 was for the person to keep her son safe and 19 . “I thought, how do I make it so whoever’s sitting next to him won’t 20 him? I need to help my son 21 the day,” Alexa said.
The person who ended up sitting beside Landon from Las Vegas to Oregon was Ben Pedraza. The two had a great 22 together. Pedraza said, “We were making 23 , and after a while, he asked me to stop making dad-jokes.”
As they reached their destination, Pedraza took a(n) 24 with Landon and sent it to Alexa saying, “Landon did ask 25 we were there yet several times, but he was a great 26 partner. We played a few rounds of rock-paper-scissors He’s a great kid and you’re a(n) 27 morn.” Pedraza said that he didn’t want the money. He donated the $10 to The Autism Society to 28 kids like Landon.
Alexa was 29 that Pedraza helped her son Landon. She was so glad that her son met Pedraza who was 30 and treated him with love and care.
16. A. curious B. excited C. afraid D. sorry
17. A promise B. explain C. admit D. present
18. A money B. report C. notice D. prize
19. A special B. separate C. reasonable D. comfortable
20. A remember B. hate C. check D. challenge
21. A look back B get through C. learn from D. take down
22. A tine B. chance C. example D. rest
23. A. plans B. jokes C. decisions D. suggestions
24. A. test B. lesson C. picture D. order
25. A. if B. why C. how D. when
26. A. dinner B. team C. traded D. travel
27. A lucky B. confident C. helpful D. outgoing
28. A. recommend B. organize C. attract D. support
29. A. ashamed B. nervous C. thankful D. proud
30. A. brave B. understanding C. experienced D. honest
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式，并将本题的答案与在答题卡上。
One medical text from the fourth century suggested using the extract from sweet wormwood to treat a fever. Tu’s team tested a collection of dried wormwood 31.______ (leaf) but found no effect. They then tried boiling fresh wormwood, and using the liquid 32.______ (obtain) from this to treat malaria, but this did not work either. 33.______ (them) project go1 stuck. However, Tu Youyou would not acknowledge defeat. She analysed the medical texts again, and 34.______ chance, she found one sentence suggesting a different way to treat the wormwood. She concluded that boiling the sweet wormwood 35.______ (apparent) destroyed its medical properties.
Using a lower temperature to draw out 36.______ extract, she found a substance that worked. After 37.______ (fail) more than 190 times, the team finally succeeded in 1971. Tu Youyou and her team members even insisted on testing the medicine on themselves 38.______ (make) sure that it was safe. Later, the medicine was tested on malaria patients, most of 39.______ recovered. This medicine, which 40.______ (call) artemisinin, soon became a standard treatment for malaria
第三部分 写作（共三节，满分65分）
请将本部分题的答案写在答题卡上
第一节 词汇，语法与句子（每空1分，满分25分）
41. It is clear that he is very______ (passion) about the project.
42. Upon ______ (arrive) home. Tom turned on TV to watch his favorite programme.
43. He bought a dozen eggs, three of ______ broke when he dropped the box.
44. Nobody could persuade him ______ (leave) the house.
55. His family then moved to a ______ (slight) larger house.
46. As a country with a history of more than 5000 years, China is rich ______ civilization and culture.
47. After the meeting, the professor ______ (accompany) to a building on campus by two students.
48. ______ (take) a walk every day helps us keep healthy.
49. As is known to us, all the ______ (employ) in the company like their boss.
50. The woman beat the boy on ______ back.
51. The old man is respected for his ______ (distinguish) career in medicine.
52. ______ (give) his age, his parents didn’t let him go there.
53. ______ the mother offers to her children is her love.
54.我们尽力去让他确信学习的重要性。
We tried to ______ ______ _______ the importance of study.
55.献身于他的工作，他在事业上取得很大的成就。
______ ______ ______ ______, he has made great achievements in his career.
56.使他尴尬的是老师不同意他离开教室。
______ ______him is that the teacher ______ ______ his ______the classroom.
第二节（满分15分）
57．假定你是李华，你打算下周邀请外教Steven去你们当地的一个公园游玩。请你用英语给他写邮件，内容包括：
1.询问他的近况；
2.介绍该公园（位置、风景等）；
3.约好见面时间和地点。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文完整。
3.文章的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Steven,
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第三节（满分25分）
58.阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
Peter woke up early in the morning. He went downstairs in a hurry and started to have his breakfast as quickly as possible. “Why are you in such a hurry, early bird?” Mum asked him. “We will lave an English spelling test today, Mum,” Peter said. “Mr. White promised to offer prizes to those who get 100.”
Peter reviewed the spelling of each word once more carefully when Dad drove him to school. At last, it was time for the students to have a test. “Responsibility,” Mr. White started. Peter wrote it on his test paper quickly and confidently.
“The second word: contribution,” Mr. White said. “So easy,” Peter thought. He quickly wrote the word down. Thirty words later, the test papers were collected by Mr. White. After marking the test papers, Mr. White said, “Three of you win a prize today for excellent test scores. Peter, David and Mary got 100 percent on the spelling test!”
Mr. White praised them. Meanwhile, he gave the three students each a dictionary. Peter’s was an English-Chinese dictionary-the one he liked best. Peter was so excited that he held it high when his classmates cheered.
After Mr. White gave the test paper back, Peter had a look at the words, feeling proud of his spelling. All of a sudden, the word “contribution” confused him. It didn’t seem right. Peter began to compare it with the one on the word list. It turned out that he had spelled it wrong.
Staring at the red sign “100%” which was written at his test paper, Peter was lost in thought. After a while, he remembered a lesson Mum used to teach him, “We ought to be an honest person.”
注意：
1.所续写的短文词数应为150左右；
2.续写部分分为两段，每段的开头语已为你写好。
Paragraph 1:
Peter raised his hand slowly and nervously.
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2:
Peter didn’t expect that his teacher would praise him for being honest.
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023学年度第一学期期中考试
高二英语试卷参考答案
一、阅读理解
1-3 DAC 4-6 BDC 7-10 ABDC 11-15BDFAC
二、完形填空
16-20 CDADB 21-25 BABCA 26-30 DADCB
三、语法填空
31. leaves 32. obtained 33. Their 34. by 35. apparently
36. the 37. failing 38. to make 39. whom 40. was called
四、词汇，语法与句子
41.passionate 42.arriving 43.which 44.to leave 45. slightly
46．in 47.was accompanied 48.Taking 49. employees 50.the 51. distinguished 52.Given 53.What 54.convince; him ; of
55．Devoted to his work 56. What embarrassed； disapproved of； leaving
五、书面表达（一）应用文
Dear Steven,
I haven’t seen you for a long time. How have you been recently? I plan to pay a visit to the Dong Jiang Park in our city next week. I’m writing to invite you to go with me.
Located in the south of the city, the park is about 400 acres. Full of many kinds of trees and flowers, this park has beautiful scenery. In addition, there is a lake in the middle of the park where people often go boating. Let’s meet at the school gate at 8 am next Saturday and go to this park together. I’m looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Hua
六、书面表达（二）读后续写
Peter raised his hand slowly and nervously. “Mr. White, I didn’t get 100 in the test. I missed a word.” He stood up and handed his teacher the dictionary he liked best and his test paper. “I spelled contribution with ‘si’ instead of ‘ti’.” Peter could feel his classmates looking at him with surprise as he walked back to his desk. Mr. White held up Peter’s test paper. “Class,” he said, “Peter did something even more important than spelling every word correctly in a test.” Mr. White smiled at Peter. “He taught us all a lesson on being honest.”
Peter didn’t expect that his teacher would praise him for being honest. He looked around, finding many of his classmates were smiling at him. “Peter, I want you to have this dictionary because you set a good example for all of us,” Mr. White said. Peter took the dictionary from his teacher and expressed his thanks to him. He also really learnt the importance of honesty. He couldn’t wait to tell Mum one of his best days ever.
【故事情节线】Peter 仔细复习每一个单词，为拼写测试做准备→Peter 得了 100 分，老师奖 励给他一本他最喜欢的英汉词典，他很高兴→拿到试卷后，他发现自己有一个单词写错了， 自己没有资格得奖→他陷入了沉思→他想起了妈妈的话:"我们应该做一诚实的人。"
【续写思路】 根据第一段首句可知,Peter 慢慢地举起手来。本段可以描写Peter向老师讲明 自己写错了一个单词，没有资格得奖,并把他最喜欢的词典和试卷交给了老师。然后可以描写 老师和同学们的反应。根据第二段首句可知，Peter 没有料到老师会因为他的诚实而表扬他。本段可以描写Peter后续的反应，如向老师表达感谢、高兴地回家告诉妈妈今天发生的事情等。本段还应进行主题 升华，表明诚实的重要性。
评分标准：
一、评分原则
（一）本题总分为25分，按七个档次进行评分。
（二）评分时，主要从内容、语言表达和篇章结构三个方面考查，具体为：
续写内容的质量、续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（三）评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
（四）评分时还应注意：
1.词数少于120的，酌情扣分：
2.单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
3.书写较差以致影响可读性的，可酌情扣分。
二、各档次给分范围和要求
第七档（22-25分）
——创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
——使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解；
——自然有效地使用了段落间、句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第六档（18-21分）
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；
——使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解；
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第五档（15-17分）
——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关；
——使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解；
——使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第四档（11-14分）
——创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关；
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解；
——尚有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第三档（6-10分）
——内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节；
——所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解；
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第二档（1-5分）
——内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节；
——所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解；
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
第一档（0分）
——未作答：所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
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