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2023辽宁省协作校高二上学期期中考试英语含答案
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这是一份2023辽宁省协作校高二上学期期中考试英语含答案，共16页。
2022—2023学年度上学期期中考试高二试题
英 语
考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where does the man want to go?
A. To Broadway Street. B. To 5th Avenue. C. To Park Avenue.
2. Why does the man talk to the woman?
A. To ask for advice. B. To buy a computer from her. C. To borrow money.
3. What is the woman?
A. A salesperson. B. A hotel clerk. C. A waitress.
4. When will the party be held?
A. On December 13th. B. On December 30th. C. On December 31st.
5. What does Alice think of Sam Smith’s second album?
A. Boring. B. Wonderful. C. Confusing.
第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What happened to the man this morning?
A. He messed up a meeting. B. He had a car accident. C. He was late for work.
7. How did the man’s employer feel about him?
A. Very worried. B. A bit dissatisfied. C. Quite angry.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What kind of food should the man avoid?
A. Cold food. B. Spicy food. C. Hard food.
9. Where will the speakers go for dinner?
A To Wonderland. B. To Pizza House. C. To Wonton Wok.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What color jacket does the woman try on?
A. Black. B. Brown. C. Red.
11. How much will the woman pay?
A. $250. B. $215. C. $210.
12. How will the woman pay for the items?
A. By credit card. B. In cash. C. By check.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Strangers. B. Classmates. C. Friends.
14. Why does the woman want to go to Hana’s Bookstore?
A. To deliver some books. B. To keep an appointment. C. To buy some books.
15. What should the woman do at the first traffic light?
A. Go straight. B. Turn left. C. Turn right.
16. Where is Hana’s Bookstore?
A. Beside a supermarket. B. Opposite a post office. C. Beside a school.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What does Ossi Saarinen do?
A. He’s a scientist. B. He’s a photographer. C. He’s a journalist.
18. How much land is covered by the forests in Finland?
A. Almost 1/4 of the whole country.
B. Almost 1/3 of the whole country.
C. Almost 3/4 of the whole country.
19. What are the animals like in Finland?
A. Mysterious and attractive. B. Peaceful and funny. C. Smart and amazing.
20. What does the speaker plan to do next?
A. Show some pictures. B. Answer some questions. C. Play a video.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome to the Spark 5G Street Museum
The Spark 5G Street Museum introduces a modern twist on the traditional museum experience. You will gain a co-created series of 5G-powered AR (增强现实) experiences that bring to life unseen stories of some of our nation’s most iconic artists: Parris Goebel, Benee, and David Dallas.
Dance with Parris Goebel
Co-created with Parris Goebel, this exhibit brings to life the feeling she describes when she performs: “When I dance I feel powerful, unstoppable — it’s as if I transform into a super-human version of myself.”
Step into the Beneeverse
Co-created with Stella Bennett (Benee), this exhibit embodies the source of her creative inspiration—the natural world. It immerses viewers in Benee’s world — a magical place where nature and imagination are flourishing.
Breakthrough with David Dallas
Co-created with David Dallas, the exhibit honours an important point for Dallas’ creative identity. It was director Joel Kefali who was first to ask Dallas what his aesthetic was, and it became a turning point in his career, as the two worked together on a series of music videos that set him apart in a world of hip-hop sameness.
*Exhibit locations
This is a location-based outdoor experience. Our exhibits can be found throughout the country in selected Spark 5G areas. We have museum locations in Auckland, Hamilton, Wellington, Christchurch and Dunedin. Use our locations page or download the app to find your nearest exhibit.
1. Who would most probably choose Benee’s exhibit?
A. A nature lover. B. A professional dancer. C. A music fan. D. A song writer.
2. What made David Dallas stand out in the hip-hop world?
A. His outstanding hip-hop skills. B. His secret personal identity.
C. His creative music videos. D. His high sense of honour.
3. What do the three exhibits have in common?
A. They must be enjoyed through an app. B. They offer a chance to meet the artists in person.
C. They take place in traditional indoor museums. D. They rely on modern scientific technology.
B
Remember the TV show Green Acres? This story is a little like that, only with more animals and an even better ending.
“My wife of 24 years, AnnMarie Roberts, was raised in New York City, worked in the fashion industry, and never got her hands dirty,” wrote Keith Roberts in the magazine Country Woman. “Then, nine years ago, I wanted to move home to Florida and reconnect to my country roots, but how would I inspire the same feeling in, well, a city woman? I brought her a two-month-old potbellied pig.”
AnnMarie, then 46, was fascinated by it immediately. Soon she took in another potbellied pig that had been abandoned. And thus began Sugarloaf Mountain Ranch, her animal shelter in central Florida.
The ranch now has 300 rescues, each with its own story. “Once, we rescued two roosters that had been shot — one has brain injuries. Many vets tell me, ‘Euthanize them — it’s too much work.’ But I say if they can live, then I’m going to help them live.” said AnnMarie.
AnnMarie is not only saving animals; she’s giving their owners peace of mind. “A woman called from her hospital bed.” AnnMarie recalls. “Her pigs would be killed if she couldn’t find a suitable home. ‘I only have a few months, and I need to know that they’ll be safe,’ she said.” So AnnMarie drove three hours and got them.
Soon after, AnnMarie received a note from the woman’s daughter. “Dear AnnMarie,” she wrote. “My mom went peacefully, and I owe part of that to you. She agonized over Bailey and Smitten, but she went knowing that they are forever loved. Thank you for being Mom’s angel.”
“She is a ball of energy,” Keith wrote. “I often found her sitting in the coop with ten chicks nestled in her lap, which is exactly what you’d expect from a true mother hen.”
4. What kind of TV show may Green Acres be about?
A. Business women. B. Modern city. C. Fashion industry. D. Country life.
5. What do the underlined words in paragraph 4 “Euthanize them” mean?
A. To treat their injuries. B. To put an end to their life.
C. To cut their feed cost. D. To help them better live.
6. Why could the woman pass away in peace?
A. Because she knew her pigs would be in good hands.
B. Because her daughter called AnnMarie from hospital.
C. Because AnnMarie wrote a note to comfort her.
D. Because her pigs would be adopted by a vet.
7. Which words can best describe AnnMarie?
A. Humorous and caring. B. Energetic and helpful.
C. Ambitious and demanding. D. Courageous and calm.
C
Candy Funhouse, an online retailer (零售商) of candy treats from chocolate bars to gummies (软糖) and licorice (甘草糖), is hiring for a $78, 000 a year, work-from-home job as its Chief Candy Officer. The job includes: “leading candy board meetings, being the head taste tester... and all things fun.”
Several thousand candidates have already applied for the position, which was posted on LInkedIn in July, said Chief Executive Officer Jamal Hejazi. He noted that he’s been surprised by such a huge number of “golden ticket” themed applications and even some carefully prepared videos of entire families offering to share the tasting duties and salary.
Candy Funhouse, based outside of Toronto, is headed by a quartet of siblings whose parents owned donut shops and a local restaurant. “My brother Mo, a candyhead, founded it in 2018 and my mother was employee No. 2”, said Hejazi, adding that he and a younger sister and brother later joined the firm.
The family hoped to distinguish their company from other highly successful online competitors such as Mars, Hershey and Amazon with a weird mix of products, no minimum orders —“we’ll sell one lollipop (棒棒糖)” —and a strong push on social media.
The company said the Chief Candy Officer position is open to applicants as young as five years old— although parental permission would likely be required. Many parents have filmed their child filling out the application and posted it online.
Hejazi also noted that reports on social media claiming that the Chief Candy Officer will be required to eat 3, 500 pieces of candy per month are incorrect. (That number represents the different varieties the company stocks.) “That would be 117 a day,” Hejazi said. “That’s too many!”
8. What is the duty of a Chief Candy Officer?
A. Tasting candies. B. Selecting board members.
C. Paying staffs. D. Making Chocolate bars.
9. What can be inferred about applicants?
A. Their fun will soon disappear. B. They have to share salary with their family.
C. They may face fierce competitions, D. Their parents must approve their applications.
10. What’s the difference between Candy Funhouse and its competitors?
A. It offers special discounts. B. It doesn’t set limits on customers’ orders.
C. It focuses on a single kind of product. D. It doesn’t rely on social media.
11. How did Hejazi feel about the reports on social media?
A. They are wonderful. B. They are incomplete.
C. They are unreasonable. D. They are boring.
D
Listening to the radio is better at preventing dementia (痴呆) than exercise, a new study suggests. Dementia is one of Britain’s biggest killers, with one in ten male deaths caused by the neurodegenerative (神经退行性的) condition, and one in eight women.
But scientists have long believed that some hobbies and activities can protect the brain by delaying and potentially even completely protecting against the disease.
A large-scale review from scientists at Peking University in Beijing reviewed 38 different studies looking at what pastimes are most beneficial. The data included more than two million people and found that leisure activities were effective at protecting against the disease, lowering the risk by 17 percent, but some hobbies were found to be better than others. Mental activity — which includes reading, writing, watching television, listening to the radio and playing a musical instrument — was found to reduce the risk by 23 percent. In contrast, physical activity, including walking, running, swimming, dancing and yoga, lowered risk by just 17 percent. However, this was still better than people whose leisure time was spent doing social activities like visiting friends, going to church or volunteering, as this saw risk drop by just 7 percent.
“This meta-analysis suggests that being active has benefits, and there are plenty of activities that are easy to incorporate into daily life that may be beneficial to the brain,” said study author Dr Lin Lu of Peking University. “Our research found that leisure activities may reduce the risk of dementia. Future studies should include larger sample sizes and longer follow-up time to reveal more links between leisure activities and dementia.”
Dr Sara Imarisio, head of research at Alzheimer’s Research UK, said: “There isn’t any conclusive evidence for particular brain training programmes or activities that are especially good for staying sharp, but activities that are mentally challenging, sociable and also enjoyable are likely to be better for the brain than spending time alone or engaged in passive hobbies.”
12. Which of the following activities lowers the chance of developing dementia most according to Peking University’s review?
A. Swimming. B. Watching television
C. Volunteering. D. Visiting Friends.
13. What is needed to further conduct the study?
A. More assistance. B. Wider data.
C. Longer trip. D. Bigger budget.
14. Why does the author mention Dr Sara Imarisio in the last paragraph?
A. To present the background. B. To put forward a concept.
C. To provide support D. To make a prediction.
15. What is the best title of this passage?
A. Scientists finally found Britain’s biggest killer
B. Sad truth behind people suffering from Dementia
C. Unexpected health benefits of listening to the radio
D. The very simple tasks may keep dementia away
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
While rap (说唱音乐) songs are made up of many parts, the verse (主歌部分) is by far the most important. ____16____. Writing rap verses is an incredible method of artistic expression, as long as you keep a few tips in mind.
Begin by free-writing lines about your topic. Using your topic as a launching point, start writing out lines of your thoughts, trying to rhyme (押韵) the last words in each line. Once you’ve exhausted a set of rhymes, start another one and write lines until you run out of ideas. Explore ideas around your topic until you find the ones you enjoy or know best. ____17____— this first stage is used to create material to build your verse out of.
Build a rhyme scheme (格式) around your favorite lines. A rhyme scheme is a pattern that give your verse structure. ____18____. If for example, you rhyme the first two lines with the word “me”, then the next two lines rhyme with the word “you”, then you have rhyming couplets. For the rest of the verse, you would usually use couplets in all of your rhymes.
Start with a powerful line. The first lines of your verse should introduce the verse and capture the listener’s attention. Ask a question, make an interesting metaphor, or blow the listener away with skillful wordplay. ____19____.
Develop a flow, or rhythm, to your rap. Once you’ve got your words on the page, you need to figure out how to say them. Flow is how a rapper delivers his/her lyrics in along with the beat. Listen again to the beat you are rapping over and practice fitting your lyrics to it.
____20____. As you practice your flow, don’t be afraid to go back and rewrite your verse so that it fits the beat better. If you are having trouble fitting all the words in, find a way to shorten your lines. Once you know what the chorus is, you can adjust your lyrics to fit the song better.
A. Get to know your beat well
B. Rewrite your verse to fit the beat
C. Most rappers have mixed rhyme schemes
D. Don’t worry just yet about making your lines perfect
E. You can think of it as a blueprint of which lines need to rhyme with
F. Anything to introduce the verse and make yourself stand out will be OK
G. That’s because it is where a rapper develops the ideas of the song in depth
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B，C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I remember one day last year when I was a counselor in training at my summer camp, and not having the greatest day. Nothing specific was ___21___, but everyone has those bad days. Well, when I went to bed that night, I found some flowers and a note that ___22___, “I hope this ___23___ your day!” I ___24___ do not know who left them on my bed, but it doesn’t matter. It’s the thought that ___25___.
One of my ___26___ personal experiences was when I was ___27___ the University of Miami. It was pouring with rain, and we were on the campus tour. To get from one building to the next, we had to cross into the rain, and right there was a student standing with a bunch of ___28___ Anyone who did not have their own umbrella was then ___29___ one by this student. The umbrellas were _____30_____ with a logo and the word “kindness”. There was another student _____31_____ at the other building, who was collecting and _____32_____ the umbrellas to people traveling in the _____33_____ direction. A _____34_____ as simple as this has the power to make somebody’s day brighter.
As I said earlier, it’s the smallest things that make the biggest _____35_____ on people’s lives.
21. A. wrong B. funny C. impossible D. safe
22. A. wrote B. said · C. printed D. described
23. A. ruins B. starts C. reminds D. brightens
24. A. ever B. once C. still D. only
25. A. counts B. hits C. flashes D. changes
26. A. bitter B. favourite C. educational D. unique
27. A. representing B. contacting C. visiting D. establishing
28. A. umbrellas B. flowers C. books D. files
29. A. shown B. given C. made D. awarded
30. A. mixed B. filled C. surrounded D. stamped
31. A. deserted B. stationed C. hidden D. wanted
32. A. picking up B. holding up C. passing out D. turning out
33. A. opposite B. current C. correct D. original
34. A. task B. deal C. request D. gesture
35. A. compromise B. impressions C. impacts D. progress
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Overfishing and climate change are pushing some of the ___36___(world) most iconic seabirds to the brink (边缘) of extinction, according to a new report.
The study reveals that kittiwakes (海鸥) and gannets (塘鹅) ___37___ (be) among a number of seabirds that have now joined the red list of under-threat birds ___38___ (draw) up by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
According to the study, birds are well studied and great indicators of the health of the wider environment. A species ___39___ higher risk of dying out is such a worrying alarm call ___40___ action needs to be taken now.
The study finds that overfishing and changes in the Pacific and north Atlantic caused by climate change ___41___(affect) the availability of sand eels (鳗鱼) in recent years. This has caused “disastrous chick survival rates”, it says. ___42___ (global), the species is thought to have declined by about 40% since the 1970s, ___43___ (justify) its move from the “least concern” category to “vulnerable” on the Red List.
“The alarming decline of the seabirds, provides a ___44___ (pain) lesson in what happens when nations take ____45____ ‘out of sight, out of mind’ approach to conservation,” said Marguerite Tarzia, European marine conservation officer for Bird Life International.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假设你是国际学校学生李华，你的英国同学Peter发来邮件，请求你为他推荐一个健身馆。请给他回信，内容包括：
1.写信目的：
2.推荐的健身馆及原因。
注意：1.写作词数80左右;
2.可以适当增加细节，使行文连贯;
3.开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Peter,
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I made it all the way to fifth grade before anyone (except me) realized that I couldn’t see twenty feet in front of me. Our school had vision screenings (视力普查) every year, but somehow I had managed to fake good vision and pass the tests.
But then in the fifth grade, I failed. It was my turn to go into the screening room, and I nervously took my seat in front of the testing machine. The nurse told me to look into the little black machine and tell her which direction the letter E’s legs were pointing. Barely able to make out the black spot of an E, I made a guess: “Right, left, left, up, down, up, left, right”. I looked up at her.
She studied my face for a moment. Then she said, “Could you repeat that?”
I panicked. I’d never been asked to repeat it. And I hadn’t memorized the guess I’d just made up. I was trapped. So, I looked into the machine again and made up another sequence of guesses. I glanced over at the nurse, who was leaning forward with a frown on her face.
“You have no idea which way they’re facing, do you?” she asked.
“Not really,” I confessed.
“Can you even see the E at all?” she asked.
“Sort of.. no,” I admitted.
“Then why didn’t you just say so?” she demanded.
I didn’t respond. I thought the answer was obvious. Glasses in the fifth grade were a social death sentence. I would become a joke in my class.
The nurse sent me home with a note for my mother that said I needed to visit the eye doctor because I’d failed the vision test The trip home today was very slow.
My mother (who wears glasses) said it would all be just fine. It wouldn’t hurt a bit, she said. But I wasn’t worried about pain—I was worried about looking like Super Geek (怪人).
注意：
1.续写词数应为150词左右;
2.请在答题卡相应位置作答。
The next day, my mother dragged me to the eye doctor’s office.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
But then Monday morning came, and I had to face what I fear: the kids in my classroom.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2022—2023学年度上学期期中考试高二试题
英语
考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where does the man want to go?
A. To Broadway Street. B. To 5th Avenue. C. To Park Avenue.
2. Why does the man talk to the woman?
A. To ask for advice. B. To buy a computer from her. C. To borrow money.
3. What is the woman?
A. A salesperson. B. A hotel clerk. C. A waitress.
4. When will the party be held?
A. On December 13th. B. On December 30th. C. On December 31st.
5. What does Alice think of Sam Smith’s second album?
A Boring. B. Wonderful. C. Confusing.
第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What happened to the man this morning?
A. He messed up a meeting. B. He had a car accident. C. He was late for work.
7. How did the man’s employer feel about him?
A. Very worried. B. A bit dissatisfied. C. Quite angry.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What kind of food should the man avoid?
A. Cold food. B. Spicy food. C. Hard food.
9. Where will the speakers go for dinner?
A. To Wonderland. B. To Pizza House. C. To Wonton Wok.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What color jacket does the woman try on?
A. Black. B. Brown. C. Red.
11. How much will the woman pay?
A. $250. B. $215. C. $210.
12. How will the woman pay for the items?
A. By credit card. B. In cash. C. By check.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Strangers. B. Classmates. C. Friends.
14. Why does the woman want to go to Hana’s Bookstore?
A. To deliver some books. B. To keep an appointment. C. To buy some books.
15. What should the woman do at the first traffic light?
A. Go straight. B. Turn left. C. Turn right.
16. Where is Hana’s Bookstore?
A. Beside a supermarket. B. Opposite a post office. C. Beside a school.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What does Ossi Saarinen do?
A. He’s a scientist. B. He’s a photographer. C. He’s a journalist.
18. How much land is covered by the forests in Finland?
A. Almost 1/4 of the whole country.
B. Almost 1/3 of the whole country.
C. Almost 3/4 of the whole country.
19. What are the animals like in Finland?
A. Mysterious and attractive. B. Peaceful and funny. C. Smart and amazing.
20. What does the speaker plan to do next?
A. Show some pictures. B. Answer some questions. C. Play a video.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. C 3. D
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. D 5. B 6. A 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. A 9. C 10. B 11. C
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. B 14. C 15. D
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. G 17. D 18. E 19. F 20. B
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B，C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21 B 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. C
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. world’s
37. are 38. drawn
39. at 40. that
41. have affected
42. Globally
43. justifying
44. painful
45. an
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】DearPeter，
You’ve been looking for a gym to build your body, haven’t you? I’m glad to tell you that I’ve just read an ad about such a gym and recommend it to you.
The gym is called BETTER BODY GYM. It has two branches in the city-one downtown and the other by the freeway . It opens from 10 a. m. to midnight, 365 days a year! It gives you 35 classes every week, including tennis and swimming. In this way, it will help you build the body you’ve always wanted. If you join BETTER BODY GYM this week, you will get a special offer, which includes a free T-shirt, two personal training hours and one month free membership. If you are interested, please call 5555 6789 for more information. To get fit and get healthy, I think this gym is a good choice for you.
Best wishes
Yours
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】 The next day, my mother dragged me to the eye doctor’s office. I chose a set of frames and tried to believe my mother when she said they looked really good on me. The doctor said the glasses would be ready soon. But I wasn’t ready at all. When the glasses arrived, the eye doctor put them on my face and walked me out onto the sidewalk in front of his office. Looking up from my shoes, I found myself in a whole new world — a world filled with clear pictures, bright colors, and fine detail everywhere I looked. I could also see my mother smiling as she watched me see the world in a whole new way. On that first day, they were a present.
But then Monday morning came, and I had to face what I fear: the kids in my classroom. I was frightened that some naughty boys would call me “four eyes!” However, it didn’t happened as I feared it would be. When I entered the classroom, Lily, my best friend, showed me a big smile, saying, “Wow! How beautiful your glasses are!” Even, during the math class, for the first time I raised up my hand and answered the question because I finally saw the blackboard clearly. So don’t be afraid of what you think is frightening, maybe it would open a brand new world.
2022—2023学年度上学期期中考试高二试题
英 语
考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where does the man want to go?
A. To Broadway Street. B. To 5th Avenue. C. To Park Avenue.
2. Why does the man talk to the woman?
A. To ask for advice. B. To buy a computer from her. C. To borrow money.
3. What is the woman?
A. A salesperson. B. A hotel clerk. C. A waitress.
4. When will the party be held?
A. On December 13th. B. On December 30th. C. On December 31st.
5. What does Alice think of Sam Smith’s second album?
A. Boring. B. Wonderful. C. Confusing.
第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What happened to the man this morning?
A. He messed up a meeting. B. He had a car accident. C. He was late for work.
7. How did the man’s employer feel about him?
A. Very worried. B. A bit dissatisfied. C. Quite angry.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What kind of food should the man avoid?
A. Cold food. B. Spicy food. C. Hard food.
9. Where will the speakers go for dinner?
A To Wonderland. B. To Pizza House. C. To Wonton Wok.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What color jacket does the woman try on?
A. Black. B. Brown. C. Red.
11. How much will the woman pay?
A. $250. B. $215. C. $210.
12. How will the woman pay for the items?
A. By credit card. B. In cash. C. By check.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Strangers. B. Classmates. C. Friends.
14. Why does the woman want to go to Hana’s Bookstore?
A. To deliver some books. B. To keep an appointment. C. To buy some books.
15. What should the woman do at the first traffic light?
A. Go straight. B. Turn left. C. Turn right.
16. Where is Hana’s Bookstore?
A. Beside a supermarket. B. Opposite a post office. C. Beside a school.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What does Ossi Saarinen do?
A. He’s a scientist. B. He’s a photographer. C. He’s a journalist.
18. How much land is covered by the forests in Finland?
A. Almost 1/4 of the whole country.
B. Almost 1/3 of the whole country.
C. Almost 3/4 of the whole country.
19. What are the animals like in Finland?
A. Mysterious and attractive. B. Peaceful and funny. C. Smart and amazing.
20. What does the speaker plan to do next?
A. Show some pictures. B. Answer some questions. C. Play a video.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome to the Spark 5G Street Museum
The Spark 5G Street Museum introduces a modern twist on the traditional museum experience. You will gain a co-created series of 5G-powered AR (增强现实) experiences that bring to life unseen stories of some of our nation’s most iconic artists: Parris Goebel, Benee, and David Dallas.
Dance with Parris Goebel
Co-created with Parris Goebel, this exhibit brings to life the feeling she describes when she performs: “When I dance I feel powerful, unstoppable — it’s as if I transform into a super-human version of myself.”
Step into the Beneeverse
Co-created with Stella Bennett (Benee), this exhibit embodies the source of her creative inspiration—the natural world. It immerses viewers in Benee’s world — a magical place where nature and imagination are flourishing.
Breakthrough with David Dallas
Co-created with David Dallas, the exhibit honours an important point for Dallas’ creative identity. It was director Joel Kefali who was first to ask Dallas what his aesthetic was, and it became a turning point in his career, as the two worked together on a series of music videos that set him apart in a world of hip-hop sameness.
*Exhibit locations
This is a location-based outdoor experience. Our exhibits can be found throughout the country in selected Spark 5G areas. We have museum locations in Auckland, Hamilton, Wellington, Christchurch and Dunedin. Use our locations page or download the app to find your nearest exhibit.
1. Who would most probably choose Benee’s exhibit?
A. A nature lover. B. A professional dancer. C. A music fan. D. A song writer.
2. What made David Dallas stand out in the hip-hop world?
A. His outstanding hip-hop skills. B. His secret personal identity.
C. His creative music videos. D. His high sense of honour.
3. What do the three exhibits have in common?
A. They must be enjoyed through an app. B. They offer a chance to meet the artists in person.
C. They take place in traditional indoor museums. D. They rely on modern scientific technology.
B
Remember the TV show Green Acres? This story is a little like that, only with more animals and an even better ending.
“My wife of 24 years, AnnMarie Roberts, was raised in New York City, worked in the fashion industry, and never got her hands dirty,” wrote Keith Roberts in the magazine Country Woman. “Then, nine years ago, I wanted to move home to Florida and reconnect to my country roots, but how would I inspire the same feeling in, well, a city woman? I brought her a two-month-old potbellied pig.”
AnnMarie, then 46, was fascinated by it immediately. Soon she took in another potbellied pig that had been abandoned. And thus began Sugarloaf Mountain Ranch, her animal shelter in central Florida.
The ranch now has 300 rescues, each with its own story. “Once, we rescued two roosters that had been shot — one has brain injuries. Many vets tell me, ‘Euthanize them — it’s too much work.’ But I say if they can live, then I’m going to help them live.” said AnnMarie.
AnnMarie is not only saving animals; she’s giving their owners peace of mind. “A woman called from her hospital bed.” AnnMarie recalls. “Her pigs would be killed if she couldn’t find a suitable home. ‘I only have a few months, and I need to know that they’ll be safe,’ she said.” So AnnMarie drove three hours and got them.
Soon after, AnnMarie received a note from the woman’s daughter. “Dear AnnMarie,” she wrote. “My mom went peacefully, and I owe part of that to you. She agonized over Bailey and Smitten, but she went knowing that they are forever loved. Thank you for being Mom’s angel.”
“She is a ball of energy,” Keith wrote. “I often found her sitting in the coop with ten chicks nestled in her lap, which is exactly what you’d expect from a true mother hen.”
4. What kind of TV show may Green Acres be about?
A. Business women. B. Modern city. C. Fashion industry. D. Country life.
5. What do the underlined words in paragraph 4 “Euthanize them” mean?
A. To treat their injuries. B. To put an end to their life.
C. To cut their feed cost. D. To help them better live.
6. Why could the woman pass away in peace?
A. Because she knew her pigs would be in good hands.
B. Because her daughter called AnnMarie from hospital.
C. Because AnnMarie wrote a note to comfort her.
D. Because her pigs would be adopted by a vet.
7. Which words can best describe AnnMarie?
A. Humorous and caring. B. Energetic and helpful.
C. Ambitious and demanding. D. Courageous and calm.
C
Candy Funhouse, an online retailer (零售商) of candy treats from chocolate bars to gummies (软糖) and licorice (甘草糖), is hiring for a $78, 000 a year, work-from-home job as its Chief Candy Officer. The job includes: “leading candy board meetings, being the head taste tester... and all things fun.”
Several thousand candidates have already applied for the position, which was posted on LInkedIn in July, said Chief Executive Officer Jamal Hejazi. He noted that he’s been surprised by such a huge number of “golden ticket” themed applications and even some carefully prepared videos of entire families offering to share the tasting duties and salary.
Candy Funhouse, based outside of Toronto, is headed by a quartet of siblings whose parents owned donut shops and a local restaurant. “My brother Mo, a candyhead, founded it in 2018 and my mother was employee No. 2”, said Hejazi, adding that he and a younger sister and brother later joined the firm.
The family hoped to distinguish their company from other highly successful online competitors such as Mars, Hershey and Amazon with a weird mix of products, no minimum orders —“we’ll sell one lollipop (棒棒糖)” —and a strong push on social media.
The company said the Chief Candy Officer position is open to applicants as young as five years old— although parental permission would likely be required. Many parents have filmed their child filling out the application and posted it online.
Hejazi also noted that reports on social media claiming that the Chief Candy Officer will be required to eat 3, 500 pieces of candy per month are incorrect. (That number represents the different varieties the company stocks.) “That would be 117 a day,” Hejazi said. “That’s too many!”
8. What is the duty of a Chief Candy Officer?
A. Tasting candies. B. Selecting board members.
C. Paying staffs. D. Making Chocolate bars.
9. What can be inferred about applicants?
A. Their fun will soon disappear. B. They have to share salary with their family.
C. They may face fierce competitions, D. Their parents must approve their applications.
10. What’s the difference between Candy Funhouse and its competitors?
A. It offers special discounts. B. It doesn’t set limits on customers’ orders.
C. It focuses on a single kind of product. D. It doesn’t rely on social media.
11. How did Hejazi feel about the reports on social media?
A. They are wonderful. B. They are incomplete.
C. They are unreasonable. D. They are boring.
D
Listening to the radio is better at preventing dementia (痴呆) than exercise, a new study suggests. Dementia is one of Britain’s biggest killers, with one in ten male deaths caused by the neurodegenerative (神经退行性的) condition, and one in eight women.
But scientists have long believed that some hobbies and activities can protect the brain by delaying and potentially even completely protecting against the disease.
A large-scale review from scientists at Peking University in Beijing reviewed 38 different studies looking at what pastimes are most beneficial. The data included more than two million people and found that leisure activities were effective at protecting against the disease, lowering the risk by 17 percent, but some hobbies were found to be better than others. Mental activity — which includes reading, writing, watching television, listening to the radio and playing a musical instrument — was found to reduce the risk by 23 percent. In contrast, physical activity, including walking, running, swimming, dancing and yoga, lowered risk by just 17 percent. However, this was still better than people whose leisure time was spent doing social activities like visiting friends, going to church or volunteering, as this saw risk drop by just 7 percent.
“This meta-analysis suggests that being active has benefits, and there are plenty of activities that are easy to incorporate into daily life that may be beneficial to the brain,” said study author Dr Lin Lu of Peking University. “Our research found that leisure activities may reduce the risk of dementia. Future studies should include larger sample sizes and longer follow-up time to reveal more links between leisure activities and dementia.”
Dr Sara Imarisio, head of research at Alzheimer’s Research UK, said: “There isn’t any conclusive evidence for particular brain training programmes or activities that are especially good for staying sharp, but activities that are mentally challenging, sociable and also enjoyable are likely to be better for the brain than spending time alone or engaged in passive hobbies.”
12. Which of the following activities lowers the chance of developing dementia most according to Peking University’s review?
A. Swimming. B. Watching television
C. Volunteering. D. Visiting Friends.
13. What is needed to further conduct the study?
A. More assistance. B. Wider data.
C. Longer trip. D. Bigger budget.
14. Why does the author mention Dr Sara Imarisio in the last paragraph?
A. To present the background. B. To put forward a concept.
C. To provide support D. To make a prediction.
15. What is the best title of this passage?
A. Scientists finally found Britain’s biggest killer
B. Sad truth behind people suffering from Dementia
C. Unexpected health benefits of listening to the radio
D. The very simple tasks may keep dementia away
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
While rap (说唱音乐) songs are made up of many parts, the verse (主歌部分) is by far the most important. ____16____. Writing rap verses is an incredible method of artistic expression, as long as you keep a few tips in mind.
Begin by free-writing lines about your topic. Using your topic as a launching point, start writing out lines of your thoughts, trying to rhyme (押韵) the last words in each line. Once you’ve exhausted a set of rhymes, start another one and write lines until you run out of ideas. Explore ideas around your topic until you find the ones you enjoy or know best. ____17____— this first stage is used to create material to build your verse out of.
Build a rhyme scheme (格式) around your favorite lines. A rhyme scheme is a pattern that give your verse structure. ____18____. If for example, you rhyme the first two lines with the word “me”, then the next two lines rhyme with the word “you”, then you have rhyming couplets. For the rest of the verse, you would usually use couplets in all of your rhymes.
Start with a powerful line. The first lines of your verse should introduce the verse and capture the listener’s attention. Ask a question, make an interesting metaphor, or blow the listener away with skillful wordplay. ____19____.
Develop a flow, or rhythm, to your rap. Once you’ve got your words on the page, you need to figure out how to say them. Flow is how a rapper delivers his/her lyrics in along with the beat. Listen again to the beat you are rapping over and practice fitting your lyrics to it.
____20____. As you practice your flow, don’t be afraid to go back and rewrite your verse so that it fits the beat better. If you are having trouble fitting all the words in, find a way to shorten your lines. Once you know what the chorus is, you can adjust your lyrics to fit the song better.
A. Get to know your beat well
B. Rewrite your verse to fit the beat
C. Most rappers have mixed rhyme schemes
D. Don’t worry just yet about making your lines perfect
E. You can think of it as a blueprint of which lines need to rhyme with
F. Anything to introduce the verse and make yourself stand out will be OK
G. That’s because it is where a rapper develops the ideas of the song in depth
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B，C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I remember one day last year when I was a counselor in training at my summer camp, and not having the greatest day. Nothing specific was ___21___, but everyone has those bad days. Well, when I went to bed that night, I found some flowers and a note that ___22___, “I hope this ___23___ your day!” I ___24___ do not know who left them on my bed, but it doesn’t matter. It’s the thought that ___25___.
One of my ___26___ personal experiences was when I was ___27___ the University of Miami. It was pouring with rain, and we were on the campus tour. To get from one building to the next, we had to cross into the rain, and right there was a student standing with a bunch of ___28___ Anyone who did not have their own umbrella was then ___29___ one by this student. The umbrellas were _____30_____ with a logo and the word “kindness”. There was another student _____31_____ at the other building, who was collecting and _____32_____ the umbrellas to people traveling in the _____33_____ direction. A _____34_____ as simple as this has the power to make somebody’s day brighter.
As I said earlier, it’s the smallest things that make the biggest _____35_____ on people’s lives.
21. A. wrong B. funny C. impossible D. safe
22. A. wrote B. said · C. printed D. described
23. A. ruins B. starts C. reminds D. brightens
24. A. ever B. once C. still D. only
25. A. counts B. hits C. flashes D. changes
26. A. bitter B. favourite C. educational D. unique
27. A. representing B. contacting C. visiting D. establishing
28. A. umbrellas B. flowers C. books D. files
29. A. shown B. given C. made D. awarded
30. A. mixed B. filled C. surrounded D. stamped
31. A. deserted B. stationed C. hidden D. wanted
32. A. picking up B. holding up C. passing out D. turning out
33. A. opposite B. current C. correct D. original
34. A. task B. deal C. request D. gesture
35. A. compromise B. impressions C. impacts D. progress
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Overfishing and climate change are pushing some of the ___36___(world) most iconic seabirds to the brink (边缘) of extinction, according to a new report.
The study reveals that kittiwakes (海鸥) and gannets (塘鹅) ___37___ (be) among a number of seabirds that have now joined the red list of under-threat birds ___38___ (draw) up by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
According to the study, birds are well studied and great indicators of the health of the wider environment. A species ___39___ higher risk of dying out is such a worrying alarm call ___40___ action needs to be taken now.
The study finds that overfishing and changes in the Pacific and north Atlantic caused by climate change ___41___(affect) the availability of sand eels (鳗鱼) in recent years. This has caused “disastrous chick survival rates”, it says. ___42___ (global), the species is thought to have declined by about 40% since the 1970s, ___43___ (justify) its move from the “least concern” category to “vulnerable” on the Red List.
“The alarming decline of the seabirds, provides a ___44___ (pain) lesson in what happens when nations take ____45____ ‘out of sight, out of mind’ approach to conservation,” said Marguerite Tarzia, European marine conservation officer for Bird Life International.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假设你是国际学校学生李华，你的英国同学Peter发来邮件，请求你为他推荐一个健身馆。请给他回信，内容包括：
1.写信目的：
2.推荐的健身馆及原因。
注意：1.写作词数80左右;
2.可以适当增加细节，使行文连贯;
3.开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Peter,
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I made it all the way to fifth grade before anyone (except me) realized that I couldn’t see twenty feet in front of me. Our school had vision screenings (视力普查) every year, but somehow I had managed to fake good vision and pass the tests.
But then in the fifth grade, I failed. It was my turn to go into the screening room, and I nervously took my seat in front of the testing machine. The nurse told me to look into the little black machine and tell her which direction the letter E’s legs were pointing. Barely able to make out the black spot of an E, I made a guess: “Right, left, left, up, down, up, left, right”. I looked up at her.
She studied my face for a moment. Then she said, “Could you repeat that?”
I panicked. I’d never been asked to repeat it. And I hadn’t memorized the guess I’d just made up. I was trapped. So, I looked into the machine again and made up another sequence of guesses. I glanced over at the nurse, who was leaning forward with a frown on her face.
“You have no idea which way they’re facing, do you?” she asked.
“Not really,” I confessed.
“Can you even see the E at all?” she asked.
“Sort of.. no,” I admitted.
“Then why didn’t you just say so?” she demanded.
I didn’t respond. I thought the answer was obvious. Glasses in the fifth grade were a social death sentence. I would become a joke in my class.
The nurse sent me home with a note for my mother that said I needed to visit the eye doctor because I’d failed the vision test The trip home today was very slow.
My mother (who wears glasses) said it would all be just fine. It wouldn’t hurt a bit, she said. But I wasn’t worried about pain—I was worried about looking like Super Geek (怪人).
注意：
1.续写词数应为150词左右;
2.请在答题卡相应位置作答。
The next day, my mother dragged me to the eye doctor’s office.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
But then Monday morning came, and I had to face what I fear: the kids in my classroom.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2022—2023学年度上学期期中考试高二试题
英语
考试时间：120分钟 满分：150分
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where does the man want to go?
A. To Broadway Street. B. To 5th Avenue. C. To Park Avenue.
2. Why does the man talk to the woman?
A. To ask for advice. B. To buy a computer from her. C. To borrow money.
3. What is the woman?
A. A salesperson. B. A hotel clerk. C. A waitress.
4. When will the party be held?
A. On December 13th. B. On December 30th. C. On December 31st.
5. What does Alice think of Sam Smith’s second album?
A Boring. B. Wonderful. C. Confusing.
第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What happened to the man this morning?
A. He messed up a meeting. B. He had a car accident. C. He was late for work.
7. How did the man’s employer feel about him?
A. Very worried. B. A bit dissatisfied. C. Quite angry.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What kind of food should the man avoid?
A. Cold food. B. Spicy food. C. Hard food.
9. Where will the speakers go for dinner?
A. To Wonderland. B. To Pizza House. C. To Wonton Wok.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What color jacket does the woman try on?
A. Black. B. Brown. C. Red.
11. How much will the woman pay?
A. $250. B. $215. C. $210.
12. How will the woman pay for the items?
A. By credit card. B. In cash. C. By check.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Strangers. B. Classmates. C. Friends.
14. Why does the woman want to go to Hana’s Bookstore?
A. To deliver some books. B. To keep an appointment. C. To buy some books.
15. What should the woman do at the first traffic light?
A. Go straight. B. Turn left. C. Turn right.
16. Where is Hana’s Bookstore?
A. Beside a supermarket. B. Opposite a post office. C. Beside a school.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What does Ossi Saarinen do?
A. He’s a scientist. B. He’s a photographer. C. He’s a journalist.
18. How much land is covered by the forests in Finland?
A. Almost 1/4 of the whole country.
B. Almost 1/3 of the whole country.
C. Almost 3/4 of the whole country.
19. What are the animals like in Finland?
A. Mysterious and attractive. B. Peaceful and funny. C. Smart and amazing.
20. What does the speaker plan to do next?
A. Show some pictures. B. Answer some questions. C. Play a video.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2. 5分，满分37. 5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. C 3. D
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. D 5. B 6. A 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. A 9. C 10. B 11. C
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. B 14. C 15. D
第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. G 17. D 18. E 19. F 20. B
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B，C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21 B 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. C
第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. world’s
37. are 38. drawn
39. at 40. that
41. have affected
42. Globally
43. justifying
44. painful
45. an
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】DearPeter，
You’ve been looking for a gym to build your body, haven’t you? I’m glad to tell you that I’ve just read an ad about such a gym and recommend it to you.
The gym is called BETTER BODY GYM. It has two branches in the city-one downtown and the other by the freeway . It opens from 10 a. m. to midnight, 365 days a year! It gives you 35 classes every week, including tennis and swimming. In this way, it will help you build the body you’ve always wanted. If you join BETTER BODY GYM this week, you will get a special offer, which includes a free T-shirt, two personal training hours and one month free membership. If you are interested, please call 5555 6789 for more information. To get fit and get healthy, I think this gym is a good choice for you.
Best wishes
Yours
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】 The next day, my mother dragged me to the eye doctor’s office. I chose a set of frames and tried to believe my mother when she said they looked really good on me. The doctor said the glasses would be ready soon. But I wasn’t ready at all. When the glasses arrived, the eye doctor put them on my face and walked me out onto the sidewalk in front of his office. Looking up from my shoes, I found myself in a whole new world — a world filled with clear pictures, bright colors, and fine detail everywhere I looked. I could also see my mother smiling as she watched me see the world in a whole new way. On that first day, they were a present.
But then Monday morning came, and I had to face what I fear: the kids in my classroom. I was frightened that some naughty boys would call me “four eyes!” However, it didn’t happened as I feared it would be. When I entered the classroom, Lily, my best friend, showed me a big smile, saying, “Wow! How beautiful your glasses are!” Even, during the math class, for the first time I raised up my hand and answered the question because I finally saw the blackboard clearly. So don’t be afraid of what you think is frightening, maybe it would open a brand new world.
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